MPESB (Vyapam) Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Where was the third round of India-Chile CEPA negotiations held from 27 to 30 October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Santiago
The third round of India-Chile CEPA negotiations was held in Santiago, Chile.
Which round of India-Chile Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement negotiations took place in October 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Third
PIB reported that the 3rd round of India-Chile CEPA negotiations was held in Santiago from 27 to 30 October 2025.
Consider the following statements about the third round of India-Chile CEPA talks: 1. It was held from 27 to 30 October 2025. 2. Critical minerals were among the chapters discussed. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The round ran from 27 to 30 October 2025 and covered chapters including critical minerals.
According to Chile's SUBREI, the India-Chile Partial Scope Agreement, which entered into force in 2007, was expanded in which year?
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Correct answer: B — 2017
SUBREI notes that the Partial Scope Agreement entered into force in 2007 and was later expanded in 2017.
The Model Youth Gram Sabha initiative launched on 30 October 2025 is led by which ministry?
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Correct answer: C — Ministry of Panchayati Raj
The Ministry of Panchayati Raj launched it in collaboration with the Ministry of Education and the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
The Model Youth Gram Sabha will be implemented in how many schools initially?
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Correct answer: A — Over 1,000
It will be implemented across over 1,000 schools, including JNVs, EMRSs and state government schools.
What was India's total installed electricity capacity as of 30 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 500.89 GW
The country's total installed capacity crossed 500 GW to reach 500.89 GW as of 30 September 2025.
With non-fossil sources crossing 51% of installed capacity, which COP26 Panchamrit goal has India achieved five years early?
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Correct answer: D — 50% of installed electric capacity from non-fossil sources by 2030
The Ministry said India has achieved the Panchamrit goal of 50% installed electric power capacity from non-fossil sources by 2030, five years early.
On which date did renewables meet 51.5% of India's total electricity demand, the first day more than half of India's power came from green sources?
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Correct answer: B — 29 July 2025
On 29 July 2025, renewables met 51.5% of the country's total electricity demand of 203 GW.
Which provision was introduced for the first time in the 14th round of commercial coal mine auctions launched on 29 October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Underground Coal Gasification (UCG)
For the first time, provisions for Underground Coal Gasification were introduced; 21 of the 41 mines have UCG potential.
How many coal mines were offered in the 14th round of commercial coal mine auctions?
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Correct answer: C — 41
A total of 41 coal mines were offered, of which 21 have UCG potential.
Before the 14th round, how many coal mines had the Ministry of Coal auctioned across 12 rounds of commercial auctions?
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Correct answer: D — 133
The ministry has auctioned 133 coal mines across 12 rounds, with a peak rated capacity of about 276 MTPA.
Under the POWERGRID-NEA agreement of 29 October 2025, Inaruwa in Nepal will be linked by a 400 kV line to which Indian location?
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Correct answer: A — New Purnea
One of the two systems is the Inaruwa (Nepal)-New Purnea (India) 400 kV cross-border transmission link.
Which pair forms the second 400 kV India-Nepal cross-border transmission system agreed on 29 October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Lamki (Dododhara)-Bareilly
The second system is the Lamki (Dododhara) (Nepal)-Bareilly (India) 400 kV cross-border transmission system.
Sanae Takaichi, whom PM Modi congratulated on 29 October 2025, made history in Japan as the country's first:
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Correct answer: A — Woman Prime Minister
Takaichi was elected by Japan's parliament on 21 October 2025 as the first woman to hold the office of Prime Minister.
According to Japan's Prime Minister's Office, Sanae Takaichi is Japan's Prime Minister number:
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Correct answer: D — 104
Kantei states that Takaichi became the 104th Prime Minister since Ito Hirobumi, Japan's first Prime Minister.
Whom did Sanae Takaichi succeed as Prime Minister of Japan in October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Shigeru Ishiba
AP reported that Takaichi succeeded Shigeru Ishiba.
Who heads the 8th Central Pay Commission, whose Terms of Reference were approved by the Union Cabinet on 28 October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Justice Ranjana Prakash Desai
Indian Express and BusinessLine report that the Commission is headed by former Supreme Court judge Justice Ranjana Prakash Desai.
Within what period of its constitution must the 8th Central Pay Commission make its recommendations?
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Correct answer: D — 18 months
PIB: the Commission will make its recommendations within 18 months of the date of its constitution.
Consider the following statements about the 8th Central Pay Commission: 1. It is a temporary body comprising a Chairperson, one part-time Member and a Member-Secretary. 2. Going by the usual ten-year trend, its recommendations would normally take effect from 1 January 2027. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB says the effect of the 8th CPC recommendations would normally be expected from 01.01.2026, not 2027.
What was the year-on-year growth of India's Index of Industrial Production (IIP) in September 2025 as per the quick estimate?
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Correct answer: A — 4.0%
MoSPI: IIP recorded 4.0% year-on-year growth in September 2025.
What was the growth rate of the manufacturing sector in the IIP for September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 4.8%
Manufacturing grew 4.8% in September 2025; electricity grew 3.1%.
Which of the three IIP sectors recorded negative growth in September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Mining
Mining contracted by 0.4% in September 2025, while manufacturing (4.8%) and electricity (3.1%) grew.
According to NITI Aayog's report released on 28 October 2025, the services sector contributed nearly what share of India's national GVA in 2024-25?
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Correct answer: D — 55%
The report states that services contributed nearly 55 per cent of national GVA in 2024-25.
NITI Aayog's twin reports on the services sector, released on 28 October 2025, were the inaugural reports under which series?
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Correct answer: B — Services Thematic Series
PIB: CEO B.V.R. Subrahmanyam launched two inaugural reports under the Services Thematic Series.
What is the tentative budgetary requirement approved for Nutrient Based Subsidy on P&K fertilisers for Rabi 2025-26?
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Correct answer: C — About ₹37,952 crore
PIB: the tentative budgetary requirement for Rabi 2025-26 is approximately ₹37,952.29 crore, about ₹736 crore more than Kharif 2025.
Since when has subsidy on Phosphatic and Potassic (P&K) fertilisers been governed by the Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) scheme?
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Correct answer: A — 1 April 2010
PIB: the subsidy on P&K fertilisers is governed by the NBS Scheme with effect from 01.04.2010.
Who has been conferred the Vigyan Ratna, posthumously, under the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Prof. Jayant Vishnu Narlikar
PIB: Vigyan Ratna — Prof. Jayant Vishnu Narlikar (Physics), posthumously.
Which team received the Vigyan Team award under the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Aroma Mission, CSIR
PIB: Vigyan Team — Team Aroma Mission, CSIR (Agricultural Science).
The Vigyan Yuva-Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar (VY-SSB) award under the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar is meant for young scientists up to what age?
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Correct answer: D — 45 years
PIB: the VY-SSB award recognises young scientists up to the age of 45 years.
Across how many domains are the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar awards conferred?
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Correct answer: B — 13
PIB: awards are conferred across 13 domains, from Physics and Chemistry to Atomic Energy and Space Science and Technology.
The 22nd ASEAN-India Summit on 26 October 2025 was Prime Minister Narendra Modi's which participation in the India-ASEAN Summit?
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Correct answer: C — 12th
PIB: this was the Prime Minister's 12th participation in the India-ASEAN Summit.
Which country attended its first ASEAN-India Summit in October 2025 as the 11th member of ASEAN?
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Correct answer: A — Timor-Leste
PIB: the PM congratulated Timor-Leste on becoming the 11th Member of ASEAN and welcomed its delegation at its first ASEAN-India Summit as a full member.
At the 22nd ASEAN-India Summit, India designated the year 2026 as:
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Correct answer: D — ASEAN-India Year of Maritime Cooperation
PIB: India designated 2026 as the 'ASEAN-India Year of Maritime Cooperation' to forge partnerships in the blue economy. (The ASEAN-India Year of Tourism was being celebrated at the time.)
At the 22nd ASEAN-India Summit, India proposed establishing a Centre for Southeast Asian Studies at which institution?
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Correct answer: B — Nalanda University
PIB: the PM announced the proposed establishment of a Centre for Southeast Asian Studies at Nalanda University.
Consider the following statements about the 22nd ASEAN-India Summit: 1. Prime Minister Narendra Modi attended the Summit in person in Kuala Lumpur. 2. The theme of Malaysia's ASEAN chairmanship was 'Inclusivity and Sustainability'. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The PM participated virtually; he thanked PM Anwar Ibrahim for hosting the Summit virtually. The chair's theme was 'Inclusivity and Sustainability'.
INS Sutlej's joint hydrographic survey with the Mauritius Hydrographic Service (October 2025) covered approximately what area?
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Correct answer: C — 35,000 square nautical miles
PIB: the survey covered an extensive area of approximately 35,000 square nautical miles.
INS Sutlej's October 2025 deployment marked which joint hydrographic mission between India and Mauritius?
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Correct answer: D — 18th
PIB: this deployment marks the 18th joint hydrographic mission between India and Mauritius.
In the 127th episode of Mann Ki Baat, the PM mentioned 'Garbage Cafes' where people get a meal in exchange for plastic waste. In which city are they run?
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Correct answer: C — Ambikapur
The PM said Garbage Cafes are being run in Ambikapur, Chhattisgarh: 1 kg of plastic gets lunch or dinner, half a kg gets breakfast.
According to Mann Ki Baat (26 October 2025), mangroves have spread over about 3,500 hectares on the Dholera coast in five years. Dholera is in which state?
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Correct answer: D — Gujarat
The PM said Gujarat's Forest Department planted mangroves near Dholera near Ahmedabad; a Mangrove Learning Centre has also been set up at Kori Creek, Kutch.
As stated in Mann Ki Baat (October 2025), from which date does India enter the 150th year of the national song 'Vande Mataram'?
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Correct answer: B — 7 November 2025
The PM said that on 7 November India will enter the 150th year of 'Vande Mataram'; Tagore first sang it in 1896.
Koraput coffee, praised by the PM in the 127th Mann Ki Baat, is grown in which state?
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Correct answer: A — Odisha
The PM said people from Odisha had written to him about Koraput coffee and praised its taste.
Who chaired the National Crisis Management Committee (NCMC) meeting on 25 October 2025 that reviewed preparedness for the impending cyclone in the Bay of Bengal?
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Correct answer: B — Cabinet Secretary Dr. T. V. Somanathan
PIB: Cabinet Secretary Dr. T. V. Somanathan chaired the NCMC meeting; the Union Home Secretary and NDMA officials attended.
Consider the following statements about the NCMC review of 25 October 2025: 1. Fishermen were advised not to venture into the sea off Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Yanam and Odisha from 26 to 29 October. 2. The Indian Coast Guard had shepherded over 900 ships to jetties and shores. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the PIB release on the NCMC meeting.
The NCMC on 25 October 2025 reviewed cyclone preparedness of several state/UT governments. Which one of the following was NOT among them?
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Correct answer: C — West Bengal
PIB: the Cabinet Secretary reviewed the preparedness of Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, Tamil Nadu and Puducherry. West Bengal was not part of the review.
The Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) launched the Maha MedTech Mission in collaboration with:
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Correct answer: A — ICMR and the Gates Foundation
PIB: ANRF, in collaboration with the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) and the Gates Foundation, launched the Maha MedTech Mission.
Under the Maha MedTech Mission, the maximum funding for a project in exceptional cases is:
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Correct answer: C — ₹50 crore
PIB: milestone-linked funding is ₹5–25 crore per project, and up to ₹50 crore in exceptional cases.
In the 'Maha MedTech Mission', what does 'MAHA' stand for?
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Correct answer: D — Mission for Advancement in High-Impact Areas
PIB: the full name is the Mission for Advancement in High-Impact Areas (MAHA) – Medical Technology.
According to the PIB backgrounder of October 2025, by when does the Union Government aim to make all affected districts Naxal-free?
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Correct answer: B — March 2026
PIB backgrounder: the unified plan aims to make all affected districts Naxal-free by March 2026.
Consider the following statements based on the PIB backgrounder on Naxalism (October 2025): 1. The number of Naxal-affected districts fell from 126 in 2014 to 18 in 2024. 2. Twelve districts are now categorised as most-affected. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: affected districts fell from 126 in 2014 to 18 in 2024, with only 6 (not 12) now categorised as most-affected.
The Bastariya Battalion, cited in the PIB backgrounder on Naxalism as a symbol of local participation, was formed in which year?
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Correct answer: C — 2018
PIB backgrounder: the Bastariya Battalion, formed in 2018, comprises 1,143 recruits, including 400 youth from Bijapur, Sukma and Dantewada districts.
Which two institutes were recognised as Centres of Excellence under the National Critical Mineral Mission in October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — IISc Bangalore and C-MET Hyderabad
PIB: the Ministry of Mines recognised IISc Bangalore and the Centre for Materials for Electronics Technology (C-MET), Hyderabad, besides 7 institutes recognised earlier.
After the October 2025 recognition, how many Centres of Excellence are there under the National Critical Mineral Mission, and on what model do they operate?
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Correct answer: D — 9; hub-and-spoke consortium
PIB: with 2 new CoEs added to the 7 recognised earlier, there are 9. Each operates as a consortium on a Hub & Spoke model, with at least two industry and two R&D/academic partners; together they have about 90 spokes.
Under the LC75 option extended to Central Government employees in October 2025, the maximum equity allocation is:
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Correct answer: C — 75%
PIB: LC75 allows a maximum equity allocation of 75%, tapering gradually from age 35 to 55 (to 15% by age 55).
Under the Balanced Life Cycle (BLC) option for NPS/UPS subscribers, the equity allocation starts tapering from which age?
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Correct answer: D — 45 years
PIB: BLC is a modified version of LC50, with equity allocation tapering from age 45, letting employees stay in equities longer; equity is 35% by age 55.
Consider the following statements about investment options for Central Government employees (October 2025): 1. LC75 and BLC options have been extended under both NPS and the Unified Pension Scheme. 2. Scheme G invests 100% in Government securities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: LC75 and BLC were extended under both NPS and UPS; Scheme G means 100% investment in Government securities.
Where and when was the Bharat International Rice Conference (BIRC) 2025 scheduled to be held?
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Correct answer: A — Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi, 30–31 October 2025
PIB: BIRC 2025 will be held at Bharat Mandapam, Pragati Maidan, New Delhi, on 30–31 October 2025.
According to the BIRC 2025 curtain raiser, India's rice production of about 150 million tonnes in 2024–25 accounted for roughly what share of global output?
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Correct answer: C — 28%
PIB: India produced around 150 million tonnes of rice in 2024–25 from nearly 47 million hectares, accounting for about 28 percent of global output.
The ₹1,500 crore Incentive Scheme for critical mineral recycling, approved by the Union Cabinet on 3 September 2025, is part of:
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Correct answer: A — National Critical Mineral Mission
PIB: the ₹1,500 crore Incentive Scheme for critical mineral recycling is a part of the National Critical Mineral Mission; guidelines were issued on 2 October 2025.
Under the critical mineral recycling incentive scheme, the total incentive for a large recycler is capped at:
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Correct answer: B — ₹50 crore
PIB: to enlist more beneficiaries, total incentive is capped at ₹50 crore for big recyclers and ₹25 crore for small recyclers.
What was the approximate total value of proposals cleared by the Defence Acquisition Council on 23 October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹79,000 crore
PIB: the DAC, chaired by Raksha Mantri Rajnath Singh, approved proposals amounting to a total of about ₹79,000 crore.
Landing Platform Docks (LPDs), cleared by the DAC in October 2025 to enable amphibious operations, are for which service?
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Correct answer: B — Indian Navy
PIB: for the Indian Navy, AoN was granted for Landing Platform Docks, which will help the Navy undertake amphibious operations along with the Army and Air Force.
The Collaborative Long Range Target Saturation/Destruction System (CLRTS/DS), capable of autonomous take-off, landing and payload delivery, was cleared by the DAC in October 2025 for:
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Correct answer: C — Indian Air Force
PIB: for the Indian Air Force, AoN was accorded for CLRTS/DS, which can autonomously take off, land, navigate, detect and deliver payload in the mission area.
Under the October 2025 amendment to Rule 3(1)(d) of the IT Rules, 2021, an intimation to intermediaries for removal of unlawful content can be issued (where the rank exists) only by an officer not below the rank of:
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Correct answer: C — Joint Secretary
PIB: intimations can now only be issued by a senior officer not below the rank of Joint Secretary or equivalent (or a Director where such rank is not appointed).
Under the amended Rule 3(1)(d) of the IT Rules (October 2025), which police officer can issue a content-removal intimation to intermediaries?
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Correct answer: A — A specially authorised officer not below Deputy Inspector General
PIB: in case of police authorities, only an officer not below the rank of Deputy Inspector General of Police (DIG), specially authorised, can issue such intimation.
Consider the following statements about the October 2025 amendment to Rule 3(1)(d) of the IT Rules, 2021: 1. All intimations will be reviewed monthly by an officer not below the rank of Secretary of the Appropriate Government. 2. The term 'reasoned intimation' was introduced to align the rule with Section 69A of the IT Act. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: monthly review by a Secretary-level officer is mandated; 'reasoned intimation' aligns the rule with the 'actual knowledge' requirement of Section 79(3)(b), not Section 69A.
Under the Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2025 provisions effective from 1 November 2025, a depositor can nominate up to how many persons?
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Correct answer: C — Four
PIB: customers may nominate up to four persons, either simultaneously or successively.
Under the new nomination rules effective 1 November 2025, which type of nomination is permitted for articles in safe custody and safety lockers?
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Correct answer: B — Only successive nomination
PIB: for articles in safe custody and safety lockers, only successive nominations are permitted; deposit accounts can have either.
Consider the following statements about the Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2025: 1. It contains 19 amendments across five legislations, including the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. 2. Its nomination provisions came into force on 1 August 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the Act has 19 amendments across five laws. Certain other sections came into force on 1 August 2025; the nomination provisions (Sections 10–13) come into force on 1 November 2025.
According to Environment Minister Bhupender Yadav on International Snow Leopard Day 2025, how many snow leopards did India's first-ever snow leopard census record?
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Correct answer: C — 718
PIB: the first-ever Snow Leopard Census recorded 718 individual snow leopards across the Indian Himalayas, with Ladakh alone hosting 477.
What was the name of the nationwide campaign with which India marked International Snow Leopard Day on 23 October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — #23for23
PIB: India observed International Snow Leopard Day with '#23for23', encouraging people to do physical activity for 23 minutes to raise awareness about snow leopard conservation.
Where was the Election Commission's two-day Conference of Chief Electoral Officers on SIR preparedness held in October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — India International Institute for Democracy and Electoral Management, New Delhi
PIB (ECI): the two-day conference concluded at the India International Institute for Democracy and Electoral Management (IIIDEM), New Delhi.
At the October 2025 CEOs' conference, the Election Commission held one-to-one interactions with CEOs of poll-bound states/UT. Which one of the following was NOT among them?
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Correct answer: D — Karnataka
PIB (ECI): the Commission interacted one-to-one with CEOs of Assam, Tamil Nadu, Puducherry, Kerala and West Bengal. Karnataka was not among them.
From which date does the Defence Procurement Manual (DPM) 2025, released by the Defence Minister in October 2025, come into effect?
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Correct answer: B — 1 November 2025
PIB: DPM 2025 is effective from November 01, 2025; RFPs issued up to October 31, 2025 remain under DPM 2009.
Under DPM 2025, what rate of liquidated damages per week applies in indigenisation cases for delayed delivery?
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Correct answer: C — 0.1% per week
PIB: in indigenisation cases only 0.1% LD per week will be levied instead of 0.5% per week; overall, maximum LD of 10% applies only in cases of inordinate delay.
Consider the following statements about the Defence Procurement Manual 2025: 1. RFPs issued after 1 November 2025 will be governed by DPM 2025, while earlier RFPs remain under DPM 2009. 2. It governs capital acquisition of major weapon platforms worth about ₹1 lakh crore. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: DPM 2025 governs revenue procurement (not capital acquisition) of approx ₹1 lakh crore by the three Services and other MoD establishments.
According to the Global Forest Resources Assessment 2025, what is India's global rank in total forest area?
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Correct answer: C — 9th
PIB: India moved up to 9th position in total forest area as per GFRA 2025; it was 10th in the previous assessment.
The Global Forest Resources Assessment (GFRA) 2025 was released by which organisation?
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Correct answer: B — Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
PIB: GFRA 2025 was released by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) in Bali.
Consider the following statements regarding India in the Global Forest Resources Assessment 2025: 1. India retained its 3rd position worldwide in annual forest area gain. 2. The assessment was released by FAO at Rome. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: India maintained its 3rd position in annual forest area gain; the GFRA 2025 was released by FAO in Bali, not Rome.
The 16th session of UNCTAD (UNCTAD XVI), where Piyush Goyal led India's delegation in October 2025, was held in which city?
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Correct answer: A — Geneva
PIB: Piyush Goyal attended the XVIth Session of UNCTAD in Geneva and delivered India's national statement.
In which year was the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) established?
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Correct answer: B — 1964
PIB (UNCTAD XVI release): UNCTAD, established in 1964, promotes the integration of developing countries into the global economy through trade, investment and sustainable development.
Consider the following statements based on India's address at UNCTAD XVI (October 2025): 1. India contributes about 17% of global emissions, in line with its share of world population. 2. India's current clean energy capacity was stated as 500 GW. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct. PIB: India contributes only 3.5% of global emissions despite hosting 17% of the world's population; clean energy stands at 250 GW, with 500 GW as the 2030 target.
India's 7 nm processor announced in October 2025 is being developed by which institution?
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Correct answer: D — IIT Madras
PIB backgrounder: the 7 nm processor is being developed by IIT Madras through its SHAKTI initiative.
Consider the following statements about the SHAKTI processor initiative: 1. It was started in 2013 and is based on an open-source instruction set architecture. 2. The 7 nm processor under it is mainly targeted at smartphones and consumer wearables. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB backgrounder: SHAKTI started in 2013 on an open-source ISA (RISC-V); the 7 nm processor targets server applications in financial services, communications, defence and strategic sectors.