REET Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Under the royalty rates approved by the Cabinet in November 2025, what is the royalty on graphite with 80% or more fixed carbon?
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Correct answer: C — 2% of ASP
Graphite with 80% or more fixed carbon attracts 2% of ASP; graphite with less than 80% fixed carbon attracts 4%.
Consider the following statements in the context of the Cabinet decision on mineral royalties of 12 November 2025: 1. Graphite and zirconium are among the 24 critical and strategic minerals listed in the MMDR Act, 1957. 2. India imports about 90% of its graphite requirement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Graphite and zirconium are among the 24 critical and strategic minerals in the MMDR Act. India imports 60%, not 90%, of its graphite requirement.
Which of the minerals covered by the November 2025 royalty decision is mainly used in atomic clocks and GPS systems?
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Correct answer: D — Caesium
The Cabinet release says caesium is mainly used in high-tech electronics, particularly atomic clocks and GPS systems.
President Droupadi Murmu's State Visit in November 2025, which included the first-ever Indian Presidential visit to Botswana, covered which two countries?
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Correct answer: A — Angola and Botswana
Botswana was the final leg of the President's State Visit to Angola and Botswana.
Which council of tribal chiefs advises Botswana's National Assembly, which President Murmu addressed on 12 November 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Ntlo ya Dikgosi
The President's Secretariat noted that the National Assembly is advised by the Ntlo ya Dikgosi, a council of tribal chiefs.
In her address to Botswana's National Assembly, President Murmu linked India's 'Viksit Bharat 2047' vision with which African Union framework?
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Correct answer: B — Agenda 2063
She said Viksit Bharat by 2047 and Africa's Agenda 2063 offer an opportunity for active collaboration.
Which entity will provide 100% credit guarantee cover under the Credit Guarantee Scheme for Exporters approved in November 2025?
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Correct answer: D — National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Limited
NCGTC will give 100% guarantee cover to Member Lending Institutions for the additional credit to exporters.
Up to how much additional collateral-free credit to exporters is envisaged under the Credit Guarantee Scheme for Exporters?
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Correct answer: B — ₹20,000 crore
The CGSE envisages up to ₹20,000 crore of additional credit to eligible exporters, including MSMEs.
What is the capacity of the Punatsangchhu-II Hydroelectric Project in Bhutan, inaugurated during PM Modi's visit in November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 1020 MW
The 1020 MW Punatsangchhu-II project was inaugurated; 1200 MW is the capacity of Punatsangchhu-I.
What was the size of the Line of Credit to Bhutan announced during PM Modi's visit in November 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹4,000 crore
The list of outcomes includes an INR 4,000 crore Line of Credit to Bhutan.
Consider the following outcomes of PM Modi's visit to Bhutan in November 2025: 1. A decision to establish an Immigration Check Post at Hatisar across Gelephu. 2. A grant of land in Bodh Gaya for a Bhutanese temple and guest house. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
An ICP at Hatisar across Gelephu was agreed. The land grant for a Bhutanese temple, monastery and guest house is in Varanasi, not Bodh Gaya.
On behalf of which groups did India deliver statements at the opening plenary of COP30 in Belém in November 2025?
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Correct answer: B — BASIC and LMDC
India spoke on behalf of the BASIC group (Brazil, South Africa, India, China) and the Like-Minded Developing Countries.
At COP30, India called for implementation of which Article of the Paris Agreement, reaffirming developed countries' legal obligation to provide finance to developing countries?
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Correct answer: C — Article 9.1
India called for implementation of Article 9.1 of the Paris Agreement on developed countries' obligation to provide finance.
According to India's statement at COP30, adaptation financing needs to exceed current flows by roughly how many times?
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Correct answer: D — Fifteen times
India noted that adaptation financing needs to exceed nearly fifteen times current flows.
PM Modi attended the 70th birth anniversary celebrations of Bhutan's Fourth King in November 2025. Who is the Fourth King of Bhutan?
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Correct answer: B — Jigme Singye Wangchuck
The Fourth King is Jigme Singye Wangchuck; the present King is Jigme Khesar Namgyel Wangchuck.
The sacred viewing of which relics of Lord Buddha was held in Bhutan alongside the Global Peace Prayer Festival in November 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Piprahwa relics
PM Modi noted the Global Peace Prayer Festival was held alongside the sacred viewing of Lord Buddha's Piprahwa relics.
What was the size of the Call for Proposals announced by MNRE in November 2025 for green hydrogen pilots using biomass and waste?
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Correct answer: B — ₹100 crore
Pralhad Joshi announced a ₹100 crore Call for Proposals for biomass- and waste-based green hydrogen pilots.
What is the outlay of the National Green Hydrogen Mission, launched in 2023?
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Correct answer: C — ₹19,744 crore
The Mission was launched in 2023 with an outlay of ₹19,744 crore; ₹8 lakh crore is the investment it is expected to mobilise.
Which edition of the International Conference on Green Hydrogen (ICGH) was held at Bharat Mandapam in November 2025, where the NGHM logo was launched?
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Correct answer: D — 3rd
Pralhad Joshi addressed the inaugural session of the 3rd ICGH (ICGH 2025) at Bharat Mandapam.
Within how much time of reporting does MeitY's November 2025 SOP require takedown of Non-Consensual Intimate Imagery?
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Correct answer: A — 24 hours
The SOP lays out mechanisms for takedown of NCII content within 24 hours of reporting.
MeitY's SOP on Non-Consensual Intimate Imagery was developed in compliance with the directions of which High Court?
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Correct answer: D — Madras High Court
The SOP follows the Madras High Court's order dated 15 July 2025.
What was the unemployment rate for persons aged 15 years and above in July–September 2025, as per the PLFS quarterly bulletin?
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Correct answer: A — 5.2%
The unemployment rate fell to 5.2% in July–September 2025 from 5.4% in April–June.
What was the female Labour Force Participation Rate (15 years and above) in July–September 2025, as per PLFS?
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Correct answer: D — 33.7%
Female LFPR rose to 33.7% in July–September 2025 from 33.4% in April–June 2025.
Consider the following statements about the PLFS: 1. Its sampling methodology was revamped from January 2025 to give monthly and quarterly estimates for rural and urban India. 2. The overall LFPR fell to 54.1% in July–September 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The PLFS was revamped from January 2025 under the CWS framework. The overall LFPR rose slightly to 55.1%, not fell to 54.1%.
President Droupadi Murmu's visit to Angola in November 2025 coincided with which milestone?
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Correct answer: B — 50th anniversary of Angola's independence
The visit marked the 50th anniversary of Angola's independence.
According to President Murmu's address in Luanda, women make up more than what share of the members of Angola's Parliament?
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Correct answer: C — 39%
Murmu said more than 39% of the members of the Angolan Parliament are women.
Where was the 15th India–Vietnam Defence Policy Dialogue held on 10 November 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Hanoi
The 15th India–Vietnam Defence Policy Dialogue was held in Hanoi.
Which agreement was signed on the sidelines of the 15th India–Vietnam Defence Policy Dialogue in November 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Memorandum of Agreement for Mutual Submarine Search, Rescue Support and Cooperation
A Memorandum of Agreement for Mutual Submarine Search, Rescue Support and Cooperation was signed, along with a Letter of Intent on defence industry cooperation.
The proposed mandatory 'Country of Origin' filter for e-commerce platforms is to be introduced by amending which rules?
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Correct answer: C — Legal Metrology (Packaged Commodities) Rules, 2011
The draft amends rule 6(10) of the Legal Metrology (Packaged Commodities) Rules, 2011.
Consider the following statements about the draft 'Country of Origin' filter rules of November 2025: 1. The filter must be provided by every e-commerce entity selling imported products. 2. The draft was issued by the Department of Commerce. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The proviso applies to every e-commerce entity selling imported products. The draft was issued by the Department of Consumer Affairs, not the Department of Commerce.
During President Droupadi Murmu's visit to Angola in November 2025, India welcomed Angola's decision to join which of the following?
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Correct answer: A — International Big Cat Alliance and Global Biofuels Alliance
President Murmu welcomed Angola's decision to join the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) and the Global Biofuels Alliance (GBA).
Consider the following statements about the India–Angola talks held in Luanda on 9 November 2025: 1. MoUs on cooperation in fisheries, aquaculture and marine resources, and on consular matters were exchanged. 2. An MoU on joint defence production was exchanged. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The MoUs exchanged were on fisheries, aquaculture and marine resources, and on consular matters. No defence production MoU was announced.
Who was the President of Angola with whom President Droupadi Murmu held talks in Luanda in November 2025?
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Correct answer: B — João Manuel Gonçalves Lourenço
President Murmu held talks with President João Manuel Gonçalves Lourenço of Angola at the Presidential Palace, Luanda.
Which Indian Navy ship took part in Exercise Malabar 2025 at Guam?
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Correct answer: D — INS Sahyadri
The Defence Ministry said INS Sahyadri, an indigenously designed and built guided-missile stealth frigate, was at Guam for Malabar 2025.
Consider the following statements about Exercise Malabar: 1. It began in 1992 as a bilateral exercise between the United States and India. 2. Its 2025 edition, held at Guam, was the 29th edition and was led by the United States. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The US Navy said Malabar began in 1992 as a bilateral US–India exercise and later added Japan and Australia; the 2025 edition at Guam was the 29th and was led by the US, with the lead rotating every year.
Exercise Malabar 2025 was held at which location?
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Correct answer: A — Guam
INS Sahyadri participated in Malabar 2025 at Guam in the Northern Pacific.
Which training module did PM Narendra Modi launch at the National Conference on Strengthening Legal Aid Delivery Mechanisms on 8 November 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Community Mediation Training Module
PM Modi launched NALSA's Community Mediation Training Module, saying it revives the tradition of resolving disputes through dialogue.
Consider the following statements: 1. Article 39A of the Constitution of India provides for free legal aid. 2. National Legal Services Day is observed on 9 November because the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, came into force on that date in 1995. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Article 39A provides for free legal aid to the poor and weaker sections (Law Ministry backgrounder). The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, came into force on 9 November 1995, which is why 9 November is National Legal Services Day.
Under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is headed by whom?
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Correct answer: D — Chief Justice of India
The PIB backgrounder says the Act set up a three-tier system, with NALSA headed by the Chief Justice of India and State Legal Services Authorities headed by the Chief Justice of the High Court.
Where was the National Urban Conclave 2025 inaugurated on 8 November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Yashobhoomi, New Delhi
Union Minister Manohar Lal inaugurated the conclave at Yashobhoomi, New Delhi.
How many high-impact dumpsites, holding about 80% of the legacy waste, will the Dumpsite Remediation Accelerator Programme prioritise?
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Correct answer: A — 214
About 80% of the legacy waste is in 214 sites across 202 ULBs, which DRAP will prioritise; 1,428 sites are under remediation overall.
Consider the following statements about the Dumpsite Remediation Accelerator Programme (DRAP) launched in November 2025: 1. It is a year-long, mission-mode initiative. 2. Its priority sites hold about 8.8 crore tonnes of legacy waste. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The Housing Ministry described DRAP as a year-long, mission-mode initiative; its 214 priority sites cover about 8.8 crore MT of legacy waste.
The Urban Invest Window (UiWIN), launched at the National Urban Conclave 2025, is an initiative of which organisation?
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Correct answer: C — HUDCO
UiWIN is an initiative of HUDCO, under the guidance of the Housing and Urban Affairs Ministry, to serve as a one-stop investment facilitation platform for cities.
According to PM Modi's address on 7 November 2025, in which journal did Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay publish 'Vande Mataram' in 1875?
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Correct answer: B — Bangadarshan
PM Modi said Bankim Babu published Vande Mataram in Bangadarshan in 1875; it also appears in his novel Anandamath.
Consider the following statements: 1. Rabindranath Tagore sang 'Vande Mataram' at the Calcutta session in 1896. 2. The year-long commemoration of 150 years of 'Vande Mataram' runs from 7 November 2025 to 7 November 2026. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PM Modi recalled that Tagore sang Vande Mataram at the Calcutta Session in 1896, and the programme launched a commemoration from 7 November 2025 to 7 November 2026.
What did PM Modi release on 7 November 2025 to mark 150 years of 'Vande Mataram'?
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Correct answer: D — A commemorative coin and postage stamp
A special commemorative coin and postage stamp dedicated to Vande Mataram were released.
With which European Commission official did Commerce Secretary Rajesh Agrawal hold stocktaking meetings on the India–EU FTA on 5–6 November 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Sabine Weyand
Rajesh Agrawal met Sabine Weyand, Director-General for Trade, European Commission, for two days of stocktaking.
Where and when was the India–EU FTA negotiating round held in November 2025?
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Correct answer: A — New Delhi, 3–7 November
The EU negotiating team visited New Delhi from 3 to 7 November 2025; the stocktake meetings were on 5–6 November.
Who delivered India's National Statement at the Leaders' Summit of COP30 in Belém on 7 November 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Dinesh Bhatia, Ambassador of India to Brazil
India's Ambassador to Brazil, Dinesh Bhatia, delivered the National Statement at the Leaders' Summit on 7 November 2025.
In what capacity did India join Brazil's Tropical Forests Forever Facility (TFFF) at COP30?
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Correct answer: C — Observer
India welcomed Brazil's initiative to set up the TFFF and joined the Facility as an Observer.
According to India's National Statement at COP30, by how much did India reduce the emission intensity of its GDP between 2005 and 2020?
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Correct answer: B — 36%
The statement said India reduced the emission intensity of GDP by 36% between 2005 and 2020. 50% refers to the non-fossil share of installed power capacity.
The Supreme Court's 6 November 2025 ruling that grounds of arrest must be given in writing to every arrestee was based on which constitutional provision?
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Correct answer: B — Article 22(1)
The court held that the Article 22(1) requirement to inform an arrested person of the grounds of arrest applies to all offences and must be met in writing.
Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court's 6 November 2025 judgment in Mihir Rajesh Shah vs State of Maharashtra: 1. Grounds of arrest must be supplied in writing, in a language the arrestee understands, for offences under all statutes. 2. Where written grounds cannot be given at the time of arrest, they must be supplied at least 24 hours before production for remand. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The court required written grounds in the arrestee's language for all offences; if not given at arrest, they must be supplied at least two hours (not 24 hours) before production for remand.
Who authored the Supreme Court judgment of 6 November 2025 making written grounds of arrest mandatory for all offences?
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Correct answer: D — Justice Augustine George Masih
The Bench of CJI B.R. Gavai and Justice Augustine George Masih delivered the verdict; Justice Masih wrote the 52-page judgment.
India won the ICC Women's World Cup 2025 by defeating which team in the final on 2 November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — South Africa
India beat South Africa in the final on Sunday, 2 November 2025.
While hosting the World Cup winners on 6 November 2025, President Murmu praised them for defeating which 'seven-time world champion' team?
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Correct answer: B — Australia
The President said the team defeated the seven-time world champion and then-undefeated Australian team.
Who was the coach of the Indian team that won the ICC Women's World Cup 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Amol Mazumdar
Coach Amol Mazumdar thanked the Prime Minister when the team met him on 5 November 2025.
The Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues (Amendment) Rules, 2025, notified on 6 November 2025, were framed under which Act?
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Correct answer: C — Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues Act, 1994
The Health Ministry notified the amendment rules under the Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues Act, 1994 on 6 November 2025.
Which mandatory requirement for Corneal Transplantation Centres was removed by the THOTA (Amendment) Rules, 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Clinical Specular equipment
The amendment removed the mandatory requirement of Clinical Specular equipment in Corneal Transplantation Centres.
According to the Health Ministry, the THOTA (Amendment) Rules notified in November 2025 further strengthen which programme?
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Correct answer: D — National Organ Transplant Programme
The ministry said the amendment further strengthens the National Organ Transplant Programme (NOTP).
A high-level delegation from which country concluded a week-long visit to India in November 2025 to study DAY-NRLM?
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Correct answer: B — Ethiopia
A delegation from the Government of Ethiopia concluded a week-long learning and exposure visit focused on DAY-NRLM on 6 November 2025.
The National Rural Livelihoods Mission (now DAY-NRLM), studied by an Ethiopian delegation in November 2025, was created by restructuring which earlier scheme?
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Correct answer: D — Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana
NRLM was launched by restructuring the erstwhile Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY).
In which year was the National Rural Livelihoods Mission renamed Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM)?
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Correct answer: C — 2016
The Ministry of Rural Development renamed NRLM as DAY-NRLM with effect from 29 March 2016.
With which New Zealand minister did Piyush Goyal co-chair the India–New Zealand CEOs Roundtable on 6 November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Todd McClay
Goyal and New Zealand Trade Minister Todd McClay co-chaired the India–New Zealand CEOs Roundtable.
Te Puia in Rotorua, where Piyush Goyal received a traditional Pōwhiri on 6 November 2025, is New Zealand's national centre for what?
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Correct answer: A — Māori culture and arts
Te Puia is the national centre for Māori culture and arts, where Goyal was accorded a traditional Māori welcome (Pōwhiri).
With which company did the Directorate General of Training (MSDE) sign an MoU on 6 November 2025 to build digital design and make skills among ITI and NSTI trainers?
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Correct answer: B — Autodesk
DGT under MSDE and Autodesk exchanged an MoU to advance digital design and make skills among faculty and trainers in NSTIs and ITIs.
Who formally unveiled the India AI Governance Guidelines on 5 November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Prof. Ajay Kumar Sood, Principal Scientific Adviser
The guidelines were formally unveiled by Prof. Ajay Kumar Sood, Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India.
The India AI Governance Guidelines released in November 2025 were drafted by a high-level committee chaired by whom?
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Correct answer: A — Prof. Balaraman Ravindran, IIT Madras
The guidelines were drafted by a high-level committee under the chairmanship of Prof. Balaraman Ravindran, IIT Madras.
Consider the following statements about the India AI Governance Guidelines (November 2025): 1. The framework includes seven guiding principles (Sutras) and recommendations across six pillars of AI governance. 2. The guidelines propose a new standalone AI law to replace existing legislation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The framework has seven Sutras and six pillars; MeitY Secretary S. Krishnan said the focus remains on using existing legislation wherever possible, so statement 2 is wrong.
The IndiaAI Mission, under which the AI Governance Guidelines were released, was approved by the Union Cabinet on 7 March 2024 with what outlay?
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Correct answer: D — ₹10,371.92 crore
The Cabinet approved the IndiaAI Mission on 7 March 2024 with a budget outlay of ₹10,371.92 crore.
The launch of the India AI Governance Guidelines in November 2025 was described as a key milestone ahead of which event?
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Correct answer: C — India–AI Impact Summit 2026
MeitY said the launch marks a key milestone ahead of the India–AI Impact Summit 2026.
Where was the 9th round of India–Peru Trade Agreement negotiations held from 3 to 5 November 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Lima
The 9th round was held in Lima, Peru, from 3 to 5 November 2025.
Who led the Indian delegation as Chief Negotiator at the 9th round of India–Peru trade talks in November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Vimal Anand
The Indian delegation was led by Vimal Anand, Joint Secretary and Chief Negotiator; Vishvas Vidu Sapkal is India's Ambassador to Peru.
The 3rd round of India–Chile CEPA negotiations, mentioned alongside the 9th India–Peru round, was held in which city?
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Correct answer: D — Santiago
The 3rd round of India–Chile CEPA negotiations was held in Santiago, Chile, from 27 to 30 October 2025.
According to India's statement at the Second World Summit for Social Development (Doha, November 2025), India's social security coverage in 2025 stood at about:
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Correct answer: D — 64.3%
Mandaviya said India's social security coverage rose from 19% in 2015 to 64.3% in 2025.
India's statement at the Second World Summit for Social Development in Doha recalled a declaration adopted 30 years earlier that placed people at the centre of development. Which was it?
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Correct answer: B — Copenhagen Declaration
The statement said that 30 years ago the Copenhagen Declaration placed people at the centre of development.
According to India's November 2025 statement in Doha, approximately how many Indians were lifted out of multidimensional poverty in the last 10 years?
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Correct answer: C — 250 million
Mandaviya said approximately 250 million Indians had been lifted out of multidimensional poverty in the last 10 years.
Which body conferred the 'Award for Outstanding Achievement in Social Security' on India in 2025, as cited at the Doha social summit?
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Correct answer: B — International Social Security Association
Mandaviya said the International Social Security Association conferred the 'ISSA Award for Outstanding Achievement in Social Security' on India this year.
What is the month-long target of the nationwide Digital Life Certificate Campaign 4.0 (1–30 November 2025)?
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Correct answer: D — 2 crore
Campaign 4.0 has a month-long target of two crore DLCs; over 22 lakh were generated in its first four days.
Who formally launched the nationwide Digital Life Certificate Campaign 4.0 on 5 November 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Dr Jitendra Singh
Union Minister Dr Jitendra Singh, MoS (Independent Charge) and MoS for Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, formally launched the campaign.
Phase II of the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls, which began on 4 November 2025, covers how many States and Union Territories?
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Correct answer: B — 9 States and 3 UTs
SIR Phase II covers 9 States and 3 UTs (Andaman and Nicobar, Lakshadweep and Puducherry).
Consider the following statements about SIR Phase II (November 2025): 1. The Election Commission ordered it under Article 324 of the Constitution and Section 21 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950. 2. Its enumeration period runs until 4 December 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
ECI ordered the SIR under Article 324 and Section 21 of the RP Act, 1950, and the enumeration period runs from 4 November to 4 December 2025.
Approximately how many electors are covered by Phase II of the Special Intensive Revision that began in November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 51 crore
Phase II covers nearly 51 crore electors across 321 districts and 1,843 Assembly constituencies.
Which of the following is NOT among the States/UTs covered by SIR Phase II, which began on 4 November 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Assam
Phase II covers Chhattisgarh, Goa, Gujarat, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Andaman and Nicobar, Lakshadweep and Puducherry; Assam is not in the list.