KVS / NVS Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
On 3 June 2026, President Droupadi Murmu virtually inaugurated how many Space Labs in Eklavya Model Residential Schools?
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Correct answer: A — 75
The President virtually inaugurated 75 Space Labs in Eklavya Model Residential Schools.
The 'Training Fab' virtually inaugurated by the President on 3 June 2026 is located at:
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Correct answer: C — Centre for Nano Science and Engineering, IISc Bengaluru
The Training Fab is at the Centre for Nano Science and Engineering, Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru.
The scheme approved by the Cabinet on 3 June 2026 to replace old trucks and buses in Delhi-NCR has a total outlay of:
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Correct answer: A — ₹9,585 crore
The total outlay is ₹9,585 crore, including ₹5,041 crore from the Centre and about ₹1,601 crore in State tax concessions.
Under the Delhi-NCR vehicle replacement scheme approved in June 2026, trucks and buses complying with which emission norms are targeted for replacement?
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Correct answer: C — BS-IV or earlier
The scheme incentivises replacing trucks and buses that comply with BS-IV or earlier norms with BS-VI or stricter vehicles, or EVs.
Consider the following statements about the National Capital Region Planning Board (NCRPB), which funds the June 2026 vehicle replacement scheme: 1. It was constituted under an Act of Parliament of 1985, enacted with the concurrence of Haryana, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh. 2. The National Capital Region covers more districts of Uttar Pradesh than of Haryana. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct per NCRPB. Statement 2 is wrong: the NCR covers 14 districts of Haryana, 8 of Uttar Pradesh and 2 of Rajasthan besides the NCT of Delhi.
Telangana, which celebrated its Formation Day on 2 June 2026, was formed as a State on:
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Correct answer: A — 2 June 2014
The Centre notified 2 June 2014 as the appointed day under the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014, on which Telangana was formed.
Under which law was the State of Telangana formed?
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Correct answer: C — Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014
Section 3 of the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014 provides for the formation of Telangana on and from the appointed day.
Consider the following statements about the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014: 1. The appointed day of 2 June 2014 was notified by the Centre through notification S.O. 655(E) dated 4 March 2014. 2. Section 5 of the Act made Hyderabad the common capital of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh for a period not exceeding fifteen years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct per India Code. Statement 2 is wrong: Section 5 set the common-capital period at not more than ten years.
Where did Chief Minister A. Revanth Reddy unfurl the national flag at the main Telangana Formation Day celebrations on 2 June 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Parade Grounds, Secunderabad
The CM unfurled the national flag at Parade Grounds, Secunderabad.
On Telangana Formation Day 2026, CM Revanth Reddy paid tributes at the Telangana Martyrs Memorial located at:
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Correct answer: C — Gun Park, Hyderabad
The CM paid floral tributes at the Telangana Martyrs Memorial in Gun Park, Hyderabad.
Which Union Territory signed a reform-linked MoU under Jal Jeevan Mission 2.0 on 2 June 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Puducherry
The MoUs were signed with four States and one UT – Puducherry.
Which of the following States was NOT among those that signed reform-linked MoUs under JJM 2.0 on 2 June 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Kerala
The four States were Arunachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Tamil Nadu and Nagaland; Kerala was not among them.
The reform-linked MoUs under Jal Jeevan Mission 2.0 signed in June 2026 mandate which model of rural water governance?
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Correct answer: B — Gram Panchayat-led, service-based and community-centred model
The MoUs mandate a Gram Panchayat-led, service-based and community-centred model of rural water governance.
Justice Meenakshi Madan Rai was appointed in June 2026 as Chief Justice of which High Court?
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Correct answer: D — Patna High Court
The President appointed her Chief Justice of the Patna High Court with effect from 5 June 2026.
Before her appointment as Chief Justice of the Patna High Court in June 2026, Justice Meenakshi Madan Rai was a Judge of which High Court?
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Correct answer: A — Sikkim High Court
She was a Judge of the Sikkim High Court.
Under Article 217(1) of the Constitution, which governs appointments such as the Patna High Court Chief Justice in June 2026, a permanent Judge of a High Court holds office until the age of:
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Correct answer: C — 62 years
Article 217(1) says a High Court Judge (other than an additional or acting Judge) holds office until he attains sixty-two years; Supreme Court Judges serve till 65 under Article 124.
Which DRDO laboratory was the nodal laboratory for developing the RudraM-II missile flight-tested in June 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Research Centre Imarat, Hyderabad
RudraM-II was indigenously developed by Research Centre Imarat, Hyderabad, as the nodal DRDO laboratory.
Flight data confirming the RudraM-II test objectives in June 2026 was captured by range instruments of the Integrated Test Range located at:
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Correct answer: B — Chandipur
All test objectives were confirmed by flight data from range instruments deployed by ITR, Chandipur.
Consider the following statements about the RudraM-II tests of June 2026: 1. RudraM-II is an air-to-surface missile and was tested from an airborne platform. 2. The Defence Research and Development Laboratory (DRDL) was the nodal DRDO laboratory for its development. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: Research Centre Imarat (RCI), Hyderabad, was the nodal laboratory; DRDL was one of the sister labs.
As noted by President Murmu on 2 June 2026, South Africa was the first country with which India established a Strategic Partnership. In which year?
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Correct answer: B — 1997
The President said South Africa was the very first country with which India established a Strategic Partnership in 1997.
Who is the Deputy President of South Africa who called on President Droupadi Murmu on 2 June 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Shipokosa Paulus Mashatile
Shipokosa Paulus Mashatile, Deputy President of South Africa, called on the President on his first visit to India.
According to President Murmu (June 2026), bilateral trade between India and South Africa is about:
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Correct answer: A — USD 15.5 billion
The President noted that India–South Africa bilateral trade is about USD 15.5 billion.
Mission 'Senehjori', launched by the Ministry of DoNER on 2 June 2026, aims to develop which product into a global luxury brand?
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Correct answer: B — Assam's Muga silk
Mission Senehjori – Assam Muga Silk USP aims to turn Assam's Muga silk into a globally competitive luxury textile ecosystem.
According to the DoNER Ministry (June 2026), Assam accounts for about what share of the world's Muga silk production?
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Correct answer: D — 90%
Scindia said Assam accounts for 90 per cent of the world's Muga silk production.
Consider the following statements about Mission Senehjori and Muga silk: 1. Muga is described as India's first GI-tagged silk. 2. The Mission has an estimated investment of ₹396–411 crore over three years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both are in the MDoNER release: Muga is India's first GI-tagged silk, and the Mission's estimated investment is ₹396–411 crore over three years, including ₹136–151 crore from MDoNER.
Union Health Minister J. P. Nadda addressed the 2nd Convocation of which AIIMS on 2 June 2026?
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Correct answer: D — AIIMS Bathinda
Nadda addressed the 2nd Convocation Ceremony of AIIMS Bathinda in Punjab.
Along with a PET-CT facility, which facility did J. P. Nadda inaugurate at AIIMS Bathinda on 2 June 2026 to enhance cancer care?
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Correct answer: A — A second HELA facility
Nadda inaugurated a state-of-the-art PET-CT facility and a second HELA facility to enhance cancer care.
The India–Oman CEPA, which entered into force on 1 June 2026, was signed on 18 December 2025 in:
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Correct answer: A — Muscat
The CEPA was signed in Muscat on 18 December 2025 in the presence of PM Modi and Sultan Haitham bin Tarik.
Under the India–Oman CEPA, what share of India's exports to Oman gets zero-duty access?
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Correct answer: C — 99.38%
The Commerce Ministry release says the CEPA offers zero-duty access for 99.38% of India's exports to Oman.
Consider the following statements about the India–Oman CEPA: 1. India is the first country to secure a comprehensive bilateral trade pact with Oman. 2. India has excluded dairy and edible oils from market access under the Agreement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: India is the second nation after the United States. Statement 2 is correct: dairy and edible oils are among the sensitive sectors excluded.
Under the India–Oman CEPA, Oman raised the ceiling for intra-corporate transferees (ICT) from 20% to:
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Correct answer: B — 50%
The release says the ICT ceiling was raised from 20% to 50%.
The notifications of 1 June 2026 appointing five Supreme Court judges were issued under which provision of the Constitution?
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Correct answer: B — Article 124(2)
The Law Ministry notifications cite clause (2) of Article 124, under which the President appoints Supreme Court judges.
Who among the following was appointed a Supreme Court judge on 1 June 2026 directly from the Bar as a senior advocate?
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Correct answer: D — Venkita Subramani Mohana
Venkita Subramani Mohana was a senior advocate; the other four appointees were High Court Chief Justices.
Justice Sheel Nagu, appointed a Supreme Court judge on 1 June 2026, was until then the Chief Justice of which High Court?
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Correct answer: A — Punjab and Haryana
Justice Sheel Nagu was Chief Justice of the High Court of Punjab and Haryana.
Consider the following statements: 1. Justice Shree Chandrashekhar was the Chief Justice of the Bombay High Court before his appointment to the Supreme Court on 1 June 2026. 2. On 5 May 2026, the Union Cabinet approved a Bill to raise the number of Supreme Court judges from 33 to 37, excluding the Chief Justice of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the Law Ministry release names him as Chief Justice of the Bombay High Court, and the Cabinet release of 5 May 2026 gives the 33-to-37 increase excluding the CJI.
Myanmar President U Min Aung Hlaing began his first official visit to India (30 May–3 June 2026) at:
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Correct answer: C — Bodh Gaya
The joint statement says the President visited Bodh Gaya on 30 May 2026 and prayed at the Mahabodhi Temple.
India announced during the Myanmar President's visit that Mekong Ganga ICCR scholarships for Myanmar students would be raised from 36 to:
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Correct answer: A — 100
The joint statement says the scholarships will be enhanced from 36 to 100 from 2026 onwards.
Consider the following statements about the India–Myanmar joint statement of 1 June 2026: 1. The Prime Minister said Myanmar lies at the confluence of India's Neighbourhood First, Act East and MAHASAGAR policies. 2. Both sides agreed to enhance bilateral trade, including through the Rupee-Kyat settlement mechanism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — Both 1 and 2
Both statements appear in the joint statement.
In India's MAHASAGAR policy, cited in the India–Myanmar joint statement of 1 June 2026, MAHASAGAR stands for:
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Correct answer: D — Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions
The joint statement expands MAHASAGAR as Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions.
As per the first release of the new IIP series on 1 June 2026, industrial growth in April 2026 was:
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Correct answer: D — 4.9%
MoSPI's quick estimate puts IIP growth for April 2026 at 4.9%.
The new series of the Index of Industrial Production released on 1 June 2026 uses which base year?
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Correct answer: B — 2022-23
MoSPI revised the IIP base year from 2011-12 to 2022-23.
Consider the following statements about IIP for April 2026 (new series): 1. Mining and Quarrying contracted by 5.1%. 2. Manufacturing grew by 4.9%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: manufacturing grew 6.2%; 4.9% was the headline IIP growth and the growth of electricity and gas supply.
What is the outlay of the ANRF–Ministry of Jal Shakti MAHA Water Mission launched on 1 June 2026?
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Correct answer: C — ₹200 crore
Dr Jitendra Singh launched the ₹200-crore MAHA Water Mission.
The MAHA Water Mission launched by ANRF on 1 June 2026 is mainly meant to support:
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Correct answer: D — Startups in the water sector
The Mission supports startups with technology development, field validation and deployment for water challenges.
Telangana's revised minimum wages that took effect on 1 June 2026 were notified under which law?
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Correct answer: C — Code on Wages, 2019
GO No. 6 activates the provisions of the Code on Wages, 2019, which has replaced the Minimum Wages Act, 1948.
Under Telangana's revised minimum wages effective 1 June 2026, the minimum monthly wage for highly skilled workers in Zone 1 is:
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Correct answer: A — ₹20,000
Both BusinessLine (PTI) and ETV Bharat report ₹20,000 a month for highly skilled workers in Zone 1.
Which of the following laws were subsumed in the Code on Wages, 2019? 1. Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 2. Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 3. Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 Select the correct answer:
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
The Code on Wages, 2019 amalgamates the Payment of Wages Act 1936, Minimum Wages Act 1948, Payment of Bonus Act 1965 and Equal Remuneration Act 1976. The Industrial Disputes Act is not among them.
The second India–Australia Defence Ministers' Dialogue on 1 June 2026 was co-chaired by Rajnath Singh and:
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Correct answer: C — Richard Marles
Australian Deputy Prime Minister and Defence Minister Richard Marles co-chaired the dialogue.
As co-leads of the IORA Working Group on Maritime Safety and Security, India and Australia planned a Search and Rescue and tabletop exercise in June 2026 at the Maritime Rescue Coordination Centre in:
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Correct answer: B — Chennai
The Defence Ministry release names MRCC Chennai.
The Mountain Tunnel-07 (MT-07) of the Mumbai–Ahmedabad Bullet Train Project, whose breakthrough was achieved on 1 June 2026, is in which district?
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Correct answer: B — Palghar
MT-07 is at Ambesari village in Dahanu taluka of Palghar district, Maharashtra.
Consider the following statements about the Mumbai–Ahmedabad Bullet Train Project: 1. Of its eight mountain tunnels, seven are in Palghar district and one is in Valsad district. 2. MT-07 was the first mountain tunnel breakthrough achieved in Maharashtra. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct per NHSRCL. Statement 2 is wrong: the first breakthrough in Maharashtra was MT-05 on 2 January 2026; MT-07 was the third.
Vice Admiral Vineet McCarty assumed charge on 1 June 2026 as the 20th Commander-in-Chief of:
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Correct answer: A — Andaman & Nicobar Command
The Defence Ministry release says he took over as the 20th Commander-in-Chief, Andaman & Nicobar Command.
The Andaman & Nicobar Command, whose new Commander-in-Chief took charge at Sri Vijaya Puram on 1 June 2026, is described by the Defence Ministry as India's only:
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Correct answer: D — Tri-Service Operational Command
The release calls ANC India's only Tri-Service Operational Command.
Who assumed charge as the 27th Chief of the Naval Staff of the Indian Navy on 31 May 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Admiral Krishna Swaminathan
Admiral Krishna Swaminathan assumed charge as the 27th Chief of the Naval Staff on 31 May 2026.
Admiral Krishna Swaminathan, who became Navy Chief in May 2026, is a specialist in which field?
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Correct answer: B — Communication and Electronic Warfare
PIB describes him as a Communication and Electronic Warfare specialist.
Before taking over as Chief of the Naval Staff in May 2026, Admiral Krishna Swaminathan was Flag Officer Commanding-in-Chief of which command?
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Correct answer: D — Western Naval Command
Prior to assuming charge as CNS, he was the Flag Officer Commanding-in-Chief of the Western Naval Command.
Consider the following statements about Admiral Krishna Swaminathan: 1. He succeeded Admiral Dinesh Kumar Tripathi as Chief of the Naval Staff. 2. He was commissioned into the Indian Navy in 1985. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
He succeeded Admiral Dinesh Kumar Tripathi; he was commissioned on 1 July 1987, not in 1985.
On 31 May 2026, who assumed charge as the third Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) of India?
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Correct answer: B — General NS Raja Subramani
General NS Raja Subramani assumed charge as the third CDS and Secretary, Department of Military Affairs, on 31 May 2026.
General NS Raja Subramani, who became CDS in May 2026, was commissioned in December 1985 into which regiment?
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Correct answer: A — Garhwal Rifles
He was commissioned into the Garhwal Rifles in December 1985.
Immediately before becoming CDS in May 2026, General NS Raja Subramani held which post?
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Correct answer: D — Military Adviser, National Security Council Secretariat
Prior to assuming the appointment of CDS, he served as Military Adviser at the National Security Council Secretariat.
Consider the following statements about the Chief of Defence Staff who took charge on 31 May 2026: 1. He also holds the post of Secretary, Department of Military Affairs. 2. He has served as General Officer Commanding-in-Chief, Central Command. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
General NS Raja Subramani took charge as CDS and Secretary, Department of Military Affairs; his earlier posts include GOC-in-C, Central Command.
PM SVANidhi, which completed six years in 2026, is a micro-credit scheme of which Union Ministry?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs
PM SVANidhi is the flagship micro-credit scheme of the Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs (MoHUA).
According to the Union Minister in May 2026, how many street vendors have benefited under PM SVANidhi in six years?
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Correct answer: B — More than 75.5 lakh
Over the last six years, more than 75.5 lakh street vendors have benefited; 1.05 crore is the number of loan sanctions.
In which city was the sixth anniversary of PM SVANidhi marked by Union Minister Manohar Lal on 31 May 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Agartala
The occasion was marked in Agartala with Tripura CM Manik Saha and beneficiaries from five north-eastern states.
Which team won the IPL 2026 final played on 31 May 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Royal Challengers Bengaluru
Royal Challengers Bengaluru beat Gujarat Titans by five wickets in the final to retain the IPL title.
The IPL 2026 final was played at which stadium?
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Correct answer: D — Narendra Modi Stadium, Ahmedabad
The final was played at the Narendra Modi Stadium, Ahmedabad, on 31 May 2026.
Consider the following statements about the IPL 2026 final: 1. Royal Challengers Bengaluru won the title for the second consecutive year. 2. Virat Kohli scored an unbeaten 75 in the final. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
RCB retained the title they first won in 2025, and Kohli made 75 not out off 42 balls.
Which veteran Hindi film playback singer, known for 'Na Tum Humein Jaano', passed away in Mumbai on 31 May 2026 at the age of 89?
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Correct answer: B — Suman Kalyanpur
Suman Kalyanpur died at her Mumbai residence on 31 May 2026; she was 89.
Consider the following statements about singer Suman Kalyanpur: 1. She died at the age of 89 in Mumbai. 2. Her funeral was held with full State honours ordered by the Maharashtra government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
She died in Mumbai aged 89, and the Maharashtra government ordered full State honours for her funeral.
In May 2026, the holy relics of which two chief disciples of Lord Buddha were enshrined in Mongolia for an exposition?
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Correct answer: C — Sariputra and Mahamoggallana
The relics of Arhat Sariputra and Arhat Mahamoggallana were enshrined at Gandantegchenling Monastery, Ulaanbaatar.
The Buddhist relics sent to Mongolia in May 2026 are preserved in India in the stupas of which site?
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Correct answer: D — Sanchi
The relics of Sariputra and Mahamoggallana have been preserved for centuries in the sacred stupas of Sanchi.
In which monastery of Ulaanbaatar were the relics of Lord Buddha's chief disciples enshrined on Buddha Purnima 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Gandantegchenling Monastery
The relics were enshrined at the Gandantegchenling Monastery in Ulaanbaatar for an exposition from 31 May to 10 June 2026.
The national 'Khet Bachao Abhiyan' was to begin on 1 June 2026 from Ramsiya village in which district of Madhya Pradesh?
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Correct answer: D — Raisen
The campaign was to commence on 1 June 2026 from Ramsiya village in Raisen district, Madhya Pradesh.
Consider the following statements about the 'Khet Bachao Abhiyan' (2026): 1. Its roadmap includes balanced fertiliser use, natural farming and action against fake fertilisers and seeds. 2. It is being led by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The campaign is led by Union Agriculture Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan (Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare); its roadmap covers balanced fertiliser use, natural farming and action against fake inputs.
The enumeration phase of SIR Phase III of electoral rolls began on 30 May 2026 in which group of States?
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Correct answer: B — Odisha, Mizoram, Sikkim, Manipur
As per the ECI order of 14 May 2026, the enumeration phase began on 30 May 2026 in Odisha, Mizoram, Sikkim and Manipur.
The Election Commission ordered the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) in May 2026 under which Article of the Constitution?
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Correct answer: A — Article 324
The ECI ordered SIR in exercise of its powers under Article 324 and Section 21 of the RP Act, 1950.
Consider the following statements about SIR Phase III (May 2026): 1. The ECI ordered SIR in 16 States and 3 Union Territories on 14 May 2026. 2. Booth Level Agents of recognised parties may collect up to 50 forms per day from the public. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
SIR was ordered in 16 States and 3 UTs on 14 May 2026, and BLAs are allowed to collect up to 50 forms per day.
What was the WHO theme of World No Tobacco Day 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Unmasking the appeal – countering nicotine and tobacco addiction
WHO announced 'Unmasking the appeal – countering nicotine and tobacco addiction' as the 2026 theme.
World No Tobacco Day is observed every year on which date?
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Correct answer: B — 31 May
WHO and partners observe World No Tobacco Day every year on 31 May.
The maiden edition of the multilateral Army exercise PRAGATI 2026 was held at which military station?
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Correct answer: A — Umroi, Meghalaya
Exercise PRAGATI 2026 was conducted at Umroi Military Station, Meghalaya.
In the name of the multilateral exercise PRAGATI (2026), what does the term stand for?
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Correct answer: D — Partnership of Regional Armies for Growth and Transformation in the Indian Ocean Region
PRAGATI stands for Partnership of Regional Armies for Growth and Transformation in the Indian Ocean Region.
Which one of the following countries did NOT send troops to Exercise PRAGATI 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Bangladesh
Participants were India, Bhutan, Cambodia, Malaysia, Maldives, Myanmar, Nepal, Philippines, Seychelles, Sri Lanka, Vietnam, Indonesia and Laos; Bangladesh is not in the list.
Consider the following statements about Exercise PRAGATI 2026: 1. It was the maiden edition of the exercise. 2. It focused on counter-terrorism operations in desert terrain. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PRAGATI 2026 was the maiden edition; its focus was counter-terrorism in semi-mountainous and jungle terrain, not desert terrain.
How much did the National Biodiversity Authority realise through the Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS) mechanism in FY 2025–26?
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Correct answer: C — ₹21.26 crore
NBA realised ₹21.26 crore under ABS in 2025–26; ₹11.75 crore was the seed sector's share.
Which sector was the largest contributor to the National Biodiversity Authority's ABS receipts in FY 2025–26?
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Correct answer: B — Seed
The seed sector was the largest contributor with ₹11.75 crore, followed by AYUSH with ₹5.56 crore.
In May 2026, Digi Yatra crossed 10 crore uses across how many airports?
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Correct answer: C — 38
The Digi Yatra app crossed 10 crore usage across 38 airports.
According to the Civil Aviation Ministry (May 2026), Digi Yatra has reduced average airport entry processing time per passenger to:
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Correct answer: B — 5 seconds
Average entry processing time fell from 15 seconds to 5 seconds per passenger.