KVS / NVS Current Affairs Quiz — Last 6 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
TBM 'Durga', which achieved a breakthrough on 10 July 2026, is working on which Kolkata Metro corridor?
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Correct answer: B — Joka–Esplanade (Purple Line)
TBM 'Durga' completed the Khidderpore–Victoria tunnel on the Joka–Esplanade corridor of the Purple Line.
At which station did TBM 'Durga' make its breakthrough on 10 July 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Victoria
TBM 'Durga' successfully achieved its breakthrough at Victoria Metro Station.
Where was the Egmont Group Plenary held at which FIU-IND won runner-up in the Best Egmont Case Award 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Baku, Azerbaijan
The BECA 2026 was presented during the Egmont Group Plenary held in Baku, Azerbaijan.
How many member jurisdictions does the Egmont Group have, as stated in the FIU-IND release of July 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 182
FIU-IND's case was one of two finalists among submissions from the Egmont Group's 182 member jurisdictions.
Consider the following statements about FIU-IND's award-winning case at BECA 2026: 1. The case originated from intelligence shared by the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C). 2. It involved cyber fraud proceeds of about ₹868 crore and more than 5,000 mule bank accounts. 3. The case won the top prize (winner) at BECA 2026. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the FIU-IND case was adjudged the runner-up, not the winner.
Kavach, approved on 680 route km of Northern Railway in July 2026, is what kind of system?
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Correct answer: C — An indigenous Automatic Train Protection system
Kavach is India's indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system.
Kavach Version 4.0 approved in July 2026 will be installed on which sections of Northern Railway's Delhi Division?
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Correct answer: B — Rewari–Delhi and Shakurbasti–Bathinda
The project covers 680 route km of the Rewari–Delhi and Shakurbasti–Bathinda sections, including feeder branch lines, at ₹206 crore.
At its 7th Governing Body meeting on 10 July 2026, National CAMPA extended which mangrove programme till 2029 with an overall outlay of ₹600 crore?
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Correct answer: D — MISHTI
The Governing Body approved a three-year extension of MISHTI till 2029 with an additional ₹500 crore, taking the overall outlay to ₹600 crore.
Which of the following was NOT among the species-related projects approved by the National CAMPA Governing Body on 10 July 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Great Indian Bustard
The approved projects covered river dolphins, Project Snow Leopard Phase-II, the Indian rhinoceros and the wild water buffalo, plus continued support for the Sangai; the Great Indian Bustard was not listed.
Consider the following statements about the Compensatory Afforestation Fund (CAF) Act, 2016: 1. The Act and its Rules came into force on 30 September 2018. 2. The National and State Funds are non-lapsable and interest-bearing. 3. The State Funds are kept in the Consolidated Fund of each State. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the State Compensatory Afforestation Funds are under the Public Accounts of the States/UTs, not their Consolidated Funds.
Where was the Centre of Excellence on Human–Wildlife Conflict inaugurated on 10 July 2026?
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Correct answer: A — WII-SACON, Coimbatore
Bhupender Yadav inaugurated the CoE on Human–Wildlife Conflict at WII-SACON, Coimbatore.
The Centre of Excellence on Human–Wildlife Conflict was announced by the Prime Minister at which meeting?
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Correct answer: C — 7th Meeting of the National Board for Wildlife
The minister said the CoE was announced by PM Narendra Modi during the 7th Meeting of the National Board for Wildlife.
Which digital platform was launched along with the Human–Wildlife Conflict Centre of Excellence on 10 July 2026?
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Correct answer: B — National Human–Wildlife Conflict Portal
The minister launched the National Human–Wildlife Conflict Portal for data management, knowledge sharing and decision support.
The 49th Session of the Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC49), held from 6 to 10 July 2026, took place in which city?
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Correct answer: A — Geneva
CAC49 was held in Geneva, Switzerland, from 6 to 10 July 2026.
At CAC49, the Codex Commission approved India's proposal for new work on a standard for which product?
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Correct answer: D — Cashew kernels
The Commission approved India's proposal to develop a Codex Standard for Cashew Kernels under the Codex Committee on Processed Fruits and Vegetables.
Consider the following statements: 1. The Codex Alimentarius Commission was established jointly by the FAO and the WHO. 2. India hosts the Codex Committee on Spices and Culinary Herbs (CCSCH), with the Spices Board as its Secretariat. 3. The standards for large cardamom, coriander and vanilla were finalised at the CCSCH session held in Kochi in 2024. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the standards were finalised at the Eighth Session of the CCSCH, held in Guwahati in October 2025.
IFSC GIFT City units were exempted in July 2026 from the licensing requirement under which section of the Coastal Shipping Act, 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Section 11
The exemption is from the licensing requirement under Section 11 of the Coastal Shipping Act, 2025 for chartering foreign vessels.
Before the July 2026 exemption, IFSC units needed a licence from which authority to charter foreign vessels under Section 11 of the Coastal Shipping Act, 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Director General of Shipping
The exemption removes the need for eligible IFSC units to obtain a licence from the Director General of Shipping.
Under the July 2026 amendment to the Drugs Rules, 1945, high-alcohol formulations were moved to which schedule requiring prescription sale?
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Correct answer: C — Schedule H1
The amendment shifts these products to Schedule H1, which mandates sale against a registered medical practitioner's prescription.
What threshold triggers the new licensing requirement for alcohol-containing formulations under the July 2026 amendment?
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Correct answer: A — More than 12% v/v ethyl alcohol in quantities above 30 mL
Formulations with more than 12% v/v ethyl alcohol in quantities exceeding 30 mL are no longer covered by the Schedule K exemption.
Consider the following statements about the July 2026 amendment to the Drugs Rules, 1945: 1. It removes certain alcohol-containing formulations from the licensing exemption under Schedule K. 2. Affected products must now obtain licences under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940. 3. The amendment bans the manufacture of all tinctures containing ethyl alcohol. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: there is no ban; the products need licences and prescriptions so they remain available for legitimate therapeutic use.
Who chaired NITI Aayog's stakeholder consultation on implementing the SHANTI Act, 2025 on 10 July 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Prof. Abhay Karandikar
The consultation was chaired by Prof. Abhay Karandikar, Member, NITI Aayog.
The SHANTI Act, 2025 relates to which sector?
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Correct answer: C — Nuclear energy
SHANTI stands for Sustainable Harnessing and Advancement of Nuclear Energy for Transforming India; the Act covers nuclear energy and ionising radiation.
Consider the following statements about the SHANTI Act, 2025: 1. It received the assent of the President on 20 December 2025. 2. It gives statutory recognition to the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB). 3. It permits limited private participation in the nuclear sector under regulatory oversight. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct: the Act got assent on 20 December 2025 (Act No. 39 of 2025), grants statutory recognition to AERB and enables limited private participation under regulatory oversight.
Which helpline number for drug de-addiction was highlighted at the July 2026 meeting on the National Pledge Against Drug Abuse?
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Correct answer: C — 14446
The meeting highlighted the need to promote drug de-addiction through helpline 14446.
Which city hosted the 3rd India–Australia Annual Summit on 9 July 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Melbourne
The Third India–Australia Annual Summit was held in Melbourne.
The India–Australia Joint Declaration on Defence and Security Cooperation (July 2026) renews which earlier document?
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Correct answer: D — Joint Declaration on Security (2009)
The list of outcomes says the JDDSC renews the existing Joint Declaration on Security of 2009.
Which Australian university received a Letter of Intent at the July 2026 summit to set up a campus in Bengaluru?
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Correct answer: A — Flinders University
A Letter of Intent was handed to Flinders University for a campus in Bengaluru; Victoria University got a Letter of Approval for Gurugram.
Consider the following statements about the 3rd India–Australia Annual Summit (July 2026): 1. The two countries established an Annual Defence Ministers' Dialogue. 2. Australia returned three antiquities that originated in Tamil Nadu. 3. Victoria University will set up its Indian campus in Bengaluru. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: Victoria University's campus is approved for Gurugram; Flinders University is the one coming to Bengaluru.
The Administrative Arrangement finalised at the July 2026 Melbourne summit operationalises the India–Australia Civil Nuclear Agreement signed in which year?
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Correct answer: C — 2014
The Arrangement operationalises the India–Australia Civil Nuclear Agreement signed in 2014.
Australian uranium exports to India under the July 2026 arrangement will be under the safeguards of which body?
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Correct answer: A — International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)
The Arrangement enables uranium exports for peaceful purposes under International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) safeguards.
Consider the following statements, as given in PIB's July 2026 backgrounder on India–Australia civil nuclear cooperation: 1. Australia has the largest uranium resources in the world, more than one-third of the global total. 2. India operates 24 nuclear power reactors with an installed capacity of 8.78 GW. 3. India's Nuclear Energy Mission targets 50 GW of nuclear capacity by 2047. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the Nuclear Energy Mission targets 100 GW by 2047.
Which DoT project won the WSIS Prize 2026 under Action Line C6?
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Correct answer: C — Samriddh Gram
DoT won for 'Samriddh Gram: Integrated Phygital Service Delivery Model Enabled by BharatNet'.
Samriddh Gram won the WSIS Prize 2026 under which Action Line?
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Correct answer: A — C6 – Enabling Environment
The project was the global winner under Action Line C6 – Enabling Environment.
The World Summit on the Information Society (WSIS) process, under which the WSIS Prizes are given, is led by which UN agency?
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Correct answer: D — ITU
The WSIS Prizes are instituted under the WSIS process led by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU).
Where was the 29th meeting of the National Tiger Conservation Authority held on 9 July 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Coimbatore
The 29th NTCA meeting was held at CASFOS, Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu.
Which NTCA publication released on 9 July 2026 assesses tiger reserves on infrastructure, development, ecology and social parameters?
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Correct answer: B — STRIDES 2026
'STRIDES 2026: Status of Tiger Reserves – Infrastructure, Development, Ecology & Social Parameters' was released at the meeting.
Consider the following statements about the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA): 1. It is constituted under Section 38L of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, as amended in 2006. 2. The Union Minister in charge of Environment is its Chairperson. 3. It includes three Members of Parliament, two from the Lok Sabha and one from the Rajya Sabha. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct, as per Section 38L of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 and the NTCA's own description.
Where was the national Letter of Authorisation for Sustainable Harnessing of Fisheries in the High Seas launched on 9 July 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Bhubaneswar
The national launch was organised by the Department of Fisheries in Bhubaneswar, Odisha.
Who launched the high seas fishing Letter of Authorisation and the Odisha Deep Sea Fishing Mission Document on 9 July 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Vice-President C. P. Radhakrishnan
Vice-President C. P. Radhakrishnan launched both the LoA and the Odisha Deep Sea Fishing Mission Document.
What does the Letter of Authorisation (LoA) framework launched in July 2026 allow?
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Correct answer: B — Eligible Indian-flagged vessels to undertake regulated fishing in the high seas
The LoA enables eligible Indian-flagged fishing vessels to undertake regulated fishing operations in the high seas.
Which city hosted the BRICS Women Ministerial Meeting that concluded on 9 July 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Kochi
The BRICS Women Ministerial Meeting concluded in Kochi under India's BRICS Chairmanship 2026.
What was described as the landmark outcome of the BRICS Women Ministerial Meeting 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Adoption of the first-ever Joint Statement in the Women Track
The landmark outcome was the adoption of the first-ever Joint Statement in the BRICS Women Track.
India's Traditional Knowledge Digital Library access agreement of July 2026 was signed between CSIR and which Australian body?
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Correct answer: B — IP Australia
CSIR and IP Australia entered into the TKDL access agreement during the 3rd India–Australia Annual Summit.
After the July 2026 agreement with IP Australia, how many patent offices have access to the TKDL database?
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Correct answer: D — 18
With the signing of the Agreement with IP Australia, eighteen patent offices now have access to the database under NDAs.
Consider the following statements about the Traditional Knowledge Digital Library (TKDL): 1. It was established in 2001 by CSIR and the Ministry of AYUSH. 2. It holds information on over 5.2 lakh formulations and practices in five international languages. 3. Hindi is one of the five languages in which TKDL is made available to patent examiners. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the five languages are English, German, French, Japanese and Spanish.
By what date did the Sports Ministry ask National Sports Federations to publish their Los Angeles 2028 Olympic selection pathways?
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Correct answer: A — 15 July 2026
NSFs were asked to publish the pathway on their websites immediately and no later than 15 July 2026.
As stated by the Sports Ministry, the Los Angeles 2028 Olympic Games are scheduled for which dates?
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Correct answer: C — 14 – 30 July 2028
The Los Angeles 2028 Olympic Games are scheduled to be held from 14 July to 30 July 2028.
According to the AISHE report released in July 2026, what was India's Gross Enrolment Ratio in higher education in 2023-24?
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Correct answer: C — 30
GER reached 29.5 in 2022-23 and 30 in 2023-24; 31.2 is the female GER for 2023-24.
What was the Gender Parity Index (GPI) in higher education in 2023-24 as per AISHE?
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Correct answer: A — 1.08
The GPI for 2023-24 stands at 1.08 and has remained above 1.0 for seven consecutive years.
Consider the following statements about AISHE: 1. GER in AISHE is computed for the 18–23 years age group. 2. Women made up 44% of STEM enrolment in 2023-24. 3. Participation in AISHE is mandatory for all Higher Education Institutions. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: PIB's survey note says participation in AISHE is voluntary and data is self-reported.
What was the total enrolment in higher education in 2023-24 according to AISHE?
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Correct answer: B — 4.50 crore
Enrolment rose from 3.42 crore (2014-15) to 4.46 crore (2022-23) and 4.50 crore (2023-24); 2.24 crore is female enrolment.
What is the last date for applications under the ₹37,500 crore Scheme for Promotion of Surface Coal/Lignite Gasification Projects?
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Correct answer: A — 7 September 2026
Applications close on 7 September 2026; 20 July is the pre-application conference, 7 July the RFP and 25 June the guidelines.
Under the 2026 coal/lignite gasification scheme, the financial incentive is capped at what share of the cost of plant and machinery?
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Correct answer: C — 20%
The Cabinet release says the incentive is a maximum of 20% of the cost of plant and machinery.
The coal gasification scheme approved by the Cabinet in May 2026 advances India's national target of gasifying how much coal by 2030?
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Correct answer: D — 100 million tonnes
The national target is 100 MT of coal gasification by 2030; the new scheme itself targets about 75 MT of coal/lignite.
How much copra did the Centre approve for procurement at MSP in Tamil Nadu in 2026?
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Correct answer: A — 87,226 metric tonnes
A total of 87,226 MT of copra (87,000 MT milling and 226 MT ball copra) will be procured; 96,879 MT is the Totapuri mango quantity.
Under which scheme will Totapuri mangoes be procured in Tamil Nadu in 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Market Intervention Scheme
Totapuri mangoes will be procured under the Market Intervention Scheme at ₹1,545.41 per quintal; copra is under the Price Support Scheme.
Consider the following statements about PM-AASHA: 1. Under the Price Support Scheme, notified pulses, oilseeds and copra are procured at MSP. 2. The Market Intervention Scheme covers perishable commodities not included under MSP procurement. 3. The Price Deficit Payment Scheme involves physical procurement of oilseeds by central agencies. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: PIB says PDPS pays the gap between MSP and the selling price directly and does not involve physical procurement.
Who led the Indian delegation at the 23rd India–Myanmar National Level Meeting in July 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Union Home Secretary Govind Mohan
The Indian delegation was led by Govind Mohan, Secretary, Ministry of Home Affairs.
In MAHASAGAR, cited by India at the India–Myanmar meeting, what does the acronym stand for?
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Correct answer: B — Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions
PIB expands MAHASAGAR as Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions.
Which two connectivity projects did India and Myanmar stress completing at the 23rd National Level Meeting?
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Correct answer: C — Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project and India–Myanmar–Thailand Trilateral Highway
Both sides stressed completing the Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport project and the India–Myanmar–Thailand trilateral highway.
Where did DRDO flight-test the Pinaka Long Range Guided Rocket on 8 July 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Integrated Test Range, Chandipur
The LRGR was flight-tested at the Integrated Test Range (ITR), Chandipur.
Which DRDO laboratory designed the Pinaka Long Range Guided Rocket, in association with HEMRL?
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Correct answer: D — Armament Research and Development Establishment
PIB says the LRGR is designed by ARDE in association with HEMRL; DRDL and RCI supported, and PXE coordinated the trial with ITR.
Consider the following statements about the Pinaka LRGR test of 8 July 2026: 1. The rocket was tested for a user-defined minimum range of 60 km. 2. The rocket was fired from a newly built dedicated launcher. 3. The trial was coordinated by ITR and the Proof & Experimental Establishment. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 3 only
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the rocket was fired from the in-service Pinaka launcher.
By which year does India aim to achieve Foot & Mouth Disease (FMD)-free status, as restated at the July 2026 Bhubaneswar workshop?
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Correct answer: A — 2030
The workshop supports the national objective of achieving FMD-free status by 2030.
Which app did the Union Animal Husbandry Minister launch under the Pandemic Fund at the FMD workshop in Bhubaneswar on 8 July 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Rate My Laboratory App
Rajiv Ranjan Singh launched the Rate My Laboratory App under the Pandemic Fund, along with the Dairy Vikas Portal and Vidyapeeth Portal.
Where were the 13th AITIGA Joint Committee meetings held in July 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Vanijya Bhawan, New Delhi
India hosted the meetings at Vanijya Bhawan, New Delhi, from 6 to 10 July 2026.
An official from which ASEAN country co-chaired the 13th AITIGA Joint Committee meeting with India?
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Correct answer: C — Malaysia
The meeting was co-chaired by Ms Mastura Ahmad Mustafa of Malaysia's Ministry of Investment, Trade and Industry.
According to the Commerce Ministry, what was bilateral trade between India and ASEAN in 2025-26?
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Correct answer: A — USD 128 billion
Bilateral trade between India and ASEAN reached USD 128 billion in 2025-26; ASEAN is about 11% of India's global trade.
The Prambanan Temple Complex in Indonesia, where ASI began a conservation project in July 2026, is dedicated to whom?
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Correct answer: A — The Trimurti — Brahma, Vishnu and Shiva
Prambanan, built in the 9th century, is the largest temple complex in Indonesia dedicated to the Trimurti.
In which Indonesian region is the Prambanan Temple Complex, visited by PM Modi on 8 July 2026, located?
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Correct answer: D — Yogyakarta
PIB says PM Modi visited the Prambanan Temple Complex in Yogyakarta.
As of July 2026, the Unified Logistics Interface Platform (ULIP) integrates how many systems through how many APIs?
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Correct answer: D — 46 systems through 142 APIs
ULIP integrates 46 systems across 12 Central Ministries and Departments through 142 APIs.
NLDSL, which signed a ULIP MoU with Punjab in July 2026, is the logistics arm of which body?
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Correct answer: C — NICDC
NLDSL is NICDC Logistics Data Services Limited, the logistics arm of NICDC.
The Bhubaneswar Declaration adopted on 8 July 2026 relates to which subject?
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Correct answer: B — Strengthening Tribal Research Institutes
The declaration was adopted at the National Workshop on Strengthening Tribal Research Institutes in Bhubaneswar.
KIRTADS, one of seven Tribal Research Institutes given Certificates of Appreciation in July 2026, belongs to which state?
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Correct answer: C — Kerala
KIRTADS is the Kerala Institute for Research, Training & Development Studies of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
Which rule of the Drugs Rules, 1945 was amended to add Navi Mumbai Airport as a port for import of drugs?
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Correct answer: B — Rule 43A
The amendment to Rule 43A of the Drugs Rules, 1945 includes Navi Mumbai in the list of airports for drug imports.
After Navi Mumbai Airport was added in July 2026, how many ports of entry are notified for import of drugs into India?
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Correct answer: A — 42
The total number of ports of entry (road/rail/ship/air) for drug imports became 42.
According to UDISE+ 2025-26, how many school teachers were there in India?
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Correct answer: A — About 1.03 crore (1,02,73,020)
Teachers numbered 1,02,73,020 in 2025-26, up from 94,83,294 in 2022-23.
What was the dropout rate at the secondary level in 2025-26 as per UDISE+?
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Correct answer: B — 7.0%
Secondary dropout fell from 8.2% in 2024-25 to 7.0% in 2025-26; 3.6% is the middle level and 13.8% the 2022-23 secondary figure.
What was the Gross Enrolment Ratio at the secondary level in 2025-26 as per UDISE+?
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Correct answer: C — 71.7%
Secondary GER rose from 68.5% in 2024-25 to 71.7% in 2025-26; 89.6% is the middle-level GER and 51.9% the secondary retention rate.