UKSSSC Current Affairs Quiz — Last 6 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
India met its all-time highest peak power demand on 25 April 2026. What was the demand met?
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Correct answer: C — 256.1 GW
The Ministry of Power said India met an all-time high peak demand of 256.1 GW on 25 April 2026 at 15:38 hrs.
Before 25 April 2026, India's previous all-time high peak power demand of 250 GW was recorded on:
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Correct answer: D — 30 May 2024
The previous all-time high of 250 GW was recorded on 30 May 2024; the FY 2025–26 peak was 245.4 GW on 9 January 2026.
Consider the following statements about the April 2026 record power demand: 1. India added a record of around 65 GW of generation capacity during FY 2025–26. 2. Electricity exports to neighbouring countries were suspended to meet the peak. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The ministry cited record capacity addition of around 65 GW in FY 2025–26, and said exports to neighbouring countries were maintained, so only statement 1 is correct.
Census 2027 will be which census in the series since Independence?
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Correct answer: D — 8th
The PIB backgrounder says Census 2027 will be the 16th census in the series and the 8th since Independence.
India's first synchronous census was conducted in:
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Correct answer: B — 1881
The backgrounder says the first modern census was conducted between 1865 and 1872, not simultaneously, and the first synchronous census was held in 1881.
Consider the following statements about Census 2027: 1. The decision to include caste enumeration was taken by the Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs on 30 April 2025. 2. Its outlay is ₹11,718.24 crore. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are stated in the PIB backgrounder of 25 April 2026.
NITI Aayog's April 2026 report 'Moving Towards Effective City Government' focuses on which category of cities?
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Correct answer: B — Million-plus cities
The report is titled 'Moving Towards Effective City Government – A Framework for Million-plus Cities' and prioritises India's million-plus cities.
Consider the following recommendations of NITI Aayog's report on million-plus cities (April 2026): 1. A directly elected Mayor with a fixed tenure, supported by an empowered Mayor-in-Council. 2. Bringing water supply, sanitation and public transport under city governments. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are among the report's key recommendations.
Project DANTAK, which celebrated its 66th Raising Day in April 2026, is a project of the Border Roads Organisation in:
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Correct answer: A — Bhutan
Project DANTAK of the BRO celebrated its 66th Raising Day at Thimphu, Bhutan, where it has worked since April 1961.
Project DANTAK of the Border Roads Organisation was established in Bhutan in:
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Correct answer: C — April 1961
Project DANTAK has served in Bhutan since its establishment in April 1961; its 66th Raising Day in 2026 marked 65 years.
Consider the following statements about Project DANTAK: 1. It was instrumental in building Paro International Airport. 2. It has constructed over 1,500 km of roads in Bhutan, including the East–West Highway connecting Trashigang to Thimphu. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are stated in the Ministry of Defence release on the 66th Raising Day.
Who was appointed Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog under the Cabinet Secretariat notification of 24 April 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Ashok Kumar Lahiri
The notification approved Ashok Kumar Lahiri's appointment as Vice Chairperson; Rajiv Gauba, K. V. Raju and Abhay Karandikar were among the full-time members.
NITI Aayog, reconstituted in April 2026, was originally constituted through:
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Correct answer: B — A Cabinet resolution dated 1 January 2015
NITI Aayog was constituted by a Cabinet Secretariat resolution dated 1 January 2015, replacing the Planning Commission set up by a Cabinet resolution on 15 March 1950.
Consider the following statements about the April 2026 reconstitution of NITI Aayog: 1. Rajiv Gauba and Gobardhan Das were appointed as full-time members. 2. The ex-officio members and special invitees were also replaced. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Rajiv Gauba and Gobardhan Das are among the five full-time members; the notification says ex-officio members and special invitees remain the same, so only statement 1 is correct.
The Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) 2.0 report released on 24 April 2026 rationalised the number of indicators from 516 to:
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Correct answer: B — 150
PAI 2.0 rationalised indicators from 516 to 150 and recorded participation of 97.30% of Gram Panchayats.
Provisions relating to Panchayats, given constitutional status by the 73rd Amendment Act, are contained in which Part of the Constitution of India?
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Correct answer: D — Part IX
The PIB backgrounder notes that the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 came into force in 1993 and the provisions related to Panchayats are in Part IX.
Consider the following statements made on National Panchayati Raj Day 2026: 1. The Sixteenth Finance Commission's grant for rural local bodies is nearly 84% higher than under the Fifteenth Finance Commission. 2. Basic and performance grants are split in the ratio 50:50. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The secretary said the 16th FC grant is nearly 84% higher than under the 15th FC, with an 80:20 ratio between basic and performance grants; only statement 1 is correct.
The first phase of the DGCA ranking of Flying Training Organisations, whose second phase was released in April 2026, was published on:
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Correct answer: D — 1 October 2025
The ministry said the first phase of the FTO ranking was published on 1 October 2025.
While releasing the FTO ranking in April 2026, the Civil Aviation Minister estimated India's requirement of additional pilots over the next decade at nearly:
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Correct answer: B — 30,000
Ram Mohan Naidu cited an estimated requirement of nearly 30,000 additional pilots over the next decade.
MoSPI's April 2026 proposal for city-level statistical reports covers how many million-plus cities (as per Census 2011)?
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Correct answer: C — 47
The NSO proposed dedicated city-level statistical reports for 47 million-plus cities as per Population Census 2011.
The proposed city-level statistical reports of MoSPI (April 2026) will be based on data from:
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Correct answer: B — PLFS and ASUSE
The reports will use existing data from the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) and the Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises (ASUSE).
What is the outlay of the mining sector reform incentive included in the Scheme for Special Assistance to States for Capital Investment (SASCI) for FY 2026-27?
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Correct answer: B — ₹5,000 crore
The Ministry of Mines said an incentive mechanism on mining sector reforms with ₹5,000 crore outlay has been incorporated in SASCI for FY 2026-27.
Under the SASCI 2026-27 mining reform component, a state gets ₹20 crore for each major mineral block auctioned with pre-embedded clearances, subject to an upper cap per state of:
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Correct answer: D — ₹200 crore
The incentive is ₹20 crore per block successfully auctioned up to 31 December 2026, with an upper cap of ₹200 crore per state.
India and the United States issued a Joint Statement agreeing on a framework for an Interim Agreement on trade on:
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Correct answer: B — 7 February 2026
The Commerce Ministry said the Joint Statement on the framework for an Interim Agreement was issued on 7 February 2026.
The in-person India–US Bilateral Trade Agreement round of 20–23 April 2026 was held in:
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Correct answer: D — Washington D.C.
The Indian delegation visited Washington D.C. for the in-person round from 20 to 23 April 2026.
Consider the following statements about the India–US trade talks of April 2026: 1. The round aimed to finalise the details of an Interim Agreement. 2. Digital trade and economic security alignment were among the areas discussed. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the round sought to finalise the Interim Agreement, and the areas discussed included digital trade and economic security alignment.
Under which law has the FDI limit in the Indian insurance sector been raised to 100%?
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Correct answer: B — Sabka Bima, Sabki Raksha (Amendment of Insurance Laws) Act, 2025
The PIB backgrounder says the FDI limit in insurance was raised to 100% under the Sabka Bima, Sabki Raksha (Amendment of Insurance Laws) Act, 2025.
According to the Swiss Re report cited by PIB in April 2026, India's rank among global insurance markets by premium volume is:
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Correct answer: C — 10th
India ranks as the 10th largest insurance market globally by premium volume, per the Swiss Re report.
Consider the following statements from the PIB backgrounder on insurance (April 2026): 1. IRDAI has committed to the vision of 'Insurance for All by 2047'. 2. The share of insurance and pension funds in household financial assets fell between FY19 and FY25. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
IRDAI's vision is 'Insurance for All by 2047'; the share rose from 28.6% in FY19 to 29.6% in FY25, so only statement 1 is correct.
According to the review of BSNL's FY 2025-26 results, its average revenue per user (ARPU) rose to:
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Correct answer: D — ₹101
BSNL's ARPU improved to ₹101 in FY 2025-26 from ₹71 the previous year, a 42% rise.
Which BSNL circle was named the overall best performing circle for FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: B — Odisha
The Odisha circle was honoured as the overall best performing circle, with about 21% growth in revenue from services.
The 12-km greenfield Dehradun bypass being built by NHAI connects to which corridor?
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Correct answer: C — Delhi–Dehradun Economic Corridor
The bypass connects to the Delhi–Dehradun Economic Corridor near Asharori Check Post.
To reduce impact on forest land, the right of way of the Dehradun bypass has been optimised to:
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Correct answer: A — 30 metres
The right of way has been optimised to 30 metres, lower than the conventional 60 metres, to preserve forest trees.
Defence Minister Rajnath Singh addressed the Defence Investor Summit on 23 April 2026, the final day of his maiden visit to Germany, in:
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Correct answer: B — Munich
Rajnath Singh addressed Indian and German defence industry leaders at the Defence Investor Summit in Munich.
Consider the following statements about Rajnath Singh's address in Munich (April 2026): 1. Sonobuoys and AI-enabled unmanned aerial systems were among the areas proposed for co-development. 2. Singh referred to the potential under the 'ReArm Europe' initiative. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: Singh cited ReArm Europe and Aatmanirbhar Bharat and listed areas including AI-enabled UAS and sonobuoys.
The 13th session of the India–Czech Republic Joint Commission for Economic Cooperation, held in April 2026, was co-chaired from the Indian side by:
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Correct answer: A — Jitin Prasada
MoS for Commerce and Industry Jitin Prasada co-chaired the 13th JCEC in Prague on 23 April 2026.
The 13th India–Czech Republic JCEC session was held on 23 April 2026 in:
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Correct answer: D — Prague
The session was held in Prague, where its protocol was signed.
The Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Rules, 2026 come into force on:
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Correct answer: B — 1 May 2026
MeitY said the Rules will come into force on 1 May 2026.
Which body do the Online Gaming Rules, 2026 establish as a unified, digital-first regulator for the sector?
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Correct answer: A — Online Gaming Authority of India
The Rules establish the Online Gaming Authority of India as a unified, digital-first regulator.
Consider the following statements about the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming (PROG) Act, 2025 and its Rules: 1. The Act was enacted by Parliament in August 2025. 2. The Rules have been framed under Section 12 of the Act. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The PROG Act was enacted in August 2025; the Rules were made under Section 19 (Section 12 deals with civil penalties), so only statement 1 is correct.
Which document on defence industry was signed during Rajnath Singh's talks with Boris Pistorius in Berlin on 22 April 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Defence Industrial Cooperation Roadmap
A Defence Industrial Cooperation Roadmap and an Implementing Arrangement for Cooperation in UN Peacekeeping Training were signed and exchanged.
Boris Pistorius, who held talks with Rajnath Singh in April 2026, is the Defence Minister of:
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Correct answer: D — Germany
Boris Pistorius is Germany's Federal Minister of Defence; the talks were held in Berlin.
Consider the following statements about the India–Germany defence talks of 22 April 2026: 1. An Implementing Arrangement for Cooperation in UN Peacekeeping Training was signed. 2. The talks were held in Munich. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The Implementing Arrangement on UN Peacekeeping Training was signed, but the talks were in Berlin. Only statement 1 is correct.
Which ministry administers the Prime Minister Internship Scheme, whose eligibility was expanded to final-year students in April 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Ministry of Corporate Affairs
The Ministry of Corporate Affairs expanded PMIS eligibility, in consultation with the Department of Higher Education.
Under the April 2026 change to the PM Internship Scheme, final-year students applying must submit:
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Correct answer: A — A No Objection Certificate from their institution
Students must submit a No Objection Certificate from their institution confirming the internship will not interfere with academic requirements.
What is the outlay of the revised Technology Development and Investment Promotion (TDIP) Scheme of DoT for 2026–31?
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Correct answer: D — ₹203 crore
The revised TDIP Scheme has a total outlay of ₹203 crore for 2026–31.
The TDIP Scheme seeks to enhance India's participation in which of the following global telecom standardisation bodies?
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Correct answer: B — ITU, 3GPP and oneM2M
The scheme supports Indian participation in the ITU, 3GPP and oneM2M.
According to the MNRE Minister (April 2026), India's wind energy capacity target for 2030 is:
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Correct answer: B — 100 GW
Pralhad Joshi said India will achieve 100 GW of wind capacity by 2030 and 156 GW by 2036.
Consider the following statements about India's wind energy sector (April 2026): 1. India added a record 6.1 GW of wind capacity in 2025–26. 2. India's wind potential at 150 metres hub height is estimated at nearly 1,164 GW. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both were stated by the minister at the WIPPA Foundation Day on 22 April 2026.
On the sidelines of the 11th India–Egypt Joint Defence Committee meeting in April 2026, which talks were held for the first time?
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Correct answer: B — Navy-to-Navy Staff Talks
The inaugural Navy-to-Navy Staff Talks were held on the sidelines of the 11th JDC in Cairo.
Consider the following statements about India–Egypt defence ties (April 2026): 1. The 11th Joint Defence Committee agreed a bilateral defence cooperation plan for 2026-27. 2. India and Egypt signed an MoU on defence cooperation in September 2022. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are stated in the Ministry of Defence release on the 11th JDC.
According to provisional MPEDA data, India's seafood exports in FY 2025–26 were valued at about:
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Correct answer: D — ₹72,326 crore
Seafood exports reached a record ₹72,325.82 crore (US$8.28 billion) in FY 2025–26.
Which was the second-largest destination for India's seafood exports in FY 2025–26?
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Correct answer: B — China
The US was the largest destination; China, the second-largest, grew 22.7% in value.
Consider the following statements about India's seafood exports in FY 2025–26: 1. Frozen shrimp accounted for over two-thirds of total export earnings. 2. Exports to the United States rose in both value and volume. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Frozen shrimp earned ₹47,973.13 crore, over two-thirds of the total, but exports to the US fell 14.5% in value and 19.8% in volume.
Which body administers the Atal Pension Yojana, which crossed 9 crore gross enrolments in April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — PFRDA
APY is administered by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA).
Under the Atal Pension Yojana, the guaranteed monthly pension after the age of 60 ranges from:
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Correct answer: A — ₹1,000 to ₹5,000
APY guarantees a monthly pension of ₹1,000 to ₹5,000 after the subscriber turns 60.
Consider the following statements about the Atal Pension Yojana: 1. It was launched on 9 May 2015 and is open to Indian citizens aged 18 to 40 years. 2. After the death of both the subscriber and the spouse, the corpus accumulated till age 60 is returned to the nominee. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: APY was launched on 9 May 2015 for citizens aged 18–40, and the corpus goes to the nominee after the death of both subscriber and spouse.
How many delegates took part in Phase II of ECI's International Election Visitors' Programme 2026?
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Correct answer: A — 34 delegates from 17 countries
34 delegates from 17 countries, including International IDEA, took part in Phase II.
Which states/UTs did delegates visit in Phase I of the International Election Visitors' Programme 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Assam, Kerala and Puducherry
In Phase I, delegates visited Assam, Kerala and Puducherry on 8–9 April 2026; Phase II covered Tamil Nadu and West Bengal.
Who delivered the keynote address at the 18th Civil Services Day in New Delhi on 21 April 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Vice-President C.P. Radhakrishnan
Vice-President C.P. Radhakrishnan delivered the keynote address at Vigyan Bhawan.
Applications for the Prime Minister's Awards for Excellence in 2025 numbered:
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Correct answer: B — 2,035
Applications rose from 1,216 in 2023 to 1,588 in 2024 and 2,035 in 2025; 4,770 is the number of iGOT courses.
Consider the following statements made at the 18th Civil Services Day: 1. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel described civil servants as the 'steel frame of India' while addressing probationers in Delhi 79 years earlier. 2. Average grievance resolution time on CPGRAMS has fallen from 60 days to about 12 days. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the Vice-President recalled Patel's 'steel frame' address 79 years earlier, and Dr Jitendra Singh cited the fall in CPGRAMS resolution time from 60 to about 12 days.
INS Sunayna, deployed under IOS SAGAR, made its third port call of the deployment at which city on 21 April 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Jakarta
INS Sunayna arrived at Jakarta, Indonesia, on 21 April 2026 for its third port call.
Consider the following statements about the IOS SAGAR deployment of INS Sunayna in 2026: 1. The ship carries a multinational crew drawn from 16 friendly foreign countries. 2. The mission's harbour phase was held in Indonesia before the sea phase began. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The crew is from 16 friendly foreign countries, but the harbour phase was held in India from 16 to 29 March 2026.
What is the outlay of the Production-Linked Incentive Scheme for the Food Processing Industry (2021-22 to 2026-27)?
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Correct answer: B — ₹10,900 crore
PLISFPI has an outlay of ₹10,900 crore; ₹1.97 lakh crore is the outlay of the overall PLI framework across 14 sectors.
As of February 2026, how many jobs had the PLI Scheme for the Food Processing Industry created, against a target of 2.5 lakh?
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Correct answer: D — About 3.39 lakh
About 3.39 lakh jobs had been created, exceeding the employment target of 2.5 lakh.
Consider the following statements about Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) schemes: 1. The umbrella PLI Scheme was launched in April 2020 and now covers 14 strategic sectors. 2. The PLI Scheme for the Food Processing Industry was approved by the Union Cabinet on 31 March 2021. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, per the PIB backgrounder: the PLI Scheme was launched in April 2020 and covers 14 sectors, and PLISFPI was approved by the Cabinet on 31 March 2021.
The TRAWL assembly contracted by the Defence Ministry in April 2026 is meant for which tanks?
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Correct answer: B — T-72 and T-90
The ₹975 crore contracts are for TRAWL assemblies for T-72/T-90 tanks.
What is the main purpose of the DRDO-developed TRAWL assembly?
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Correct answer: B — Creating vehicle-safe lanes through anti-tank minefields
The TRAWL assembly enhances minefield breaching by creating vehicle-safe lanes through minefields with anti-tank mines.
Where was the 7th India–Bhutan Joint Group of Customs meeting held in April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Munnar
The 7th JGC meeting was held in Munnar, Kerala, on 20–21 April 2026.
Consider the following statements about India–Bhutan trade and customs, as stated by the Finance Ministry in April 2026: 1. All 10 notified land customs stations on the India–Bhutan border are located in West Bengal. 2. India accounts for nearly 80% of Bhutan's total trade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. Of the 10 notified land customs stations, six are in West Bengal and four in Assam; India accounts for nearly 80% of Bhutan's trade.
The Vibrant Villages Programme, reviewed at an MSDE workshop in April 2026, is a flagship initiative of which ministry?
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Correct answer: C — Ministry of Home Affairs
The Vibrant Villages Programme is a flagship initiative of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Consider the following statements about the Vibrant Villages Programme as described by MSDE in April 2026: 1. It aims to develop 662 villages as 'first villages' across Arunachal Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim and Ladakh. 2. Assessment and certification of skilling under it is done through the Skill India Digital Hub. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the programme covers 662 villages in those five states/UTs, and MSDE facilitates assessment and certification through the Skill India Digital Hub.