State Staff Selection Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
The Patna–Arrah–Sasaram corridor approved by the CCEA on 28 March 2025 has been assigned which National Highway number?
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Correct answer: A — NH-119A
The 120.10 km four-lane corridor is NH-119A; NH-19, NH-319 and NH-922 are highways it connects with.
On which model will the Patna–Arrah–Sasaram corridor, approved on 28 March 2025, be developed?
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Correct answer: D — Hybrid Annuity Mode
The project will be developed on Hybrid Annuity Mode (HAM) at a capital cost of ₹3,712.40 crore.
On which date did the Union Cabinet approve the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme (ECMS)?
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Correct answer: B — 28 March 2025
The Union Cabinet approved ECMS on 28 March 2025 with an outlay of ₹22,919 crore.
What production target was set for the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme when it was approved on 28 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹4,56,500 crore
The scheme targets production of ₹4,56,500 crore; ₹59,350 crore is the investment target.
Consider the following statements about the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme approved on 28 March 2025: 1. Display module and camera module sub-assemblies are covered under a turnover-linked incentive. 2. Li-ion cells for storage and mobility applications are among the bare components covered. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Display and camera module sub-assemblies get a turnover-linked incentive. The Li-ion cell category covers digital applications and excludes storage and mobility.
On 28 March 2025, the Amit Shah-led High-Level Committee approved ₹555.70 crore for which State's recovery from the October 2023 GLOF?
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Correct answer: D — Sikkim
₹555.70 crore was approved for Sikkim's recovery and reconstruction after the October 2023 Glacial Lake Outburst Flood.
Consider the following statements about the High-Level Committee that approved NDRF assistance on 28 March 2025: 1. It is chaired by the Union Home Minister and includes the Finance Minister, the Agriculture Minister and the NITI Aayog Vice Chairman. 2. The fire services projects it approved were funded from the Recovery and Reconstruction window of the NDRF. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The committee is chaired by the Home Minister with the FM, Agriculture Minister and NITI VC as members. Fire services projects came from the Preparedness and Capacity Building window; Sikkim's aid came from the Recovery and Reconstruction window.
Where was the 113th meeting of the EPFO Executive Committee held on 28 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Srinagar
The 113th EC meeting of the Central Board of Trustees, EPF, was held in Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir.
At its 113th meeting on 28 March 2025, the EPFO Executive Committee welcomed a proposal to raise the auto-claim settlement limit to:
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Correct answer: D — ₹5 lakh
The EC welcomed the proposal to raise the auto-claim limit to ₹5 lakh.
After the hike approved on 28 March 2025, what is the Dearness Allowance rate for Central Government employees from 1 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 55%
DA was raised by 2% from 53% to 55% of basic pay, effective 1 January 2025.
About how many pensioners benefit from the Dearness Relief increase approved on 28 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 66.55 lakh
About 66.55 lakh pensioners benefit; 48.66 lakh is the number of employees.
Under which programme did the CCEA include the Kosi–Mechi Intra-State Link Project of Bihar on 28 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — PMKSY-Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme
The project was included under PMKSY-AIBP of the Ministry of Jal Shakti, with ₹3,652.56 crore central support.
The Kosi–Mechi link project approved on 28 March 2025 will divert surplus Kosi water into which river basin in Bihar?
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Correct answer: B — Mahananda
The project diverts part of the Kosi's surplus water to the Mahananda basin, irrigating Araria, Purnea, Kishanganj and Katihar.
The Time Use Survey 2024, whose report was released on 28 March 2025, was which all-India edition of the survey?
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Correct answer: C — Second
It was the second all-India Time Use Survey; the first was conducted in 2019.
According to Time Use in India 2024, what share of women aged 15–59 took part in paid activities?
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Correct answer: B — 24.9%
24.9% of women aged 15–59 took part in paid activities, against 74.5% of men.
Consider the following statements about the Time Use Survey (TUS) 2024: 1. Non-SNA production activities, such as unpaid domestic work, saw participation by 93.9% of women aged 15–59. 2. Time-use surveys capture only work that is counted in the national accounts. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
93.9% of women aged 15–59 took part in non-SNA production activities. Time-use surveys are valuable precisely because they also capture work not counted in national accounts, such as unpaid domestic and care work.
What is the approximate budget requirement for Nutrient Based Subsidy on P&K fertilisers for Kharif 2025, approved on 28 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹37,216 crore
The Cabinet approved NBS rates for Kharif 2025 with a budget need of about ₹37,216.15 crore.
Under the Kharif 2025 NBS decision of 28 March 2025, freight subsidy was extended for which fertiliser?
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Correct answer: D — Single Super Phosphate (SSP)
The freight subsidy on Single Super Phosphate (SSP) was extended to Kharif 2025.
Which Bill did the Lok Sabha pass on 27 March 2025 after a reply by Home Minister Amit Shah?
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Correct answer: C — Immigration and Foreigners Bill, 2025
The Lok Sabha passed the Immigration and Foreigners Bill, 2025 on 27 March 2025.
How many existing laws does the Immigration and Foreigners Bill, 2025 replace, as stated by the Home Minister on 27 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Four
The Home Minister said the Bill replaces four existing laws; three of them date from 1920, 1939 and 1946.
The Immigration and Foreigners Bill, 2025 gives a legal framework to which system for tracking foreign nationals?
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Correct answer: C — IVFRT
The Bill gives legal backing to the Immigration, Visa and Foreigners Registration and Tracking (IVFRT) system.
Consider the following statements made by the Home Minister on the Immigration and Foreigners Bill, 2025 on 27 March 2025: 1. Three of the laws being replaced were enacted in 1920, 1939 and 1946. 2. The District Police Module (Foreigners Identification Portal) had been launched in only about 200 districts. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Three of the replaced laws date from 1920, 1939 and 1946. The Home Minister said the Foreigners Identification Portal had been launched in over 700 districts, not about 200.
What was the total value of the six ODA loan agreements India signed with JICA on 27 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — JPY 191.736 billion
The six loan agreements were worth JPY 191.736 billion in total.
Which project received the largest loan among the six Japanese ODA agreements signed on 27 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Delhi MRTS Project (Phase 4 Additional Corridors) (I)
The Delhi MRTS Phase 4 Additional Corridors (I) loan was the largest at JPY 79.726 billion.
Under the Japanese ODA loans signed on 27 March 2025, an aquaculture promotion and livelihood improvement project is in which State?
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Correct answer: C — Assam
The Assam State Aquaculture Promotion and Livelihood Improvement Project received JPY 3.580 billion.
Consider the following statements about the Japanese ODA loans signed on 27 March 2025: 1. Two of the six loans are for projects in Tamil Nadu. 2. The Punjab project financed under these loans is an urban transport project. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Tamil Nadu has two: the Chennai desalination plant and the TN Investment Promotion Program. The Punjab project is for biodiversity and natural resources conservation, not urban transport.
Which State topped the medal table at the Khelo India Para Games 2025, which closed on 27 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Haryana
Haryana retained the title with 34 gold, 39 silver and 31 bronze medals.
Which State finished second at the Khelo India Para Games 2025, improving from third in the first edition?
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Correct answer: A — Tamil Nadu
Tamil Nadu finished second with 28 golds (74 medals), up from third in 2023.
Consider the following statements about the Khelo India Para Games: 1. The 2025 edition, held in New Delhi from 20 to 27 March, was the second edition. 2. The first edition, held in December 2023, was won by Uttar Pradesh. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The 2025 Games were the second edition. Haryana won the first edition in December 2023; Uttar Pradesh was second then.
How much does the Centre plan to borrow through dated securities in the first half of FY 2025-26, as announced on 27 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹8.00 lakh crore
₹8 lakh crore, or 54% of the ₹14.82 lakh crore budgeted for the year, is to be borrowed in H1.
In the H1 FY 2025-26 borrowing plan, which maturity accounts for the largest share of borrowing?
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Correct answer: B — 10-year
10-year securities have the largest share at 26.2%; 15-year and 40-year papers have 14% each.
Keizai Doyukai, whose delegation met PM Narendra Modi on 27 March 2025, is an association of corporate executives from which country?
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Correct answer: B — Japan
Keizai Doyukai is the Japan Association of Corporate Executives; its delegation was led by Takeshi Niinami.
While meeting the Keizai Doyukai delegation on 27 March 2025, PM Modi highlighted which system developed in India to fast-track Japanese investments?
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Correct answer: C — Japan Plus
The PM highlighted the Japan Plus system, set up to facilitate and fast-track Japanese investment in India.
With which company did the Ministry of Defence sign the contract for the NAMIS (Tracked) anti-tank system on 27 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Armoured Vehicles Nigam Limited
The ₹1,801.34 crore NAMIS (Tr) contract was signed with Armoured Vehicles Nigam Limited.
Which DRDO laboratory developed the NAMIS (Tracked) weapon system contracted on 27 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Defence Research and Development Laboratory (DRDL)
The NAMIS (Tr) system was developed by DRDO's Defence Research and Development Laboratory.
The light vehicles contracted by the Ministry of Defence on 27 March 2025 were ordered from which companies?
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Correct answer: D — Force Motors and Mahindra & Mahindra
About 5,000 light vehicles with an 800 kg payload were ordered from Force Motors Ltd and Mahindra & Mahindra Ltd.
Which two States received XV Finance Commission untied grants for rural local bodies, as announced on 27 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Karnataka and Tripura
Karnataka received ₹404.97 crore and Tripura ₹31.13 crore as the second instalment of untied grants for 2024-25.
Consider the following statements about XV Finance Commission untied grants to rural local bodies: 1. They can be used for salaries and establishment costs of panchayats. 2. In Tripura, Traditional Local Bodies were among the recipients of the 2024-25 second instalment. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Untied grants cannot be used for salaries and establishment costs. In Tripura, the grant covered Gram, Block and District Panchayats and Traditional Local Bodies.
The Tribhuvan Sahkari University Bill, passed by the Lok Sabha on 26 March 2025, seeks to set up India's first university dedicated to which sector?
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Correct answer: D — Cooperatives
It will be India's first university dedicated to the cooperative sector.
Tribhuvan Sahkari University is named after Tribhuvandas Patel, a pioneer associated with which cooperative institution?
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Correct answer: B — Amul (GCMMF)
Tribhuvandas Patel is associated with the Gujarat Cooperative Milk Marketing Federation, popularly known as Amul.
According to Amit Shah on 26 March 2025, Tribhuvan Sahkari University will be able to award diplomas, degrees or certificates to about how many candidates a year?
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Correct answer: C — 8 lakh
Amit Shah said the university will have the capacity to train about 8 lakh people a year.
With which company did the Ministry of Defence sign the contract for ATAGS guns on 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Bharat Forge Limited
The ATAGS contract was signed with Bharat Forge Limited; the gun-towing vehicles contract went to Tata Advanced Systems.
What is the calibre of the ATAGS guns contracted on 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 155mm/52
ATAGS is a 155mm/52 calibre towed artillery gun system.
Which DRDO laboratory developed the ATAGS, whose project director was felicitated on 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ARDE, Pune
ATAGS was developed by DRDO's Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE), Pune.
Consider the following statements about the ATAGS procurement of 26 March 2025: 1. It is the Indian Army's first major procurement of towed guns from the private sector. 2. With it, MoD's capital procurement contracts in 2024-25 crossed ₹2 lakh crore. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
ATAGS is the Army's first major towed-gun buy from the private sector. On 26 March 2025, capital contracts for 2024-25 stood at ₹1.40 lakh crore, not over ₹2 lakh crore.
From where did DRDO and the Indian Navy flight-test the VL-SRSAM on 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Integrated Test Range, Chandipur
The test was carried out from the Integrated Test Range, Chandipur, off the Odisha coast.
Which capability did the VL-SRSAM flight test of 26 March 2025 establish?
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Correct answer: D — Near-boundary low-altitude engagement
The missile hit a high-speed aerial target at very close range and low altitude, establishing near-boundary low-altitude capability.
Consider the following statements about the VL-SRSAM test of 26 March 2025: 1. The missile was fired from a ship-based vertical launcher. 2. The missile uses an indigenous radio frequency seeker. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
The test was from a land-based vertical launcher, not a ship. The missile carries an indigenous radio frequency seeker.
The third session of the India–Uganda Joint Trade Committee, held in New Delhi on 25–26 March 2025, came after a gap of how many years?
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Correct answer: C — 23
The third JTC session was held after a gap of 23 years.
At the India–Uganda JTC of March 2025, the two sides agreed to explore an MoU on recognition of which Indian standard?
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Correct answer: B — Indian Pharmacopoeia
They agreed to explore MoUs including one on recognition of the Indian Pharmacopoeia.
The Mount Everest expedition flagged off on 26 March 2025 commemorates 60 years of which institute?
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Correct answer: C — Nehru Institute of Mountaineering, Uttarkashi
The Everest expedition marks 60 years of the Nehru Institute of Mountaineering (NIM), Uttarkashi.
The Mount Kangchenjunga expedition flagged off on 26 March 2025 is organised by NIMAS, which is located at:
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Correct answer: D — Dirang, Arunachal Pradesh
NIMAS, the National Institute of Mountaineering and Adventure Sports, is at Dirang, Arunachal Pradesh; the expedition is under 'Har Shikhar Tiranga'.
National Highways Infra Trust (NHIT), which completed a record fund-raising round announced on 26 March 2025, is an InvIT set up by:
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Correct answer: C — NHAI
NHIT is the Infrastructure Investment Trust set up by NHAI in 2020 to support the government's monetisation programme.
What was the approximate enterprise value of NHIT's fourth fund-raising round, announced on 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹18,380 crore
The fourth round was at an enterprise value of about ₹18,380 crore; ₹46,000 crore is the total across four rounds.
Which of the following highway stretches is among those to be acquired with funds from NHIT's fourth round, announced on 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Gandhidham–Mundra
The stretches include Gandhidham–Mundra (Gujarat) and Raipur–Bilaspur (Chhattisgarh), along with stretches in Andhra Pradesh and UP/Uttarakhand.
Where did the Election Commission begin its first-ever training of Booth Level Officers on 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — IIIDEM, New Delhi
The training began at the India International Institute of Democracy and Election Management (IIIDEM), New Delhi.
BLOs from which States formed the first batch of the Election Commission's BLO training on 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Bihar, West Bengal and Assam
The first batch had 109 BLOs from Bihar, West Bengal and Assam, poll-bound States.
Consider the following statements about Booth Level Officers (BLOs), as described by the Election Commission on 26 March 2025: 1. BLOs are State Government officials. 2. BLOs are appointed by the District Election Officers after the approval of the Chief Electoral Officer. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
BLOs are State Government officials. They are appointed by the Electoral Registration Officers (EROs) after the approval of the District Election Officers (DEOs).
Which components of the Gold Monetisation Scheme were discontinued with effect from 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Medium Term and Long Term Government Deposits
The Medium Term and Long Term Government Deposit (MLTGD) components were discontinued; the Short Term Bank Deposit may continue at banks' discretion.
After the March 2025 changes to the Gold Monetisation Scheme, what happens to the Short Term Bank Deposit (1–3 years)?
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Correct answer: D — It continues at the discretion of individual banks based on commercial viability
The Short Term Bank Deposit may continue at the discretion of individual banks, based on their assessment of commercial viability.
What happens to gold already deposited under the Medium and Long Term Government Deposit components of the GMS, after they were discontinued in March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — It continues until redemption as per existing guidelines
Existing deposits under MLTGD continue until redemption as per the extant GMS guidelines.
Consider the following statements about the Gold Monetisation Scheme (GMS): 1. The GMS was announced on 15 September 2015 to reduce India's reliance on gold imports in the long run. 2. Under the GMS, the Long Term Government Deposit had a tenure of 12–15 years. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The GMS was announced on 15 September 2015 to reduce reliance on gold imports and mobilise household and institutional gold. Its components were the Short Term Bank Deposit (1–3 years), Medium Term Government Deposit (5–7 years) and Long Term Government Deposit (12–15 years).
Which House passed the Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill, 2024 on 25 March 2025, completing its passage through Parliament?
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Correct answer: A — Rajya Sabha
The Rajya Sabha passed the Bill on 25 March 2025 after Home Minister Amit Shah's reply, completing its passage through Parliament.
The Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill, 2024, passed by Parliament in March 2025, enables state governments to set up which new body?
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Correct answer: D — Urban Disaster Management Authority
The Bill enables Urban Disaster Management Authorities, fully under state governments, for state capitals and cities with municipal corporations.
According to Amit Shah's reply in the Rajya Sabha on 25 March 2025, at which levels will the Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill create disaster databases?
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Correct answer: A — National and state levels
Amit Shah said the Bill would create disaster databases at the national and state levels.
Consider the following statements about the Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill, 2024, passed by Parliament on 25 March 2025: 1. It gives statutory status to the National Crisis Management Committee, which is chaired by the Cabinet Secretary. 2. It gives statutory status to the High Level Committee, which is chaired by the Prime Minister. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Per PRS, the NCMC is chaired by the Cabinet Secretary. The HLC, which approves financial assistance to states, is chaired by the minister in charge of the ministry with administrative control over disaster management, not the Prime Minister.
How many government amendments were included in the Finance Bill, 2025 when the Lok Sabha passed it on 25 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 35
The Lok Sabha passed the Finance Bill, 2025 with 35 government amendments.
One of the amendments to the Finance Bill, 2025, passed by the Lok Sabha on 25 March 2025, abolished which levy?
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Correct answer: D — 6% equalisation levy on online advertisements
An amendment abolished the 6% equalisation levy on online advertisements, popularly called the 'Google tax'.
What total expenditure does the Union Budget 2025-26 envisage, as reported when the Lok Sabha passed the Finance Bill on 25 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹50.65 lakh crore
The Union Budget 2025-26 envisages total expenditure of ₹50.65 lakh crore, an increase of 7.4% over the current fiscal.
Under which ICMR initiative was the drone transport of corneas, announced on 25 March 2025, carried out?
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Correct answer: B — i-DRONE
The cornea transport study is part of ICMR's i-DRONE initiative, first conceived during COVID-19 to deliver vaccines to remote areas.
In ICMR's drone pilot announced on 25 March 2025, corneal tissue was flown from which town to AIIMS Jhajjar and then AIIMS New Delhi?
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Correct answer: C — Sonipat
The drone carried corneal tissue from Dr. Shroff's Charity Eye Hospital in Sonipat, covering the distance in about 40 minutes against 2–2.5 hours by road.
Who is the chairman of the Jammu and Kashmir People's Movement (JKPM), which announced on 25 March 2025 that it had severed ties with separatism?
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Correct answer: D — Shahid Saleem
JKPM chairman Shahid Saleem declared that he and his organisation had no link with APHC(G) or APHC(A).
Which two Hurriyat constituents announced on 25 March 2025 that they had severed ties with separatism?
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Correct answer: A — J&K People's Movement and J&K Democratic Political Movement
The JKPM and the JKDPM announced their break on 25 March 2025. The J&K Tahreeqi Isteqlal and J&K Tahreek-I-Istiqamat followed on 27 March.
Which country did India beat in the men's regu final of the Sepak Takraw World Cup 2025 on 25 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Japan
India beat Japan 2-1 (11-15, 15-11, 17-14) in the final.
In which city was the ISTAF Sepak Takraw World Cup 2025, where India won its first gold, held?
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Correct answer: B — Patna
The World Cup was held at the Patliputra Sports Complex in Patna, Bihar, from 20 to 25 March 2025; it was Bihar's first time as host.
How many medals did India win at the Sepak Takraw World Cup 2025 in Patna?
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Correct answer: C — Seven
India won seven medals, up from five at the previous World Cup, including the men's regu gold.
India and Singapore signed a Letter of Intent on 25 March 2025 to work towards which corridor?
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Correct answer: C — Green and Digital Shipping Corridor
The LOI on maritime digitalisation and decarbonisation is a step towards an MoU on a Singapore-India Green and Digital Shipping Corridor (GDSC).
Which Singapore body's chief executive signed the India–Singapore Letter of Intent on green and digital shipping on 25 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Maritime and Port Authority of Singapore
The LOI was signed by R Lakshmanan, Joint Secretary, MoPSW, and Teo Eng Dih, Chief Executive of the Maritime and Port Authority of Singapore.
The Boilers Bill, 2024, introduced in the Lok Sabha on 25 March 2025, repeals a law from which year?
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Correct answer: B — 1923
The Boilers Bill, 2024 repeals the Boilers Act, 1923.
Under the Boilers Bill, 2024, introduced in the Lok Sabha in March 2025, how many of the seven offences in the law retain criminal penalties?
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Correct answer: B — Four
Criminal penalties are retained for four major offences that may cause loss of life and property; the other three are decriminalised.
Consider the following statements about the Boilers Bill, 2024, introduced in the Lok Sabha on 25 March 2025: 1. The Bill had already been passed by the Rajya Sabha on 4 December 2024. 2. Its decriminalisation provisions are in line with the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The Rajya Sabha passed the Bill on 4 December 2024. The review incorporated decriminalised provisions in consonance with the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023.