KPSC (Karnataka) Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
As per the government's reply of August 2025, how many infrastructure projects have been evaluated through the Network Planning Group mechanism under PM GatiShakti?
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Correct answer: C — 293
So far, 293 infrastructure projects amounting to ₹13.59 lakh crore have been evaluated through the NPG mechanism.
Consider the following statements about the PM GatiShakti National Master Plan, as stated in August 2025: 1. It has a specific and separate fund allocation in the Union Budget. 2. 36 States/UTs have been onboarded on the platform. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the PM GatiShakti National Master Plan has no specific or separate fund allocation. Statement 2 is correct: 36 States/UTs have been onboarded on PMGS NMP.
A JNCASR study reported in August 2025 identified which microRNA–protein axis as regulating neuroinflammation and ferroptosis in Alzheimer's disease?
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Correct answer: C — miR-7a–Klf4
The researchers found a significant increase in miR-7a, which targets Klf4; the miR-7a–Klf4 axis regulates neuroinflammation and ferroptosis.
Which Indian Navy ships concluded a port call at Manila and exercised with the Philippine Navy in early August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — INS Delhi, INS Shakti and INS Kiltan
INS Delhi, INS Shakti and INS Kiltan of the Eastern Fleet concluded the Manila port call and held a bilateral maritime exercise with Philippine Navy ships on 3–4 August 2025.
The first comprehensive venom profile of the black scorpion Heterometrus bengalensis, reported in August 2025, was prepared by scientists of an institute located in which city?
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Correct answer: D — Guwahati
The study was conducted by the Institute of Advanced Study in Science and Technology (IASST), Guwahati, an autonomous institute of DST.
By what margin did India beat England in the fifth Test at The Oval on 4 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 6 runs
India won by 6 runs, its closest Test victory by runs, to draw the series 2-2.
What was the final result of the 2025 England–India Test series for the Anderson-Tendulkar Trophy?
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Correct answer: A — Series drawn 2-2
Series drawn 2-2: India's six-run win at The Oval levelled the five-match series.
Consider the following statements about the Oval Test of August 2025: 1. It was India's first-ever Test victory at The Oval. 2. Shubman Gill's 754 runs are the most by any batter in a Test series between England and India. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: it was India's third Test win at The Oval, after 1971 and 2021. Statement 2 is correct: no batter has scored more runs in an England–India series than Gill's 754, which passed Graham Gooch's 752 from 1990.
Who took five wickets in England's second innings and was Player of the Match in India's six-run win at The Oval in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Mohammed Siraj
Mohammed Siraj took 5 for 104, bowling Gus Atkinson with a yorker to seal the win, and was named Player of the Match.
Pariksha Pe Charcha 2025 earned a Guinness World Record for how many valid registrations received in one month?
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Correct answer: B — 3.53 crore
The record recognises 3.53 crore valid registrations received for the 8th edition on the MyGov platform.
Consider the following statements about the Guinness World Record conferred on Pariksha Pe Charcha in August 2025: 1. Pariksha Pe Charcha has been organised by the Ministry of Education in collaboration with MyGov since 2018. 2. The record was for the largest live television audience for an educational programme. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: PPC has been organised by the Ministry of Education with MyGov since 2018. Statement 2 is incorrect: the record was for the most people registered on a Citizen Engagement Platform in one month.
The Guinness World Record conferred on Pariksha Pe Charcha in August 2025 recognised registrations for which edition of the programme?
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Correct answer: D — 8th
8th edition (PPC 2025), with 3.53 crore valid registrations on MyGov.
Under the revised ComSec fee structure effective 1 August 2025, what is the security test evaluation fee for Group A telecom equipment?
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Correct answer: A — ₹10,000
Fees for Group A equipment dropped to ₹10,000 from ₹2,00,000 under the revised ComSec structure.
Consider the following statements about the DoT's ComSec changes announced in August 2025: 1. Optical Line Terminals and Optical Networking Terminals are under mandatory security testing. 2. Government R&D institutes such as C-DOT and CDAC are fully exempted from security test evaluation fees for applications until 31 March 2028. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: Optical Line Terminals and Optical Networking Terminals are subject to voluntary security certification. Statement 2 is correct: C-DOT, CDAC and other government R&D institutes are fully exempted for applications until 31 March 2028.
By up to what percentage did the Department of Telecommunications cut security test evaluation fees under the ComSec scheme, as announced on 4 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 95%
95%; fees that earlier ranged from ₹2,00,000 to ₹3,50,000 now range from ₹10,000 to ₹50,000.
The India Electric Mobility Index launched by NITI Aayog in August 2025 scores States/UTs out of 100 across how many indicators?
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Correct answer: C — 16
The IEMI scores all States and UTs out of 100 across 16 indicators under three core themes.
According to NITI Aayog's August 2025 EV report, India seeks to attain what share of electric vehicles in total vehicles sold by 2030?
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Correct answer: D — 30%
The report states that India seeks to attain a 30% share of electric vehicles in total vehicles sold by 2030.
Consider the following statements about NITI Aayog's EV releases of August 2025: 1. Charging Infrastructure Readiness is one of the three themes of the India Electric Mobility Index. 2. EV sales in India rose from 50,000 in 2016 to 2.08 million in 2024. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. Charging Infrastructure Readiness is one of the IEMI's three themes, and the report notes EV sales rose from 50,000 in 2016 to 2.08 million in 2024.
In which category did Sitender win gold at the U17 World Wrestling Championships 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Men's freestyle 60 kg
Men's freestyle 60 kg; he beat Japan's Rihito Hiura 9-4 in the final.
The U17 World Wrestling Championships 2025, which concluded on 3 August 2025, were held in which city?
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Correct answer: D — Athens
Athens, Greece, at the Ano Liosia Olympic Hall, the wrestling venue of the 2004 Olympics.
Consider the following statements about India's performance at the U17 World Wrestling Championships 2025: 1. India won nine medals, including four gold. 2. India defended its women's freestyle team title. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. India's tally was four gold, four silver and one bronze.
Which instalment of PM-KISAN did Prime Minister Narendra Modi release from Varanasi on 2 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 20th
The Prime Minister released the 20th instalment of PM-KISAN, transferring more than ₹20,500 crore to over 9.7 crore farmers.
Approximately how much money was transferred to farmers with the PM-KISAN instalment released on 2 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — More than ₹20,500 crore
More than ₹20,500 crore was transferred to over 9.7 crore farmers with the 20th instalment.
From which city did the Prime Minister release the 20th instalment of PM-KISAN in August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Varanasi
The 20th instalment was released by the Prime Minister in Varanasi, where he also launched development works worth about ₹2,200 crore.
Consider the following statements about PM-KISAN, as reported in August 2025: 1. The scheme was launched on 24 February 2019. 2. Over ₹3,77,000 crore has so far been transferred directly to farmers' accounts under the scheme. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. PM-KISAN was launched on 24 February 2019, and the Agriculture Minister said over ₹3,77,000 crore has been transferred directly to farmers so far.
According to the Health Ministry at the 15th Indian Organ Donation Day (August 2025), how many organ transplants did India perform in 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Over 18,900
India performed over 18,900 organ transplants in 2024, the highest ever recorded in a single year.
Consider the following statements made at the 15th Indian Organ Donation Day (August 2025): 1. India ranks second globally in the total number of organ transplants. 2. More than 3.30 lakh citizens have pledged their organs since the Aadhaar-based NOTTO online pledge website was launched in 2023. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: India ranks third globally, behind the United States and China. Statement 2 is correct: more than 3.30 lakh citizens have pledged their organs since the Aadhaar-based pledge website was launched in 2023.
Which body organised the 15th Indian Organ Donation Day in New Delhi on 2 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organization (NOTTO)
National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organization (NOTTO), under the Directorate General of Health Services.
After the Election Commission's decision of 2 August 2025, what is the annual remuneration of a Booth Level Officer (BLO)?
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Correct answer: C — ₹12,000
The Commission doubled the annual remuneration of BLOs from ₹6,000 to ₹12,000.
Consider the following statements about the Election Commission's remuneration decision of August 2025: 1. Electoral Registration Officers and Assistant Electoral Registration Officers were given an honorarium for the first time. 2. The previous revision of BLO remuneration was done in 2019. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: honorariums of ₹30,000 for EROs and ₹25,000 for AEROs were provided for the first time. Statement 2 is incorrect: the last such revision was done in 2015.
What honorarium did the Election Commission provide for Electoral Registration Officers (EROs) in August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹30,000
EROs were given an honorarium of ₹30,000, and AEROs ₹25,000, for the first time.
Pingali Venkayya, to whom the Prime Minister paid tribute on his birth anniversary on 2 August, is remembered for which of the following?
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Correct answer: C — His role in giving India the Tricolour
His role in giving India the Tricolour: the Prime Minister recalled this while urging citizens to join the Har Ghar Tiranga movement.
The definitive list of Category A 'Ayurveda Aahara' products released by FSSAI in August 2025 follows regulations introduced in which year?
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Correct answer: B — 2022
The list follows the Food Safety and Standards (Ayurveda Aahara) Regulations introduced in 2022.
On which date is the poll, if necessary, for the 17th Vice-Presidential Election scheduled, as announced on 1 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 9 September 2025
The poll, if necessary, and the counting are both scheduled for 9 September 2025 at Parliament House.
According to the Election Commission, what is the total strength of the Electoral College for the 2025 Vice-Presidential Election?
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Correct answer: B — 788
The Electoral College comprises a total of 788 members of both Houses of Parliament: 233 elected and 12 nominated Rajya Sabha members and 543 elected Lok Sabha members.
Consider the following statements about the 2025 Vice-Presidential Election: 1. The security deposit for a candidate is ₹15,000. 2. A nomination paper must be subscribed by at least 20 electors as proposers and at least 20 other electors as seconders. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The security deposit is ₹15,000, and each nomination needs at least 20 proposers and 20 seconders from among the electors.
Who has been appointed Returning Officer for the 2025 Vice-Presidential Election?
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Correct answer: D — Secretary General, Rajya Sabha
The Election Commission, in consultation with the Central Government, appointed the Secretary General, Rajya Sabha as the Returning Officer.
Which film won the Best Feature Film award at the 71st National Film Awards announced on 1 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 12th Fail
12th Fail won the Best Feature Film award at the 71st National Film Awards for the year 2023.
Who won the Best Actress award at the 71st National Film Awards?
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Correct answer: A — Rani Mukerji
Rani Mukerji won Best Actress for Mrs. Chatterjee Vs Norway; it is her first National Film Award.
Consider the following statements about the 71st National Film Awards: 1. Shah Rukh Khan and Vikrant Massey shared the Best Actor award. 2. The Feature Film Jury was chaired by P. Sheshadri. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: Shah Rukh Khan (Jawan) and Vikrant Massey (12th Fail) shared Best Actor. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Feature Film Jury was chaired by Ashutosh Gowariker; P. Sheshadri chaired the Non-Feature Film Jury.
Which film was adjudged Best Film in AVGC (Animation, Visual Effects, Gaming and Comic) at the 71st National Film Awards?
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Correct answer: D — Hanu-Man
Hanu-Man was adjudged Best Film in AVGC (Animation, Visual Effects, Gaming and Comic) at the 71st National Film Awards.
What were India's gross GST collections for July 2025, as per data released on 1 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — About ₹1.96 lakh crore
Gross GST collections for July 2025 were ₹1,95,735 crore, about ₹1.96 lakh crore.
By what percentage did gross GST collections in July 2025 grow over July 2024?
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Correct answer: C — 7.5%
Gross GST collections grew 7.5%, from ₹1,82,075 crore in July 2024 to ₹1,95,735 crore in July 2025.
Consider the following statements about GST data for July 2025: 1. Refunds rose 66.8% to ₹27,147 crore. 2. Net GST revenue grew by more than 10% over July 2024. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: refunds rose 66.8% to ₹27,147 crore. Statement 2 is incorrect: because of the surge in refunds, net GST revenue was ₹1,68,588 crore, up only 1.7%.
What was the gross GST revenue from imports in July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹52,712 crore
Gross import revenue in July 2025 was ₹52,712 crore, up 9.7% from a year earlier.
Who assumed charge as Director General of the Railway Protection Force on 1 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Sonali Mishra
Sonali Mishra, a 1993-batch IPS officer of the Madhya Pradesh cadre, assumed charge as Director General of the RPF.
What is the motto of the Railway Protection Force, cited when its new Director General took charge in August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Yasho Labhasva
On assuming charge, the new DG reaffirmed the values of vigilance, courage and service that define the RPF's motto “Yasho Labhasva”.
Which of the following was NOT among the Centres of Excellence recognised under the National Critical Mineral Mission in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — IIT Madras
IIT Madras is not in the list. The four recognised IITs are those at Bombay, Hyderabad, Roorkee and the ISM campus in Dhanbad, along with CSIR-IMMT, CSIR-NML and NFTDC.
On which model will each Centre of Excellence under the National Critical Mineral Mission operate as a consortium?
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Correct answer: A — Hub & Spoke model
Each CoE will operate as a consortium on a Hub & Spoke model, with the hub institute bringing in industry and R&D or academic partners.
At how many identified stations did the Railways announce permanent holding areas and complete access control in August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 73
Permanent waiting areas and complete access control will be introduced at 73 identified stations that periodically face heavy crowds.
Consider the following statements about the Railways' crowd-management plan announced on 1 August 2025: 1. Only passengers with confirmed reserved tickets will get direct access to platforms at the identified stations. 2. Pilot projects for holding areas have started at stations including New Delhi, Varanasi and Ayodhya. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. Confirmed reserved ticket holders get direct platform access, and pilots are under way at New Delhi, Anand Vihar, Varanasi, Ayodhya and Ghaziabad.
How many coal blocks were successfully auctioned in the 12th round of commercial coal auctions, as announced on 1 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Seven
Seven coal blocks were successfully auctioned in the forward auctions held from 28 to 31 July 2025.
Consider the following statements about the 12th round of commercial coal auctions: 1. The auctioned blocks are located in Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh. 2. Since commercial coal mining began in 2020, a total of 131 coal blocks have been auctioned. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The seven blocks lie in Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh, and 131 coal blocks with 277.31 MTPA capacity have been auctioned since 2020.
What was the HSBC India Manufacturing PMI for July 2025, released on 1 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 59.1
The HSBC India Manufacturing PMI stood at 59.1 in July 2025, a 16-month high.
Consider the following statements about India's manufacturing PMI for July 2025: 1. It signalled the strongest improvement in the sector since March 2024. 2. Business confidence rose to its highest level in three years. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the July reading was the strongest improvement since March 2024. Statement 2 is incorrect: business confidence fell to its lowest level in three years.
Which institute's study, highlighted in August 2025, found toxic metals in clouds over the Eastern Himalayas and Western Ghats?
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Correct answer: D — Bose Institute
The study was carried out by Bose Institute, an autonomous institute of DST, with observations over Darjeeling and Mahabaleshwar.
What is the price of BSNL's 'Freedom Plan' launched on 1 August 2025, which offers one month of 4G services?
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Correct answer: A — ₹1
The Freedom Plan is a limited-period ₹1 offer giving one month of BSNL 4G services with unlimited calls, 2 GB data per day, 100 SMS per day and a free SIM.
The Bharat National Cybersecurity Exercise 2025 was organised by the National Security Council Secretariat jointly with which institution?
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Correct answer: B — Rashtriya Raksha University
The exercise was organised jointly by the National Security Council Secretariat and Rashtriya Raksha University, with over 600 participants.
Vice Admiral Sanjay Vatsayan assumed charge on 1 August 2025 as the Navy's
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Correct answer: C — 47th Vice Chief of the Naval Staff
Vice Admiral Sanjay Vatsayan assumed charge as the 47th Vice Chief of the Naval Staff on 1 August 2025.
What total outlay did the Union Cabinet approve on 31 July 2025 for the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana for 2021-22 to 2025-26?
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Correct answer: C — ₹6,520 crore
The Cabinet approved a total outlay of ₹6,520 crore, including an additional ₹1,920 crore.
How many multi-product food irradiation units are to be supported under PMKSY as per the Cabinet decision of 31 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 50
₹1,000 crore will support 50 multi-product food irradiation units and 100 NABL-accredited food testing labs.
Consider the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana (PMKSY): 1. The food irradiation units will be supported under its Integrated Cold Chain and Value Addition Infrastructure (ICCVAI) component. 2. The NABL-accredited food testing labs will be supported under its Food Safety and Quality Assurance Infrastructure (FSQAI) component. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Cabinet release; both components are demand-driven.
What reciprocal tariff rate did the US executive order of 31 July 2025 set for India?
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Correct answer: A — 25%
Annex I of Executive Order 14326 lists India at 25%.
From which date did the 25% US reciprocal tariff on Indian goods under the executive order of 31 July 2025 take effect?
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Correct answer: D — 7 August 2025
The order applies from 12:01 a.m. EDT seven days after 31 July 2025, i.e. 7 August 2025; Business Standard reported it took effect on 7 August.
Consider the following statements about Annex I of US Executive Order 14326 (31 July 2025): 1. Bangladesh is listed at 20%. 2. Japan is listed at 15%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per Annex I of the order.
As per Article 66(1), cited by the ECI on 31 July 2025, the Electoral College for the Vice-Presidential election consists of:
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Correct answer: A — Elected and nominated members of the Rajya Sabha and elected members of the Lok Sabha
The ECI release quotes Article 66(1): elected members of the Rajya Sabha, nominated members of the Rajya Sabha and elected members of the Lok Sabha.
Under which Article of the Constitution is the Election Commission mandated to conduct the election to the office of Vice-President, as stated by the ECI on 31 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Article 324
The ECI release says it is mandated under Article 324 to conduct the Vice-Presidential election.
Consider the following statements about the Vice-Presidential election: 1. Rule 40 of the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Rules, 1974 requires the ECI to prepare and maintain an updated list of members of the Electoral College. 2. Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha are excluded from the Electoral College. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: Article 66(1) includes nominated members of the Rajya Sabha.
The four railway multitracking projects approved by the CCEA on 31 July 2025 will increase the Indian Railways network by about:
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Correct answer: D — 574 km
The projects will add about 574 km to the existing network.
Which of the following was NOT among the four railway projects approved by the CCEA on 31 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Wardha–Ballarshah 4th line
The four projects were Itarsi–Nagpur 4th line, Aurangabad–Parbhani doubling, Aluabari Road–New Jalpaiguri 3rd and 4th lines, and Dangoaposi–Jaroli 3rd and 4th lines.