MPPSC Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
The Air Defence Fire Control Radars contracted from BEL on 25 July 2025 were procured under which category?
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Correct answer: C — Buy (Indian-IDDM)
PIB (25 July 2025): procurement under the Buy (Indian-Indigenously Designed Developed and Manufactured) category.
What is the minimum indigenous content of the Air Defence Fire Control Radars ordered from BEL in July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 70%
PIB: with minimum 70% indigenous content, the radars will detect all forms of air-borne threats.
Which body administers the Atal Pension Yojana, whose gross enrolments crossed 8 crore in July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — PFRDA
PIB (25 July 2025): APY, a flagship social security scheme administered by PFRDA, surpassed 8 crore gross enrolments.
What is the eligible entry age for the Atal Pension Yojana?
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Correct answer: B — 18-40 years
PIB: APY is open to all Indian citizens between 18-40 years, except those who are or have been income tax payers.
The India-Maldives commemorative stamps released on 25 July 2025 depict the Indian 'Uru' boat, handcrafted in the boatyards of:
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Correct answer: C — Beypore, Kerala
PIB (25 July 2025): the stamps depict the Indian boat Uru, a large wooden dhow handcrafted in the historic boatyards of Beypore, Kerala, and the Maldivian Vadhu Dhoni.
Which building in Male, constructed with India's financial assistance, was jointly inaugurated by PM Modi and President Muizzu on 25 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Defence building
PIB (25 July 2025): the leaders jointly inaugurated the eleven-storey Ministry of Defence building of Maldives in Male, built with India's financial assistance.
Under what name did the Employment Linked Incentive (ELI) Scheme come into effect from 1 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — PM Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana
PIB (25 July 2025): the ELI Scheme will come into effect from 1 August 2025 as the 'PM Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana (PM-VBRY)'.
What is the outlay of the PM Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana?
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Correct answer: C — ₹99,446 crore
PIB: with an outlay of ₹99,446 crore, PM-VBRY aims to incentivise the creation of more than 3.5 crore jobs over 2 years.
Consider the following statements about PM-VBRY: 1. Part A offers first-time EPFO-registered employees one month's EPF wage up to ₹15,000 in two instalments. 2. Part B gives employers up to ₹3,000 per month for two years for each additional employee with sustained employment of at least six months. 3. Benefits apply to jobs created between 1 August 2025 and 31 July 2027. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (25 July 2025): Part A gives one month EPF wage up to ₹15,000 in two instalments; Part B gives employers up to ₹3,000/month for two years per additional employee sustained for six months; benefits apply to jobs created between 1 Aug 2025 and 31 Jul 2027. All correct.
The WHO External Expert Group Meeting held on 24-25 July 2025 with the Ministry of Ayush focused on draft WHO Technical Reports on training and practice in which system?
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Correct answer: D — Siddha
PIB (25 July 2025): the meeting focused on finalising the Draft WHO Technical Reports on Training and Practice in Siddha, with CCRS.
Who signed the India-UK Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement on behalf of India on 24 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Piyush Goyal
PIB (24 July 2025): the agreement was signed by Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal and UK Secretary of State for Business and Trade Jonathan Reynolds, in the presence of the two Prime Ministers.
Under the India-UK CETA, zero-duty access is available on what share of tariff lines?
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Correct answer: A — 99%
PIB: zero-duty access on 99% of tariff lines, covering nearly 100% of the trade value.
The signing of the India-UK CETA on 24 July 2025 followed the conclusion of negotiations announced on:
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Correct answer: D — 6 May 2025
PIB (24 July 2025): the signing of the India-UK CETA follows the successful conclusion of negotiations announced on 6 May 2025.
Consider the following statements about the India-UK CETA (July 2025): 1. India-UK bilateral trade stands at nearly USD 56 billion, with a goal to double it by 2030. 2. The Double Contribution Convention will exempt Indian workers and their employers from UK social security contributions for three years. 3. The agreement was signed by the two Prime Ministers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB: trade is nearly USD 56 billion with a goal to double by 2030, and the DCC will exempt Indian workers and employers from UK social security contributions for three years. The agreement was signed by Piyush Goyal and Jonathan Reynolds in the presence of the two PMs, so 3 is wrong.
Which UK minister signed the India-UK CETA on 24 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Jonathan Reynolds, Secretary of State for Business and Trade
PIB: the agreement was signed by Jonathan Reynolds, Secretary of State for Business and Trade; Rachel Reeves was present.
Where did PM Modi and UK PM Keir Starmer hold talks on 24 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Chequers, Buckinghamshire
PIB (24 July 2025): PM Modi was received by PM Starmer at the UK Prime Minister's country residence at Chequers in Buckinghamshire.
Which document, steering the India-UK Comprehensive Strategic Partnership for the next ten years, was adopted on 24 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — India-UK Vision 2035
PIB: the two leaders adopted the India-UK Vision 2035, which will steer the relationship for the next ten years.
Where did PM Modi call on King Charles III on 24 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Sandringham Estate
PIB (24 July 2025): PM Modi called on King Charles III at Sandringham Estate, the summer residence of His Majesty.
Consider the following statements about the Modi-Starmer talks of 24 July 2025: 1. The leaders welcomed the finalisation of a Defence Industrial Roadmap. 2. The two sides agreed to negotiate a Double Contribution Convention that will come into effect along with CETA. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
PIB (24 July 2025): the leaders welcomed the finalisation of a Defence Industrial Roadmap, and the two sides agreed to negotiate a Double Contribution Convention which will come into effect along with CETA. Both correct.
A Centre of Excellence on PESA is being set up under an MoU signed on 24 July 2025 at which university?
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Correct answer: A — Indira Gandhi National Tribal University, Amarkantak
PIB (24 July 2025): MoPR, the Government of Madhya Pradesh and IGNTU, Amarkantak, signed an MoU in Bhopal to establish a Centre of Excellence on PESA at IGNTU.
PESA, for which a Centre of Excellence was announced in July 2025, refers to which Act?
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Correct answer: D — Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996
PIB (24 July 2025): PESA is the Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996.
As of July 2025, India's bid to host the 2036 Olympics is in which phase with the IOC's Future Host Commission?
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Correct answer: C — Continuous Dialogue
PIB (24 July 2025): IOA has submitted a letter of intent to IOC; the bid is now in the 'Continuous Dialogue' phase with the Future Host Commission of IOC.
Which body submitted India's letter of intent to the IOC to host the 2036 Olympic Games?
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Correct answer: B — Indian Olympic Association
PIB: bidding to host the Olympic Games is the responsibility of the Indian Olympic Association (IOA), which has submitted a letter of intent to IOC.
Which Indian Navy ships arrived at Da Nang, Vietnam, on 24 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — INS Delhi, Shakti and Kiltan
PIB: INS Delhi, Shakti and Kiltan of the Eastern Fleet arrived at Tien Sa Port, Da Nang, Vietnam on 24 July 2025.
The Indian Navy ships that visited Da Nang in July 2025 belong to which fleet?
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Correct answer: C — Eastern Fleet
PIB: the ships of the Eastern Fleet were under RAdm Susheel Menon, Flag Officer Commanding Eastern Fleet.
Under the DoP-NIPL initiative announced on 24 July 2025, UPI is to be integrated with which platform for inward remittances?
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Correct answer: D — Universal Postal Union (UPU) Interconnection Platform
PIB (24 July 2025): the partnership will leverage UPI and the Universal Postal Union (UPU) Interconnection Platform to create a remittance channel for the Indian diaspora.
Which organisation prepared the report 'Yoga and Prevention of Type 2 Diabetes' presented to the Health Minister in July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Research Society for the Study of Diabetes in India
PIB (24 July 2025): the report was prepared by the Research Society for the Study of Diabetes in India (RSSDI), led by its past President Dr. S.V. Madhu.
At the meeting on 24 July 2025, Jal Shakti Minister C.R. Patil called for evaluating the impact of the Environmental Flow Notification of which year for the Ganga?
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Correct answer: A — 2018
PIB (24 July 2025): C.R. Patil highlighted the need to evaluate the impact of the 2018 Environmental Flow Notification.
Who presented India's third Voluntary National Review at the UN High-Level Political Forum on 23 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Suman Bery
PIB: NITI Aayog Vice Chairman Suman Bery presented India's Third VNR on 23 July 2025 at the HLPF.
The High-Level Political Forum on SDGs, where India presented its VNR in July 2025, is convened by which UN body?
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Correct answer: C — Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC)
PIB: the VNR was presented at the Ministerial Segment of the HLPF on SDGs convened by the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) of the United Nations.
According to India's VNR 2025, around how many people are estimated to have escaped multidimensional poverty?
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Correct answer: B — 248 million
PIB: around 248 million individuals are estimated to have escaped Multidimensional Poverty.
Consider the following statements about India's VNR 2025: 1. It is India's third submission to the HLPF. 2. Its preparation was steered by NITI Aayog. 3. It describes India as the second-largest start-up ecosystem in the world. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB: the VNR marks India's third submission to the HLPF and was steered by NITI Aayog; it describes India as the third-largest (not second-largest) start-up ecosystem. So 3 is wrong.
India's Digital Public Infrastructure highlighted in the VNR 2025 is grounded in the 'JAM' trinity. What does JAM stand for?
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Correct answer: C — Jan Dhan-Aadhaar-Mobile
PIB: the report highlights India's leadership in Digital Public Infrastructure grounded in the Jan Dhan-Aadhaar-Mobile (JAM) trinity.
How many Anganwadi-cum-Crèches had the Ministry of Women and Child Development approved under the Palna Scheme, as stated on 23 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 14,599
PIB (23 July 2025): the Ministry approved 14,599 Anganwadi-cum-Crèches under the Palna Scheme.
The Palna Scheme is implemented under which vertical of Mission Shakti?
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Correct answer: D — Samarthya
PIB: the Palna Scheme was introduced under the Samarthya vertical of Umbrella Mission Shakti for all States and UTs w.e.f. 1 April 2022.
Who assumed charge as Chairperson of the National Financial Reporting Authority on 23 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Nitin Gupta
PIB (24 July 2025): Nitin Gupta, IRS (IT:86) (Retd.), assumed charge as Chairperson, NFRA on 23 July 2025.
Before heading NFRA, Nitin Gupta served as Chairman of which body from June 2022 to June 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Central Board of Direct Taxes
PIB: Nitin Gupta earlier served as Chairman, Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) from June 2022 to June 2024.
NFRA, whose new Chairperson and Full-Time Members took oath on 23 July 2025, functions under which Ministry?
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Correct answer: B — Ministry of Corporate Affairs
PIB (Ministry of Corporate Affairs, 24 July 2025): the Secretary, Ministry of Corporate Affairs administered the oaths to the NFRA Chairperson and Full-Time Members at a ceremony held in the Ministry on 23.07.2025.
Which two countries did PM Modi visit during 23-26 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — United Kingdom and Maldives
PIB (23 July 2025): 'I am embarking on a visit to the UK and the Maldives from 23 to 26 July.'
On 23 July 2025, PM Modi paid tributes to which two freedom fighters on their birth anniversaries?
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Correct answer: D — Lokmanya Tilak and Chandra Shekhar Azad
PIB (23 July 2025): the PM paid tributes to Lokmanya Tilak and to Chandra Shekhar Azad on their birth anniversaries.
Which category of intellectual property recorded the highest growth in filings between 2020-21 and 2024-25, as per the Commerce Ministry (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: D — Geographical Indications
PIB (22 July 2025): GI saw the highest growth at 380%, followed by Designs (266%) and Patents (180%).
By what percentage did total IP filings by Indian citizens rise from 2020-21 to 2024-25?
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Correct answer: C — 44%
PIB: IP filings increased by 44%, from 4,77,533 in 2020-21 to 6,89,991 in 2024-25.
Aadi Karmayogi, whose second Regional Process Lab began in Bhopal on 22 July 2025, is a mission of which Ministry?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Tribal Affairs
PIB (22 July 2025): the Ministry of Tribal Affairs launched the 2nd RPL of Aadi Karmayogi - National Mission for Responsive Governance in Bhopal.
The Aadi Karmayogi mission aims to build a cadre of how many grassroots functionaries and change leaders?
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Correct answer: B — 2 million
PIB: the initiative aims to build a dynamic cadre of 2 million grassroots functionaries and village-level change leaders.
Preparations for Census 2027 began with a gazette notification expressing the Government's intent to conduct the Population Census. That notification is dated:
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Correct answer: D — 16 June 2025
PIB (MHA, 22 July 2025): the preparation for Census 2027 started with the publication of the gazette notification dated 16.06.2025.
Which portal will be used for management and monitoring of Census 2027 activities, as discussed at the July 2025 conference?
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Correct answer: C — CMMS (Census Management and Monitoring System)
PIB: the conference discussed management and monitoring of census activities through the Census Management and Monitoring System (CMMS) portal.
What was the gross NPA ratio of public sector banks as of 31 March 2025, as per the Finance Ministry (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: B — 2.58%
PIB (22 July 2025): gross NPAs of PSBs reduced from 9.11% (March 2021) to 2.58% (March 2025); 3.47% was March 2024.
As part of NPA recovery measures, the pecuniary jurisdiction of Debt Recovery Tribunals was raised from ₹10 lakh to:
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Correct answer: A — ₹20 lakh
PIB: the pecuniary jurisdiction of DRTs was increased from ₹10 lakh to ₹20 lakh to let them focus on high-value cases.
Where was the National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission launched by the Prime Minister on 1 July 2023?
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Correct answer: C — Shahdol, Madhya Pradesh
PIB (22 July 2025): the mission was inaugurated on 1 July 2023 by the Prime Minister at Shahdol, Madhya Pradesh.
As of July 2025, how many people had been screened under the National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission?
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Correct answer: A — 6 crore
PIB: 6 crore individuals have been screened against the target of 7 crore; 2.6 crore is the number of health cards distributed.
Consider the following statements about the National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission: 1. It aims to eliminate sickle cell anaemia in India by 2047. 2. It targets universal screening of 7 crore people aged 0-40 years in affected tribal areas by FY 2025-26. 3. Screening uses validated Point-of-Care Testing kits. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (22 July 2025): the mission aims at elimination by 2047 and universal screening of 7 crore people aged 0-40 in affected tribal areas by FY 2025-26, using validated POCT kits. All correct.
Bose Institute researchers identified the AcSERK3 gene in pineapple (reported July 2025) as a defence against which disease?
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Correct answer: B — Fusariosis
PIB (22 July 2025): the AcSERK3 gene can activate host defences against Fusariosis, caused by Fusarium moniliforme.
Bharat NCX 2025, the National Cybersecurity Exercise that began on 21 July 2025, is conducted by the National Security Council Secretariat in collaboration with which institution?
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Correct answer: C — Rashtriya Raksha University
PIB (NSCS): the exercise is conducted by the NSCS in collaboration with Rashtriya Raksha University (RRU).
What is the theme of the National Cybersecurity Exercise Bharat NCX 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Enhancing the Operational Preparedness of Indian Cyberspace
PIB (NSCS): Bharat NCX 2025 introduces the focused theme 'Enhancing the Operational Preparedness of Indian Cyberspace'.
According to EPFO's provisional payroll data, what was the net addition of members in May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 20.06 lakh
PIB (Labour): EPFO recorded a net addition of 20.06 lakh members in May 2025, the highest since April 2018; 9.42 lakh was the number of new subscribers.
Which state led net payroll additions in EPFO's May 2025 data, with 20.33 percent of the total?
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Correct answer: D — Maharashtra
PIB: Maharashtra led by adding 20.33% of net payroll during the month.
By how much did the Index of Eight Core Industries grow in June 2025 over June 2024 (provisional)?
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Correct answer: B — 1.7 percent
PIB (Commerce and Industry): the combined ICI increased by 1.7 percent (provisional) in June 2025; 1.2 percent was the final figure for May 2025.
The eight core industries together carry what share of the weight of items in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP)?
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Correct answer: C — 40.27 percent
PIB: the Eight Core Industries comprise 40.27 percent of the weight of items included in the IIP.
After Phase-IV amalgamation under 'One State-One RRB', how many Regional Rural Banks remain with effect from 1 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 28
PIB (Finance): Phase-IV amalgamation reduced RRBs from 43 to 28 w.e.f. 1 May 2025, in 26 states and 2 UTs.
Consider the following statements about the consolidation of Regional Rural Banks: 1. Phase-I amalgamation (2005-2010) reduced the number of RRBs from 196 to 82. 2. Phase-IV amalgamation reduced the number of RRBs from 56 to 43. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB: Phase-I cut RRBs from 196 to 82, so 1 is correct. The 56-to-43 reduction was Phase-III (by end-March 2021); Phase-IV cut them from 43 to 28, so 2 is wrong.
In July 2025, a replica of the Ashoka Pillar was unveiled at Waskaduwa Sri Subhuthi Viharaya, located in which district of Sri Lanka?
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Correct answer: D — Kalutara
PIB (Culture): the temple is in Waskaduwa, Kalutara district, about 42 km south of Colombo; the replica was unveiled on 21 July 2025.
What rank did India secure among 110 countries at the 66th International Mathematical Olympiad (IMO) 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 7th
7th, matching its best-ever rank of 1998 and 2001; India was 4th in 2024.
Consider the following statements about India's performance at the International Mathematical Olympiad 2025: 1. It was only the second time that India won three gold medals at the IMO, the first being in 1998. 2. India's team score of 193 out of 252 was the highest ever achieved by an Indian IMO team. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. India also won two silver and one bronze.
Which institution is the nodal agency that selects and trains Indian students for the International Mathematical Olympiad and other international Olympiads?
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Correct answer: D — Homi Bhabha Centre for Science Education (HBCSE)
Homi Bhabha Centre for Science Education (HBCSE), Mumbai, a national centre of the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research.
Where was the 66th International Mathematical Olympiad (IMO) 2025 held?
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Correct answer: A — Sunshine Coast, Australia
Sunshine Coast, Australia; 630 students took part, including 69 female contestants.