MBA Entrance (XAT, CMAT, MAT) Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
As of March 2025, how many supercomputers had been deployed under the National Supercomputing Mission (MeitY, 28 April 2025)?
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Correct answer: B — 34
A total of 34 supercomputers with a combined capacity of 35 petaflops had been deployed as of March 2025.
Consider the following about the National Supercomputing Mission: 1. It was launched in 2015. 2. Its supercomputers have a combined compute capacity of 35 petaflops as of March 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. NSM was launched in 2015, and its 34 supercomputers had a combined 35 petaflops as of March 2025.
Consider the following about the IEPFA–Kotak Mahindra Bank MoU announced on 28 April 2025: 1. IEPFA functions under the Ministry of Finance's Department of Economic Affairs. 2. The initiative is to run during 2025-26 with no financial obligation on IEPFA. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. IEPFA functions under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs; the initiative runs in 2025-26 with no financial obligation on IEPFA.
In which year did the Government institute the Armed Forces Battle Casualties Welfare Fund, as cited by the Defence Ministry on 27 April 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 2020
The Government instituted the Armed Forces Battle Casualties Welfare Fund in 2020.
Consider the following about the Armed Forces Battle Casualties Welfare Fund (AFBCWF): 1. Its accounts are maintained by the Indian Army on behalf of the Department of Ex-Servicemen Welfare. 2. It provides immediate financial assistance to families of personnel who lose their lives or are grievously injured in active military operations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as stated in the Ministry of Defence release of 27 April 2025.
Consider the following about IOS SAGAR's deployment in April 2025: 1. It made a port call at Port Louis, Mauritius, from 26 to 28 April 2025. 2. On departure, it was to undertake a joint EEZ surveillance with the Mauritius Coast Guard. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as per the Defence Ministry release of 29 April 2025.
What was the theme of World Veterinary Day 2025, as highlighted at the national workshop in New Delhi on 26 April 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Animal Health Takes a Team
The theme highlighted was 'Animal Health Takes a Team'.
As per the Animal Husbandry Department's release of 26 April 2025, India's livestock population is over:
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Correct answer: D — 536 million
India is home to over 536 million livestock, the largest in the world.
Consider the following decisions of the Cabinet Committee on Security on 23 April 2025, as announced by the Foreign Secretary: 1. The Indus Waters Treaty of 1960 will be held in abeyance with immediate effect, until Pakistan credibly and irrevocably abjures its support for cross-border terrorism. 2. The Integrated Check Post Attari will be closed with immediate effect; those who crossed over with valid endorsements may return through that route before 01 May 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as stated in the MEA special briefing of 23 April 2025.
As per the CCS decision of 23 April 2025, to what number will the overall strength of the High Commissions be brought down by 01 May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 30
The overall strength of the High Commissions will be brought down to 30 from the present 55.
As per the CCS decision of 23 April 2025, how much time was given to Pakistani nationals in India under SAARC Visa Exemption Scheme (SVES) visas to leave India?
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Correct answer: D — 48 hours
Any Pakistani national in India under an SVES visa has 48 hours to leave; the Service Advisors were given a week.
Consider the following about the CCS decisions of 23 April 2025 on Service Advisors: 1. The Defence/Military, Naval and Air Advisors in the Pakistani High Commission in New Delhi were declared persona non grata and given a week to leave India. 2. India will retain its own Defence/Navy/Air Advisors in the Indian High Commission in Islamabad. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. India will withdraw its own Defence/Navy/Air Advisors from Islamabad, and these posts are deemed annulled.
After the inscriptions of 17 April 2025, how many collections are there in total on UNESCO's Memory of the World Register?
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Correct answer: B — 570
570: UNESCO added 74 new collections, bringing the total to 570.
Consider the following statements about India's 2025 inscriptions on the Memory of the World Register: 1. The Bhagavadgītā, as described by UNESCO, contains 700 verses in 18 chapters. 2. The inscribed Nāṭyaśāstra manuscript is attributed to Bharatamuni. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. UNESCO describes the Bhagavadgītā as 700 verses in 18 chapters, and the entry is the 'Manuscript of the Nāṭyaśāstra of Bharatamuni'.
According to UNESCO's inscription note, the Bhagavadgītā is embedded in which parva of the Mahābhārata?
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Correct answer: D — Bhīṣmaparva
Bhīṣmaparva: UNESCO notes it is embedded within the Bhīṣmaparva (adhyāya 23–40) of the Mahābhārata.
What was India's CPI-based retail inflation for the full year 2024-25, as stated by the Finance Ministry in April 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 4.6%
4.6%, the lowest since 2018-19.
March 2025's year-on-year CPI inflation of 3.34% was the lowest monthly rate since:
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Correct answer: C — August 2019
August 2019; March 2025 inflation was 27 basis points lower than February 2025.
Consider the following statements about India's Consumer Price Index (CPI): 1. It is compiled by the Reserve Bank of India. 2. It is currently calculated with base year 2012. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The CPI is compiled by the National Statistical Office under MoSPI, not the RBI; its base year is 2012.
In its April 2025 forecast, IMD put the 2025 southwest monsoon seasonal rainfall at what percentage of the Long Period Average?
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Correct answer: C — 105%
105% of the LPA, with a model error of ±5%, i.e. above normal.
The Long Period Average (LPA) of southwest monsoon seasonal rainfall for the country as a whole, for the period 1971–2020, is:
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Correct answer: A — 87 cm
87 cm, as stated by IMD.
Consider the following statements based on IMD's April 2025 monsoon forecast: 1. Neutral ENSO conditions are likely to continue during the monsoon season. 2. Neutral Indian Ocean Dipole conditions are likely to continue during the monsoon season. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. IMD expects both ENSO and IOD to remain neutral through the season.
Ambedkar Jayanti on 14 April 2025 marked which birth anniversary of Dr B.R. Ambedkar?
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Correct answer: C — 135th
135th birth anniversary, as stated by the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment.
The Dr. Ambedkar Foundation, which organised the 2025 Ambedkar Jayanti tributes at Prerna Sthal, was established as an autonomous body in which year?
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Correct answer: B — 1992
1992. It was established on 24 March 1992; the Centenary Celebration Committee that decided to set it up was formed in 1991.
Consider the following statements about the Dr. Ambedkar Foundation (DAF): 1. It was established in 1991 by the Centenary Celebration Committee of Dr Ambedkar. 2. The Union Minister of Social Justice & Empowerment is its Chairman. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The committee was constituted in 1991, but the DAF itself was established on 24 March 1992; Dr Virendra Kumar, Union Minister of Social Justice & Empowerment, is its Chairman.
What was the theme of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes' Ambedkar Jayanti 2025 event in New Delhi?
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Correct answer: D — A Journey of 75 years of Constitution of India
A Journey of 75 years of Constitution of India was the primary theme of the NCSC event.
The maiden Africa India Key Maritime Engagement (AIKEYME) 2025 was co-hosted by India and which country?
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Correct answer: B — Tanzania
Tanzania co-hosted the exercise, which was inaugurated at Dar-es-Salaam on 13 April 2025.
What does 'AIKEYME', the name of the India–Africa maritime exercise, mean in Sanskrit?
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Correct answer: C — Unity
Unity is the meaning of 'AIKEYME' in Sanskrit, according to the Ministry of Defence.
Onboard which Indian Navy ship was the harbour phase of AIKEYME 2025 inaugurated at Dar-es-Salaam?
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Correct answer: A — INS Chennai
INS Chennai, a destroyer; INS Kesari was the other Indian ship in the exercise, and INS Sunayna was deployed separately as IOS SAGAR.
Consider the following statements about AIKEYME 2025: 1. It was a six-day exercise held from 13 to 18 April 2025. 2. Its harbour phase included training on piracy and information sharing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The exercise ran for six days from 13 to 18 April, and the harbour phase covered piracy and information-sharing training before the sea phase.
In the MAHASAGAR vision cited for AIKEYME 2025, what does 'MAHASAGAR' stand for?
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Correct answer: D — Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions
Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions is the expansion given by the Ministry of Defence.
From which aircraft did DRDO conduct release trials of the long-range glide bomb 'Gaurav' in April 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Su-30 MKI
Su-30 MKI: the trials were conducted from the Su-30 MKI between 8 and 10 April 2025.
Which DRDO laboratory designed the long-range glide bomb 'Gaurav', with ARDE and ITR Chandipur?
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Correct answer: A — Research Centre Imarat (RCI)
Research Centre Imarat (RCI) designed it with the Armament Research and Development Establishment and the Integrated Test Range, Chandipur.
In the April 2025 trials, the glide bomb 'Gaurav' hit a land target at a range close to:
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Correct answer: C — 100 km
100 km: the target was on an island and was hit with pinpoint accuracy.
Consider the following statements about the glide bomb 'Gaurav': 1. It is a 500 kg class glide bomb. 2. Adani Defence Systems & Technologies and Bharat Forge are among its development-cum-production partners. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. Gaurav is in the 1,000 kg class, not 500 kg; Adani Defence Systems & Technologies, Bharat Forge and MSMEs are its development-cum-production partners.
How much renewable energy capacity did India add in FY 2024-25, according to MNRE?
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Correct answer: C — 29.52 GW
29.52 GW, a record; 23.83 GW of it was solar, and 50.04 GW is the total wind capacity.
What was India's total installed renewable energy capacity as of 31 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 220.10 GW
220.10 GW, up from 198.75 GW a year earlier; 105.65 GW is the solar share.
Consider the following statements about India's solar capacity as of 31 March 2025: 1. Total installed solar capacity crossed 100 GW. 2. Rooftop solar accounted for more than half of the total solar capacity. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Total solar capacity was 105.65 GW, but rooftop solar was 17.02 GW; ground-mounted installations made up 81.01 GW.
What was India's total installed wind energy capacity at the end of FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: C — 50.04 GW
50.04 GW, after 4.15 GW was added during the year; 11.58 GW is bioenergy capacity.
From which country was Tahawwur Hussain Rana, an accused in the 26/11 Mumbai attacks case, extradited to India in April 2025?
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Correct answer: D — United States
United States: the US Marshals Service surrendered him to Indian authorities on 9 April 2025.
Which Indian agency formally arrested Tahawwur Rana on his arrival in New Delhi on 10 April 2025?
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Correct answer: D — National Investigation Agency
National Investigation Agency (NIA); NIA and NSG teams escorted him from Los Angeles.
Consider the following statements about Tahawwur Rana's extradition: 1. A US magistrate judge certified his extradition to India on 16 May 2023. 2. He is an Indian citizen. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. His extradition was certified on 16 May 2023 in the Central District of California; he is a Canadian citizen of Pakistani origin.
Tahawwur Rana's extradition to India in April 2025 followed proceedings initiated under which instrument?
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Correct answer: A — India-US Extradition Treaty
India-US Extradition Treaty: the NIA said he was held in US judicial custody pursuant to proceedings initiated under it.
By what percentage was the 'material cost' under PM POSHAN raised with effect from 1 May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 9.50%
9.50%, at an additional Central cost of about ₹954 crore in 2025-26.
What is the revised per-student, per-day material cost for Bal Vatika and primary classes under PM POSHAN from 1 May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹6.78
₹6.78, up from ₹6.19; upper primary rises from ₹9.29 to ₹10.17.
Consider the following statements about the PM POSHAN material cost revision of April 2025: 1. It is based on the Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW). 2. The revised rates are minimum mandatory rates, and states/UTs may contribute more. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The revision is based on the Consumer Price Index for Rural Labourers (CPI-RL) compiled by the Labour Bureau, not CPI-IW; the rates are minimum mandatory rates.
About how many students in how many schools are covered by PM POSHAN, as stated by the Ministry of Education in April 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 11.20 crore students in 10.36 lakh schools
11.20 crore students in 10.36 lakh government and government-aided schools.
To what level did the RBI's Monetary Policy Committee reduce the policy repo rate in April 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 6.00 per cent
6.00 per cent, after a 25 basis point cut; 5.75 per cent became the SDF rate and 6.25 per cent the MSF rate and Bank Rate.
Consider the following statements about the RBI MPC meeting of 7-9 April 2025: 1. The MPC changed its policy stance from neutral to accommodative. 2. The repo rate decision was taken by a 4-2 majority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The MPC changed its stance from neutral to accommodative, and the repo rate cut was unanimous, not a split vote.
What CPI inflation rate did the RBI project for 2025-26 in its April 2025 policy?
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Correct answer: D — 4.0 per cent
4.0 per cent; 3.6 per cent and 4.4 per cent are the Q1 and Q4 projections, and 6.5 per cent is the GDP growth projection.
The MPC meeting held from 7 to 9 April 2025 was its:
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Correct answer: C — 54th meeting
54th meeting, the first of financial year 2025-26, chaired by Governor Sanjay Malhotra.
From which date did the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025 come into force?
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Correct answer: B — 8 April 2025
8 April 2025, as notified by the Ministry of Minority Affairs under section 1(2); the Act received assent on 5 April 2025.
Consider the following statements about the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025: 1. It received the President's assent on 8 April 2025. 2. It changes the short title of the Waqf Act, 1995 by substituting the words 'Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency and Development' for 'Waqf'. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The Act received assent on 5 April 2025; 8 April 2025 is the date it came into force.
From which date did the Mussalman Wakf (Repeal) Act, 2025 come into force?
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Correct answer: D — 9 April 2025
9 April 2025, under notification S.O. 1676(E) of the Ministry of Minority Affairs, a day after the Waqf (Amendment) Act took effect.
When was the Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana launched?
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Correct answer: A — 8 April 2015
8 April 2015; the scheme completed 10 years on 8 April 2025.
What is the current maximum loan limit under PMMY after the increase announced in the Union Budget 2024-25?
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Correct answer: C — ₹20 lakh
₹20 lakh, raised from ₹10 lakh with effect from 24 October 2024 through the new Tarun Plus category.
Consider the following statements about PMMY: 1. According to the Finance Minister, nearly 68% of MUDRA loan accounts have been sanctioned to women. 2. The Tarun Plus category is open to any first-time borrower. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Tarun Plus (₹10 lakh to ₹20 lakh) is only for borrowers who have availed and successfully repaid loans under the Tarun category.
Under PMMY, the Shishu category covers loans up to:
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Correct answer: B — ₹50,000
₹50,000; Kishor covers loans above ₹50,000 and up to ₹5 lakh.
Besides India and Sri Lanka, which country was a party to the April 2025 MoU on developing Trincomalee as an energy hub?
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Correct answer: C — United Arab Emirates
United Arab Emirates; it was one of seven MoUs exchanged during the Prime Minister's visit on 5 April 2025.
Under a project launched virtually during PM Modi's April 2025 visit, solar rooftop systems are to be supplied to how many religious institutions across Sri Lanka?
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Correct answer: A — 5,000
5,000 religious institutions across Sri Lanka.
During his April 2025 visit, PM Modi announced a comprehensive capacity-building programme in India covering how many Sri Lankans annually?
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Correct answer: D — 700
700 Sri Lankans annually.
Consider the following statements about the outcomes of PM Modi's visit to Sri Lanka in April 2025: 1. The MoU on Defence Cooperation was signed on the Indian side by the Defence Secretary. 2. The ground-breaking of the Sampur Solar power project was held virtually. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. On the Indian side, the Defence Cooperation MoU was signed by Foreign Secretary Vikram Misri.
The Sita Eliya temple, for which India announced grant assistance in April 2025, is located in which part of Sri Lanka?
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Correct answer: A — Nuwara Eliya
Nuwara Eliya; grants were also announced for the Thirukoneswaram temple in Trincomalee and the Sacred City Complex in Anuradhapura.
What is the total outlay of the Vibrant Villages Programme-II approved by the Union Cabinet on 4 April 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Rs 6,839 crore
PIB (Cabinet): VVP-II has a total outlay of Rs 6,839 crore till FY 2028-29.
The Vibrant Villages Programme-II has been approved as a:
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Correct answer: B — Central Sector Scheme with 100% Centre funding
PIB (Cabinet): the Cabinet approved VVP-II as a Central Sector Scheme (100% Centre funding).
Consider the following about the Vibrant Villages Programme-II: 1. It covers villages along international land borders other than the Northern border covered under VVP-I. 2. All-weather road connectivity for these villages will be provided under PMGSY-IV. 3. It will run till FY 2030-31. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Cabinet): VVP-II covers ILB villages other than the Northern border already under VVP-I, and road connectivity will come under PMGSY-IV. It runs for FY 2024-25 to 2028-29, so statement 3 is wrong.
Under the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025, which cleared Parliament on 4 April 2025, the Waqf Act, 1995 is renamed as the:
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Correct answer: A — Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency, and Development Act, 2025
PIB (Ministry of Minority Affairs): the Bill renames the Act the Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, Efficiency, and Development Act, 2025.
The Mussalman Wakf (Repeal) Bill, 2025, passed by Parliament along with the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, repeals the Mussalman Wakf Act of which year?
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Correct answer: C — 1923
PIB (Ministry of Minority Affairs): the Mussalman Wakf (Repeal) Bill, 2025 seeks to remove the outdated Mussalman Wakf Act, 1923.
Consider the following about the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2025: 1. It removes 'waqf by user' and allows waqf formation only through declaration or endowment. 2. It requires donors to be practising Muslims for at least ten years. 3. It empowers Collectors to conduct surveys of waqf property. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
PIB (Ministry of Minority Affairs): the Bill removes waqf by user, allows formation only through declaration or endowment, and empowers Collectors to conduct surveys. Donors must be practising Muslims for at least five years, not ten, so statement 2 is wrong.
What was the theme of the 6th BIMSTEC Summit held in Bangkok on 4 April 2025?
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Correct answer: B — BIMSTEC: Prosperous, Resilient and Open
PIB (PMO): the theme of the Summit was "BIMSTEC: Prosperous, Resilient and Open".
BODHI, the skilling initiative India announced at the 6th BIMSTEC Summit, stands for:
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Correct answer: C — BIMSTEC for Organised Development of Human Resource Infrastructure
PIB (PMO): BODHI is "BIMSTEC for Organised Development of Human resource Infrastructure"; 300 youth from BIMSTEC countries will be trained in India every year.
At the 6th BIMSTEC Summit, India announced it would host the first BIMSTEC Games in:
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Correct answer: A — 2027
PIB (PMO): India would host the first BIMSTEC Games in 2027, when the group celebrates its 30th anniversary.
Consider the following about the 6th BIMSTEC Summit (4 April 2025): 1. It adopted the BIMSTEC Bangkok Vision 2030 document. 2. The BIMSTEC Maritime Transport Agreement was signed. 3. It adopted the report of the BIMSTEC Eminent Persons Group. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (PMO): the Summit adopted the Summit Declaration, the Bangkok Vision 2030 document, the signing of the Maritime Transport Agreement and the report of the Eminent Persons Group. All three are correct.
During PM Modi's visit to Bangkok on 3 April 2025, India and Thailand elevated their relationship to a:
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Correct answer: D — Strategic Partnership
PIB (PMO): the two leaders witnessed the exchange of the Joint Declaration on the Establishment of the India-Thailand Strategic Partnership.
An India-Thailand MoU signed on 3 April 2025 concerns the development of the National Maritime Heritage Complex at:
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Correct answer: C — Lothal
PIB (PMO), list of outcomes: an MoU between the Sagarmala Division of the Ports Ministry and Thailand's Fine Arts Department for development of the National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC) at Lothal, Gujarat.
Which Buddhist scripture did Thai Prime Minister Paetongtarn Shinawatra present to PM Modi on 3 April 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Tipitaka in Pali
PIB (PMO): PM Modi was presented a special edition of the Buddhist holy scriptures, the Tipitaka in Pali, by PM Shinawatra.
During PM Modi's visit on 3 April 2025, India welcomed Thailand's decision to co-lead which pillar of the Indo-Pacific Oceans' Initiative (IPOI)?
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Correct answer: B — Maritime Ecology
PIB (PMO), PM's press statement: India welcomed Thailand's decision to co-lead the 'Maritime Ecology' Pillar of the Indo-Pacific Oceans' Initiative.
Consider the following outcomes of PM Modi's visit to Thailand on 3 April 2025: 1. An MoU between India's MeitY and Thailand's Ministry of Digital Economy and Society on digital technologies. 2. An MoU between India's NSIC and Thailand's OSMEP on MSMEs. 3. An MoU between India's Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region and Thailand's Ministry of Culture. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (PMO), list of outcomes: the MeitY-MDES digital MoU and the NSIC-OSMEP MSME MoU were signed. The MDoNER MoU was with Thailand's Ministry of Foreign Affairs, not the Ministry of Culture, so statement 3 is wrong.
Under US Executive Order 14257 of 2 April 2025, from which date did the 10% baseline tariff on imports from all trading partners apply?
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Correct answer: B — 5 April 2025
White House (EO 14257): the additional 10% ad valorem duty applies to goods entered on or after 12:01 a.m. EDT on 5 April 2025; country-specific Annex I rates apply from 9 April 2025.
Under which US law did the President declare a national emergency in the reciprocal-tariff Executive Order of 2 April 2025?
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Correct answer: A — International Emergency Economic Powers Act
White House (EO 14257): the order invokes the International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA) and the National Emergencies Act, and declares a national emergency with respect to the trade-deficit threat.
'Mission 500', recalled in India's official response to the US reciprocal tariffs, aims to raise India-US bilateral trade to US$ 500 billion by:
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Correct answer: C — 2030
PIB (Commerce): the leaders announced 'Mission 500' on 13 February 2025, aiming to more than double bilateral trade to US$ 500 billion by 2030.
Under US Executive Order 14257 of 2 April 2025, the higher country-specific reciprocal tariff rates listed in Annex I were to apply from:
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Correct answer: D — 12:01 a.m. EDT, 9 April 2025
Executive Order 14257 (White House): the 10% baseline applied from 12:01 a.m. EDT on 5 April 2025, and the country-specific Annex I rates from 12:01 a.m. EDT on 9 April 2025.
Consider the following goods with respect to the reciprocal tariffs under US Executive Order 14257: 1. Steel and aluminium articles already subject to Section 232 duties 2. Copper, pharmaceuticals and semiconductors listed in Annex II 3. All agricultural products Which of the above are exempted from the reciprocal tariffs by the order?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
Executive Order 14257: exempted goods include steel and aluminium articles and automobiles subject to Section 232 duties of the Trade Expansion Act of 1962, and Annex II products such as copper, pharmaceuticals, semiconductors, lumber, certain critical minerals and energy. The order has no blanket exemption for agricultural products.
India's defence exports in the financial year 2024-25 reached a record of about:
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Correct answer: B — ₹23,622 crore
PIB (Defence): defence exports surged to a record ₹23,622 crore in FY 2024-25, up from ₹21,083 crore in FY 2023-24.
Consider the following statements about India's defence exports in FY 2024-25: 1. The private sector contributed more than the Defence PSUs. 2. Defence PSU exports grew by more than 40%. 3. Exports went to more than 100 countries. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Defence): the private sector contributed ₹15,233 crore and DPSUs ₹8,389 crore, with DPSU exports up 42.85%. Statement 3 is incorrect: items were exported to around 80 countries.
By 2029, India aims to raise its annual defence exports to:
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Correct answer: C — ₹50,000 crore
PIB (Defence): the Raksha Mantri said India is marching towards achieving the target of increasing defence exports to ₹50,000 crore by 2029.
According to the Coal Ministry, India's provisional coal production in FY 2024-25 was about:
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Correct answer: D — 1,047.57 million tonnes
PIB (Coal): cumulative coal production in FY 2024-25 reached 1,047.57 MT (provisional), compared to 997.83 MT in FY 2023-24. 1,024.99 MT was the dispatch figure.
By how much did India's coal production grow in FY 2024-25 over FY 2023-24?
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Correct answer: B — 4.99%
PIB (Coal): production grew 4.99%, from 997.83 MT to 1,047.57 MT. The 5.34% figure was the growth in dispatch.
How much renewable energy capacity did India add in FY 2024-25, according to the MNRE?
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Correct answer: D — 25 GW
PIB (MNRE): the country added an unprecedented 25 GW of renewable energy capacity in FY 2024-25, against 18.57 GW in the previous year.
India's solar module manufacturing capacity in March 2025, as reported by the MNRE, was about:
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Correct answer: C — 74 GW
PIB (MNRE): solar module manufacturing capacity nearly doubled from 38 GW in March 2024 to 74 GW in March 2025; 25 GW is the PV cell capacity.
During FY 2024-25, India's installed solar capacity crossed which milestone?
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Correct answer: D — 100 GW
PIB (MNRE): the country achieved the significant milestone of surpassing 100 GW of installed solar capacity this year.
From 1 April 2025, the price of APM natural gas from old nomination fields was raised to what level?
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Correct answer: D — $6.75 per mmBtu
PPAC notified a rise from $6.50 to $6.75 per mmBtu effective 1 April 2025.
Which body of the Petroleum Ministry notified the APM gas price revision on 31 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Petroleum Planning and Analysis Cell
The notification came from the Petroleum Planning and Analysis Cell (PPAC).
Under the April 2023 pricing formula, domestic APM gas is priced at what share of the monthly average import price of crude oil?
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Correct answer: B — 10%
The formula prices domestic gas at 10% of the monthly average crude import price, subject to a floor and ceiling.
Consider the following statements about APM gas pricing: 1. The April 2023 formula, which followed the Kirit Parikh committee review, set a floor of $4 and a ceiling of $6.50 per mmBtu. 2. PPAC's formula price for April 2025 was below the new ceiling of $6.75 per mmBtu. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The April 2023 formula had a $4 floor and a $6.50 ceiling. PPAC said the formula price for April 2025 was $7.26, above the ceiling, so the $6.75 cap applied.
Where in Mandalay was the Indian Army field hospital sent under Operation Brahma allocated space on 31 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Old Mandalay Airfield
The Army said the field hospital was allocated space at the Old Mandalay Airfield, where a non-operational 200-bed hospital building exists.
Which two Indian Navy ships reached Yangon on the night of 31 March 2025 with about 40 tonnes of relief material?
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Correct answer: C — INS Satpura and INS Savitri
The Hindu reported that INS Satpura and INS Savitri arrived at Yangon on the night of 31 March with about 40 tonnes of relief.
How many Indian Army field-hospital personnel and NDRF personnel reached Mandalay in the 31 March 2025 convoy?
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Correct answer: B — 110 Army and 13 NDRF
The Army said 110 field-hospital personnel and 13 NDRF personnel reached Mandalay.
Consider the following statements about Operation Brahma: 1. It is being carried out under the direction of the Ministry of External Affairs with HQ Integrated Defence Staff, the Army, the IAF and the NDRF. 2. The Indian Army field-hospital convoy reached Mandalay by sea through the port of Mandalay. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The operation runs under MEA direction with HQ IDS, the Army, the IAF and the NDRF. Mandalay is inland; the convoy went by road in Myanmar Army trucks, buses and NDRF vehicles.
By when did India and the US aim to finalise the first tranche of their Bilateral Trade Agreement, according to the Commerce Ministry on 29 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — By fall 2025
The two sides aimed to finalise the first tranche of the BTA by fall 2025.
Under the India–US Joint Statement of 13 February 2025, bilateral trade was to be expanded to what level by 2030?
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Correct answer: B — $500 billion
The two sides agreed to expand bilateral trade to $500 billion by 2030.
The India–US trade talks that concluded in New Delhi on 29 March 2025 lasted how many days?
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Correct answer: C — Four
The talks were held from 26 to 29 March 2025, four days of discussions.
Consider the following statements about the India–US trade talks of March 2025: 1. On the US side, the talks were held with the Office of the US Trade Representative. 2. Sectoral expert-level engagements under the BTA were to begin in person in New Delhi immediately after the talks. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
India's Department of Commerce met the Office of the USTR. Sectoral expert-level engagements were to start virtually in the coming weeks, paving the way for an in-person round later.