Rajasthan Police Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Which body revoked the security clearance of M/s Celebi and its associated companies in May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Bureau of Civil Aviation Security
The Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS) revoked the clearance on grounds related to national security.
Consider the following statements about the revocation of Celebi's security clearance (May 2025): 1. It was revoked on grounds related to national security. 2. It was revoked by the Directorate General of Civil Aviation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The clearance was revoked by the Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS).
India's total exports (merchandise and services) in April 2025 were estimated at:
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Correct answer: A — US$ 73.80 billion
Total exports were US$ 73.80 billion. US$ 65.48 billion was the April 2024 figure, US$ 82.45 billion was total imports and US$ 38.49 billion was merchandise exports.
Among the following export categories, which recorded the highest year-on-year growth in April 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Electronic goods
Electronic goods exports grew 39.51%, against 11.28% for engineering goods, 10.74% for gems and jewellery and 2.37% for drugs and pharmaceuticals.
Consider the following statements about India's trade in April 2025: 1. Merchandise exports were US$ 38.49 billion, up 9.02% year-on-year. 2. Total imports (merchandise and services) were estimated at US$ 82.45 billion. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Commerce Ministry's release of 15 May 2025.
Justice Bhushan Ramkrishna Gavai, sworn in on 14 May 2025, is which Chief Justice of India?
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Correct answer: C — 52nd
Justice B.R. Gavai is the 52nd Chief Justice of India; he succeeded Justice Sanjiv Khanna.
Consider the following statements about Chief Justice B.R. Gavai: 1. He succeeded Justice Sanjiv Khanna as Chief Justice of India. 2. He is the second Chief Justice of India from the Scheduled Caste community, after Justice K.G. Balakrishnan. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.
Where was Justice B.R. Gavai sworn in as Chief Justice of India on 14 May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Ganatantra Mandap, Rashtrapati Bhavan
The ceremony was held in the Ganatantra Mandap, Rashtrapati Bhavan, where he took the oath before the President.
Annual WPI-based inflation for April 2025 (provisional) was:
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Correct answer: A — 0.85%
WPI inflation was 0.85% in April 2025. 2.05% was March 2025, 2.45% was February 2025, and -0.19% was the month-on-month change.
Consider the following statements about WPI data for April 2025: 1. The WPI series uses 2011-12 as the base year. 2. Inflation in primary articles was negative. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. Primary articles inflation was -1.44% in April 2025.
All-India CPI-based headline inflation for April 2025 (provisional) was:
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Correct answer: C — 3.16%
Headline CPI inflation was 3.16%. 2.92% was rural inflation and 1.78% was food inflation.
Consider the following statements about CPI data for April 2025: 1. Headline CPI inflation was the lowest year-on-year rate since July 2019. 2. Food inflation (CFPI) was the lowest since October 2021. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per MoSPI's release of 13 May 2025.
The Consumer Price Index released by MoSPI for April 2025 uses which base year?
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Correct answer: D — 2012
The CPI numbers are on base 2012=100.
How many vulnerable individuals were screened under the 100-Day TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan, as reviewed by the PM on 13 May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 12.97 crore
12.97 crore vulnerable individuals were screened; 7.19 lakh TB cases were detected, including 2.85 lakh asymptomatic cases.
Consider the following statements about the 100-Day TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan: 1. About 1.297 crore people were screened during the campaign. 2. 7.19 lakh TB cases were detected, including 2.85 lakh asymptomatic cases. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only statement 2 is correct. 12.97 crore vulnerable individuals were screened.
India's Major Ports handled approximately how much cargo in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: B — 855 million tonnes
Major Ports handled about 855 million tonnes in FY 2024-25, up 4.3% from 819 million tonnes in FY 2023-24.
Which commodity group had the largest share of cargo handled at India's Major Ports in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: A — Petroleum, oil and lubricants (POL)
POL led with 254.5 million tonnes (29.8%), followed by containers (193.5 MT) and coal (186.6 MT).
Ayurveda Day will now be observed every year on:
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Correct answer: D — 23 September
Ayurveda Day has been fixed on 23 September every year.
Consider the following statements about the new date for Ayurveda Day: 1. It was notified through a Gazette Notification dated 23 March 2025. 2. Ayurveda Day was earlier observed on Diwali. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. Ayurveda Day was earlier observed on Dhanteras.
The new date chosen for Ayurveda Day, 23 September, coincides with which astronomical event?
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Correct answer: B — Autumnal equinox
23 September coincides with the autumnal equinox, when day and night are nearly equal.
In his address to the nation on 12 May 2025, the Prime Minister said Operation Sindoor was carried out on:
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Correct answer: B — 6–7 May
As per the PIB release, the PM said the pledge of Operation Sindoor was fulfilled on 6-7 May.
In the address of 12 May 2025, the Prime Minister said any talks with Pakistan would focus on:
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Correct answer: C — Terrorism and PoK
The PM said any discussions with Pakistan would focus on terrorism and Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (PoK).
Consider the following statements about the Prime Minister's address of 12 May 2025: 1. One of the three pillars he outlined was no tolerance for nuclear blackmail. 2. He said India had permanently ended its counter-operations against Pakistan. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The PM said India had decided to temporarily suspend its counter-operations and would assess Pakistan's every move.
In his address of 12 May 2025, the Prime Minister referred to the terrorist attack in Pahalgam that took place on:
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Correct answer: D — 22 April
The PM referred to the terrorist attack in Pahalgam on 22 April 2025.
How many Test matches did Virat Kohli play before announcing his retirement from Test cricket on 12 May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 123
Kohli played 123 Tests, scoring 9,230 runs. He captained India in 68 of them.
Consider the following statements about Virat Kohli's Test career: 1. He won 40 of the 68 Tests in which he captained India, the most wins by an Indian Test captain. 2. He scored 30 Test centuries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the ICC and ESPNcricinfo.
How many Test double hundreds did Virat Kohli score, the most by an Indian?
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Correct answer: D — Seven
Kohli made seven Test double hundreds, the most ever by an Indian.
Virat Kohli retired as the fourth-most successful Test captain by wins. Who holds the record for the most Test wins as captain?
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Correct answer: D — Graeme Smith
Graeme Smith leads with 53 wins, followed by Ricky Ponting (48), Steve Waugh (41) and Kohli (40).
What was the theme of International Nurses Day 2025, chosen by the International Council of Nurses?
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Correct answer: A — Our Nurses. Our Future. Caring for nurses strengthens economies
The IND 2025 theme was 'Our Nurses. Our Future. Caring for nurses strengthens economies'. 'The Economic Power of Care' was the 2024 theme.
According to the State of the World's Nursing 2025 report, the global stock of nurses in 2023 was:
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Correct answer: B — 29.8 million
The global stock was 29.8 million in 2023 (27.9 million in 2018). 36 million is the 2030 projection; 5.8 million is the 2023 shortage.
Consider the following statements about the State of the World's Nursing 2025 report: 1. The global nursing shortage was 5.8 million in 2023 and is projected to fall to 4.1 million by 2030. 2. About 49% of the world's nurses are in countries that have 78% of the world's population. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. It is the reverse: about 78% of nurses are in countries with only 49% of the world's population.
The MoU signed between C-DOT and Synergy Quantum India in May 2025 is for developing Quantum Key Distribution systems suited for deployment on:
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Correct answer: D — Drones
The MoU covers development of drone-based Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) systems.
Consider the following statements about the C-DOT–Synergy Quantum MoU (May 2025): 1. C-DOT is an R&D institution under the Ministry of Electronics and IT. 2. The QKD systems are to be developed at Technology Readiness Level 6 or above. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only statement 2 is correct. C-DOT is under the Department of Telecommunications (Ministry of Communications).
The theme of National Technology Day 2025, 'YANTRA', stands for:
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Correct answer: D — Yugantar for Advancing New Technology, Research & Acceleration
The TDB-DST theme was 'YANTRA – Yugantar for Advancing New Technology, Research & Acceleration'.
Consider the following statements about National Technology Day: 1. It commemorates the Pokhran nuclear tests of 1998. 2. The 2025 theme was unveiled by the Technology Development Board under the Department of Science and Technology. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.
National Technology Day, observed on 11 May, marks the Pokhran tests conducted in which year?
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Correct answer: C — 1998
It marks the Pokhran tests of 1998 and was first celebrated that year.
As per the Foreign Secretary's statement of 10 May 2025, from what time were both sides to stop all firing and military action?
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Correct answer: C — 1700 hours IST
Both sides were to stop all firing and military action from 1700 hours IST on 10 May 2025; the call itself was at 1535 hours.
Consider the following statements about the Foreign Secretary's statement of 10 May 2025: 1. The DGMO of Pakistan called the DGMO of India at 1535 hours IST. 2. The DGMOs were to talk again on 11 May at 1700 hours. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. The DGMOs were to talk again on 12 May at 1200 hours, so statement 2 is wrong.
The understanding announced on 10 May 2025 covered stopping firing and military action in which domains?
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Correct answer: D — Land, air and sea
The statement said both sides would stop all firing and military action on land and in the air and sea.
As per the release of 10 May 2025, how many airports were temporarily closed to civil flight operations under the NOTAMs?
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Correct answer: A — 32
32 airports across northern and western India were closed for civil flights from 9 to 14 May 2025; 25 was the number of ATS route segments.
Consider the following statements: 1. AAI extended the temporary closure of 25 ATS route segments within the Delhi and Mumbai Flight Information Regions. 2. The route segments were to remain unavailable until 2359 UTC on 14 May 2025, which corresponds to 0529 IST on 15 May 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Ministry of Civil Aviation release.
NOTAM G0555/25 on the closure of ATS route segments replaced which earlier NOTAM?
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Correct answer: D — G0525/25
As per NOTAM G0555/25 (which replaces G0525/25), the 25 route segments remained unavailable until 2359 UTC on 14 May 2025.
What was the theme of World Migratory Bird Day 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Shared Spaces: Creating Bird-Friendly Cities and Communities
The 2025 theme was 'Shared Spaces: Creating Bird-Friendly Cities and Communities'.
Consider the following statements: 1. World Migratory Bird Day is observed twice a year; in 2025 it fell on 10 May and 11 October. 2. The Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) entered into force in 1993. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. CMS entered into force in 1979 and has 133 Parties.
According to CMS, what share of all bird species globally is in decline?
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Correct answer: B — 49%
Globally 49% of bird species are in decline; 55% and 68% are the UN figures for the share of people in urban areas now and by 2050.
Whom did Madhura Dhamangaonkar beat in the women's compound final at the Archery World Cup Stage 2, Shanghai, on 10 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Carson Krahe
She beat USA's Carson Krahe 139–138 in the final; Hazal Burun was her semi-final opponent and Jyothi Surekha Vennam her quarter-final opponent.
What was the score in Madhura Dhamangaonkar's winning final?
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Correct answer: D — 139–138
She won the final 139–138; 143–141 was her semi-final score and 232–228 the men's team final score.
Consider the following statements about India at the Archery World Cup Stage 2, Shanghai: 1. The men's compound team of Abhishek Verma, Rishabh Yadav and Ojas Deotale beat Mexico 232–228 in the final. 2. Madhura Dhamangaonkar also won women's team silver and compound mixed team bronze with Abhishek Verma. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.
Which compound archery event is set to mark compound archery's Olympic debut at LA 2028?
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Correct answer: A — Mixed team
The compound mixed team event will feature at LA 2028, marking compound archery's Olympic debut.
As reported by India at UNFF20, what share of India's geographical area is under forest and tree cover?
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Correct answer: C — 25.17%
India reported forest and tree cover of 25.17% of its geographical area as per the latest India State of Forest Report.
Consider the following statements about India at UNFF20: 1. India invited all UN Member States to join the International Big Cat Alliance. 2. India recalled the Country-Led Initiative it hosted in Dehradun in October 2023. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct; the Dehradun initiative focused on forest fire management and forest certification.
On which date were PMJJBY, PMSBY and Atal Pension Yojana launched?
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Correct answer: A — 9 May 2015
The three Jan Suraksha schemes were launched by PM Narendra Modi on 9 May 2015.
Which Jan Suraksha scheme had over 51 crore cumulative enrolments as on 23 April 2025?
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Correct answer: C — PMSBY
PMSBY had over 51.06 crore enrolments; PMJJBY had over 23.63 crore and APY over 7.66 crore.
Consider the following statements (data as on 23 April 2025): 1. More than 7.66 crore individuals had subscribed to the Atal Pension Yojana. 2. ₹3,121.02 crore had been paid under PMJJBY. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. ₹3,121.02 crore was paid under PMSBY; PMJJBY payouts were ₹18,397.92 crore.
After the expansion notified in May 2025, what is the ceiling on guarantee cover per borrower under the Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups?
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Correct answer: C — ₹20 crore
The ceiling was raised from ₹10 crore to ₹20 crore.
Consider the following statements about the expanded CGSS: 1. Guarantee cover is 85% of the amount in default for loans up to ₹10 crore. 2. The Annual Guarantee Fee for startups in Champion Sectors was raised to 2% per annum. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The Annual Guarantee Fee for Champion Sectors was reduced from 2% to 1% per annum.
The reduced Annual Guarantee Fee under the expanded CGSS applies to startups in how many Champion Sectors?
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Correct answer: D — 27
The fee was cut to 1% for startups in 27 Champion Sectors identified under 'Make in India'.
To which rating did Morningstar DBRS upgrade India's long-term foreign and local currency issuer ratings in May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — BBB
The ratings were upgraded from BBB (low) to BBB with a Stable trend.
Consider the following statements about the Morningstar DBRS upgrade: 1. India's short-term ratings were upgraded to R-1 (low). 2. The agency cited average GDP growth of 6.5% during FY22–25. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: short-term ratings went to R-2 (high) from R-2 (middle), and average growth cited was 8.2%.
On which date was the India–New Zealand FTA launched by Piyush Goyal and Todd McClay?
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Correct answer: A — 16 March 2025
The FTA was launched on 16 March 2025; the first round was held from 5 to 9 May 2025.
Consider the following statements: 1. The first round of India–New Zealand FTA negotiations was held from 5 to 9 May 2025 in New Delhi. 2. India–New Zealand merchandise trade reached USD 1.3 billion in 2024–25, a growth of 48.6%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Commerce Ministry release.
Who is New Zealand's Minister for Trade and Investment who launched the FTA with Piyush Goyal?
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Correct answer: B — Todd McClay
Todd McClay is New Zealand's Minister for Trade and Investment; Christopher Luxon is New Zealand's Prime Minister.
How many priority corridors for zero-emission trucking were identified in the report released by the PSA on 9 May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 10
The report identified the top 10 corridors from an initial list of 230.
Consider the following statements about the zero-emission trucking report: 1. It notes that nearly 40% of fuel consumption and transport emissions in India originate from long-distance trucks. 2. It was prepared by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The report is by the Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser.
For what initial period did TRAI recommend that spectrum be assigned for NGSO-based FSS and GSO/NGSO-based MSS?
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Correct answer: B — Up to 5 years
TRAI recommended assignment for up to five years, which the Government may extend by up to two years.
Consider the following statements about TRAI's satellite spectrum recommendations of 9 May 2025: 1. Ku and Ka bands should be considered for user links of Mobile Satellite Services. 2. Satellite earth station gateways should be commissioned within 12 months of permission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. For MSS user links, TRAI recommended L and S bands; C, Ku, Ka and Q/V are for feeder links.
Pope Leo XIV, elected on 8 May 2025, is which Pope in history according to the Vatican?
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Correct answer: C — 267th
The Vatican described him as the 267th Pope (267th Bishop of Rome).
Consider the following statements about Pope Leo XIV: 1. He is the first Pope from the United States of America. 2. He was born in Lima, Peru. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. He was born in Chicago, Illinois, on 14 September 1955; he served as a missionary in Peru.
Who announced 'Habemus Papam' and the name of the new Pope from the central loggia of St Peter's Basilica on 8 May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Cardinal Dominique Mamberti
Cardinal Protodeacon Dominique Mamberti made the announcement.
How many cardinal electors gathered in the Conclave that elected Pope Leo XIV?
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Correct answer: D — 133
As per L'Osservatore Romano, 133 cardinal electors gathered in the Sistine Chapel.
Iranian Foreign Minister Abbas Araghchi's visit in May 2025 marked which anniversary of India–Iran diplomatic relations?
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Correct answer: C — 75th
The President noted the visit came on the 75th anniversary of diplomatic relations.
Consider the following statements about the meeting of 8 May 2025: 1. President Murmu welcomed ongoing cooperation in realising the full potential of Chabahar Port. 2. Abbas Araghchi is Iran's Defence Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Abbas Araghchi is Iran's Minister of Foreign Affairs.
What was the theme of World Thalassemia Day 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Together for Thalassemia: Uniting Communities, Prioritizing Patients
The 2025 theme was 'Together for Thalassemia: Uniting Communities, Prioritizing Patients'.
Consider the following statements about the Thalassemia Bal Sewa Yojana (TBSY): 1. It is a CSR initiative of Coal India Limited supporting free bone marrow transplants for children with thalassemia and aplastic anaemia. 2. The Coal Minister announced a 'One State, One Hospital' goal for bone marrow transplants under it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.
Thalassemia, as described by the DEPwD, is what type of genetic disorder?
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Correct answer: B — Autosomal recessive
Thalassemia is a genetic autosomal recessive disorder inherited from one or both parents.
The warship 'Arnala', delivered to the Indian Navy on 8 May 2025, is named after a historic fort located off:
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Correct answer: A — Vasai, Maharashtra
Arnala is named after the historic Arnala fort located off Vasai, Maharashtra.
Consider the following statements about 'Arnala': 1. It is the first of eight Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft built by GRSE. 2. It is the largest Indian naval warship propelled by a diesel engine–waterjet combination. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.
What is the length of the warship 'Arnala'?
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Correct answer: B — 77 m
Arnala is a 77 m long warship.
When was the India–Chile Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA) signed?
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Correct answer: B — March 2006
The PTA was signed in March 2006; the Framework Agreement in January 2005; the expanded PTA was signed in September 2016 and took effect on 16 May 2017.
Consider the following statements about the India–Chile CEPA: 1. The first round of negotiations was scheduled to be held in Santiago. 2. The expanded India–Chile PTA became effective in January 2005. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: the first round was scheduled for 26–30 May 2025 in New Delhi, and the expanded PTA took effect on 16 May 2017.
As per the SRS Special Bulletin on Maternal Mortality 2019-21, released with the SRS 2021 report on 7 May 2025, India's Maternal Mortality Ratio is:
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Correct answer: B — 93
MMR fell from 130 per lakh live births in 2014-16 to 93 in 2019-21. 70 is the SDG target and 45 is Telangana's MMR.
According to the SRS Statistical Report 2021, India's Infant Mortality Rate in 2021 was (per 1,000 live births):
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Correct answer: D — 27
IMR was 27 in 2021, down from 39 in 2014. 19 is the Neonatal Mortality Rate and 31 the Under-Five Mortality Rate for 2021.
Consider the following statements based on the SRS 2021 data released on 7 May 2025: 1. Among the States that have met the SDG target for MMR, Kerala has the lowest MMR. 2. India's Total Fertility Rate was 2.0 in 2021. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. Kerala's MMR is 20, and the TFR was 2.0 in 2021.