KPSC (Karnataka) Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Which company will use CSIR's indigenous paracetamol technology announced on 5 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Satya Deeptha Pharmaceuticals Ltd
PIB (S&T): Karnataka-based Satya Deeptha Pharmaceuticals Ltd will utilise the breakthrough to produce affordable paracetamol domestically.
CSIR's indigenous paracetamol technology was announced at the foundation day of which department on 5 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Department of Scientific and Industrial Research
PIB (S&T): Jitendra Singh made the announcement while addressing the 40th Foundation Day of DSIR.
How many more CSIR technologies were transferred to MSMEs under the Laghu Udyog Bharati '100 days 100 technology' campaign on DSIR's 40th Foundation Day?
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Correct answer: B — 16
PIB (S&T): 57 CSIR technologies had been transferred so far under the campaign, and 16 more were transferred on the day.
Who was named Player of the Series in the 2024-25 Border-Gavaskar Trophy that ended in Sydney on 5 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Jasprit Bumrah
The Hindu and BBC: Jasprit Bumrah was presented the Player of the Series award.
By what margin did Australia win the 2024-25 Border-Gavaskar Trophy series against India?
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Correct answer: B — 3-1
BBC, The Hindu and Reuters: Australia won the five-match series 3-1 after the six-wicket win in Sydney.
Consider the following statements about the fifth Test of the 2024-25 Border-Gavaskar Trophy in Sydney: 1. Australia won by six wickets on the third day. 2. Scott Boland took 6-45 in India's second innings. 3. India captain Jasprit Bumrah bowled Australia out in the second innings. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
BBC and The Hindu: Australia won by six wickets on day three, and Boland took 6-45; Bumrah could not bowl because of a back injury.
Who chaired the Joint Monitoring Group meeting held by the Union Health Ministry on 4 January 2025 on respiratory illnesses in China?
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Correct answer: C — Director General of Health Services
PIB (Health): the JMG meeting was held under the Chairmanship of DGHS, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
What precautionary step regarding HMPV was agreed at the Joint Monitoring Group meeting of 4 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ICMR to increase HMPV testing laboratories and monitor trends for the year
PIB (Health): as a precaution, the number of laboratories testing for HMPV will be enhanced by ICMR, which will monitor HMPV trends for the entire year.
Consider the following conclusions of the Health Ministry's Joint Monitoring Group on 4 January 2025: 1. The situation in China is not unusual in view of the flu season. 2. Influenza, RSV and HMPV are among the usual seasonal pathogens behind the surge. 3. ICMR and IDSP data show an unusual surge in SARI cases in India. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Health): statements 1 and 2 were agreed; data from ICMR and IDSP indicate no unusual surge in ILI and SARI cases.
What was India's coal production (provisional) in calendar year 2024, as reported by the Ministry of Coal?
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Correct answer: D — 1,039.59 MT
PIB (Coal): production reached an all-time high of 1,039.59 MT (provisional) in 2024; 1,012.72 MT was the dispatch figure.
By what percentage did India's coal production grow in calendar year 2024 over 2023?
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Correct answer: A — 7.28%
PIB (Coal): production grew 7.28% over 969.07 MT in 2023; dispatch grew 6.56%.
Consider the following statements about India's coal sector in calendar year 2024: 1. Coal dispatch crossed 1,000 million tonnes. 2. Coal production grew faster than coal dispatch. 3. Coal production in 2023 was above 1,000 million tonnes. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Coal): dispatch was 1,012.72 MT; production grew 7.28% vs dispatch 6.56%; 2023 production was 969.07 MT, below 1,000 MT.
INSV Tarini left Lyttelton, New Zealand, on 4 January 2025 for which destination on the third leg of Navika Sagar Parikrama II?
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Correct answer: A — Port Stanley, Falkland Islands
PIB (Defence): Tarini left Lyttelton for its onward passage (third leg) to Port Stanley, Falkland Islands.
Who are the two Indian Navy officers undertaking the Navika Sagar Parikrama II circumnavigation on INSV Tarini?
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Correct answer: B — Lt Cdr Dilna K and Lt Cdr Roopa A
PIB (Defence): the double-handed circumnavigation is being undertaken by Lt Cdr Dilna K and Lt Cdr Roopa A.
Consider the following statements about Navika Sagar Parikrama II: 1. It was flagged off from Goa on 2 October 2024. 2. The third leg from Lyttelton is the longest leg of the expedition. 3. The third leg avoids Cape Horn by passing through the Panama Canal. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Defence): flagged off from Goa on 02 Oct 24; the Lyttelton–Port Stanley leg is the longest and passes through the Drake Passage and Cape Horn.
During which period did Rajagopala Chidambaram serve as Chairman of the Atomic Energy Commission and Secretary, DAE?
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Correct answer: B — 1993–2000
DAE: he was Chairman, AEC and Secretary, DAE from 1993 to 2000; Director, BARC 1990–1993; PSA 2001–2018.
Rajagopala Chidambaram, who died on 4 January 2025, chaired which international body's Board of Governors during 1994–1995?
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Correct answer: C — International Atomic Energy Agency
DAE: he was Chairman of the Board of Governors of the International Atomic Energy Agency (1994–1995).
Consider the following statements about Rajagopala Chidambaram: 1. He played an integral role in India's first nuclear test in 1974. 2. He led the DAE team during the Pokhran-II tests in 1998. 3. He received the Padma Vibhushan in 1999. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
DAE: all three are stated – integral role in 1974, led the DAE team in Pokhran-II (1998), Padma Shri 1975 and Padma Vibhushan 1999.
Jayant N. Khobragade, appointed on 4 January 2025, will be India's next Ambassador to which country?
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Correct answer: A — Poland
MEA: Jayant N. Khobragade (IFS: 1995), presently Ambassador to ASEAN, has been appointed the next Ambassador of India to Poland.
Who was appointed on 4 January 2025 as the next Ambassador of India to ASEAN?
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Correct answer: B — Srinivas Gotru
MEA: Srinivas Gotru (IFS: 1997), presently Joint Secretary in the Ministry, has been appointed the next Ambassador of India to ASEAN.
The draft Digital Personal Data Protection Rules, 2025 released on 3 January 2025 are meant to implement which law?
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Correct answer: D — Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023
PIB (MeitY): the draft rules facilitate implementation of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023.
What was the last date for submitting comments on the draft DPDP Rules, 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 18 February 2025
PIB (MeitY): feedback may be submitted via the MyGov portal and the last date is 18 February 2025.
Consider the following statements about the draft DPDP Rules, 2025: 1. They provide for the Data Protection Board to function as a digital office. 2. They were drafted in line with the SARAL framework. 3. Comments on them were invited only through written submissions to the Ministry of Law and Justice. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (MeitY): the rules cover the functioning of the Board as a digital office and follow the SARAL framework; comments are invited via the MyGov portal, so statement 3 is wrong.
Which pillar was newly introduced in the LEADS 2024 report released on 3 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Sustainable Logistics
PIB (Commerce): LEADS 2024 evaluates four pillars — Logistics Infrastructure, Logistics Services, Operating and Regulatory Environment, and the newly introduced Sustainable Logistics.
In LEADS 2024, which of the following was among the 'Achievers' of the North-Eastern group?
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Correct answer: B — Arunachal Pradesh
PIB (Commerce): North-Eastern Achievers — Assam and Arunachal Pradesh; Meghalaya and Tripura are Fast Movers; Manipur is an Aspirer.
Consider the following statements about the LEADS 2024 report: 1. It is the sixth edition of the report. 2. Kerala and West Bengal were placed among the 'Achievers' of the Coastal group. 3. Chandigarh and Delhi were the 'Achievers' among Union Territories. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
PIB (Commerce): the DPIIT Secretary called it the 6th edition; Kerala and West Bengal are Coastal 'Aspirers', so statement 2 is wrong; UT Achievers are Chandigarh and Delhi.
Who was the Maldives Foreign Minister who held talks with EAM S. Jaishankar in New Delhi on 3 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Abdulla Khaleel
MEA: Dr Abdulla Khaleel, Minister of Foreign Affairs of Maldives, was on an official visit to India from 2–4 January 2025 and held talks with EAM on 3 January.
During the Maldives Foreign Minister's visit of 2–4 January 2025, India and Maldives signed an MoU on which subject?
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Correct answer: B — High Impact Community Development Projects Phase-III
MEA: both sides signed an MoU for implementation of High Impact Community Development Projects under Phase-III in Maldives, through grant assistance by the Government of India.
Which institute's Golden Jubilee celebrations did President Droupadi Murmu address in Bengaluru on 3 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — NIMHANS
PIB (Health): the President addressed the Golden Jubilee Celebrations of the National Institute of Mental Health and Neurosciences (NIMHANS), Bengaluru.
According to the President at the NIMHANS Golden Jubilee, how many centres does the Tele-MANAS platform have across the country?
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Correct answer: D — 53
PIB (Health): the Tele-MANAS platform, with its 53 centres across the country, has served nearly 70 lakh people in their chosen languages during the last two years.
Consider the following statements about the events of 3 January 2025 in Karnataka: 1. A next-generation 3T MRI scanner was among the facilities inaugurated at NIMHANS. 2. The President inaugurated the KLE Cancer Hospital at Belagavi. 3. The Bellary model of community-based mental healthcare was pioneered by NIMHANS. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (Health; President's Secretariat): new facilities included a next-generation 3T MRI scanner; the President inaugurated KLE Cancer Hospital at Belagavi the same day; the Bellary model was pioneered by NIMHANS.
Which aircraft carrier led the French Carrier Strike Group that visited India from 3 to 9 January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — FNS Charles de Gaulle
PIB (Defence): the group was led by the nuclear-powered aircraft carrier FNS Charles de Gaulle; FS Forbin was one of the ships that visited Kochi.
At which two Indian ports did the French Carrier Strike Group make port calls during its January 2025 visit?
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Correct answer: C — Goa and Kochi
PIB (Defence): the visit from 03–09 Jan 25 included port calls in Goa and Kochi.
With which Indian Navy formation did the French Carrier Strike Group hold a PASSEX in January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Western Fleet
PIB (Defence): in Goa, the group is hosting engagements including a PASSEX at sea with the Indian Navy's Western Fleet.
The Centralized Pension Payments System (CPPS), fully rolled out by EPFO, operates under which scheme?
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Correct answer: A — Employees' Pension Scheme, 1995
PIB (Labour): EPFO completed the full-scale rollout of CPPS under the Employees' Pension Scheme 1995 in December 2024.
In which regional offices was the first pilot of EPFO's CPPS conducted in October 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Karnal, Jammu and Srinagar
PIB (Labour): the first pilot was completed in October 2024 in Karnal, Jammu and Srinagar Regional Offices, disbursing about ₹11 crore to more than 49,000 pensioners.
Consider the following statements about EPFO's CPPS: 1. About ₹1,570 crore of pension for December 2024 was paid through it to more than 68 lakh pensioners. 2. It covers all 122 pension-disbursing Regional Offices of EPFO. 3. Under it, a pensioner can draw pension from any bank and any branch. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (Labour): all three are stated — about ₹1,570 crore to more than 68 lakh pensioners of all 122 pension-disbursing ROs, and pension from any bank, any branch, anywhere.
What is 'Baanknet', revamped and launched on 3 January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — An e-auction portal for properties of public sector banks
PIB (Finance): DFS Secretary launched the revamped e-auction portal 'Baanknet', which consolidates e-auction properties of all PSBs.
Who launched the revamped Baanknet portal on 3 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — M. Nagaraju, Secretary, Department of Financial Services
PIB (Finance): Shri M. Nagaraju, Secretary, Department of Financial Services, launched the revamped portal in New Delhi.
According to the Ministry of Finance, roughly how many properties had already been migrated to the revamped Baanknet portal at launch?
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Correct answer: D — Over 1,22,500
PIB (Finance): over 1,22,500 properties have already been migrated to the new portal for auction.
Which chess player was named for the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award 2024 announced on 2 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Gukesh D
PIB (Sports): the Khel Ratna 2024 awardees are Gukesh D (Chess), Harmanpreet Singh (Hockey), Praveen Kumar (Para-Athletics) and Manu Bhaker (Shooting).
Praveen Kumar, one of the four Khel Ratna 2024 awardees, represents which discipline?
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Correct answer: B — Para-Athletics
PIB (Sports): Shri Praveen Kumar was named for the Khel Ratna 2024 in Para-Athletics.
On which date were the National Sports Awards 2024 to be presented by the President at Rashtrapati Bhavan?
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Correct answer: C — 17 January 2025
PIB (Sports): the awardees will receive their awards from the President at Rashtrapati Bhavan on 17 January 2025 (Friday) at 1100 hours.
Consider the following pairs of Arjuna Award 2024 winners and their disciplines: 1. Jyothi Yarraji — Athletics 2. Abhay Singh — Squash 3. Sajan Prakash — Swimming How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
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Correct answer: D — All three
PIB (Sports): the Arjuna list has Jyothi Yarraji (Athletics), Abhay Singh (Squash) and Sajan Prakash (Swimming), so all three pairs are correct.
Who headed the Selection Committee for the National Sports Awards 2024?
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Correct answer: D — Justice (Retd.) V. Ramasubramanian
PIB (Sports): the applications were considered by the Selection Committee headed by Justice (Retd.) V. Ramasubramanian, Supreme Court of India.
Consider the following statements about the National Sports Awards 2024: 1. Murlikant Rajaram Petkar received the Arjuna Award (Lifetime) in para-swimming. 2. Armando Agnelo Colaco received the Dronacharya Award in the lifetime category for football. 3. The Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar was given to a State sports department. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Sports): Petkar — Arjuna (Lifetime), Para-Swimming; Colaco — Dronacharya (Lifetime), Football; the Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar went to the Physical Education Foundation of India, so statement 3 is wrong.
What change did the NSO make in the sample design of surveys starting January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — The district was made the basic stratum for sample selection
PIB (MoSPI): as an enabling provision for district-level estimates, NSO modified the sample design with the district as a basic stratum for all surveys starting January 2025.
Which subject is covered by the NSS 80th Round's Social Consumption survey running from January to December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Health
PIB (MoSPI): NSS 80th Round — Survey on Social Consumption: Health (Jan to December 2025); Education is part of the Comprehensive Modular Survey (April–June 2025).
Consider the following statements about the surveys starting January 2025: 1. PLFS will provide monthly estimates of key labour force indicators at the all-India level. 2. District-level estimates are to be produced by the respective State governments. 3. ASUSE will continue to give only annual estimates. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB (MoSPI): PLFS will give monthly all-India estimates and States will produce district-level estimates; ASUSE will now give quarterly estimates along with annual ones, so statement 3 is wrong.
To which new base year is the Wholesale Price Index proposed to be revised by the Working Group constituted in January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 2022-23
PIB (Commerce): the Working Group is for base revision of WPI from base 2011-12 to 2022-23.
Who chairs the Working Group constituted for revising the base of the Wholesale Price Index?
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Correct answer: C — Prof. Ramesh Chand, Member, NITI Aayog
PIB (Commerce): Prof. Ramesh Chand, Member, NITI Aayog, is the Chairman of the Working Group.
Consider the following statements about the WPI base-revision Working Group: 1. Its terms of reference include recommending a roadmap for switching over from WPI to a Producer Price Index (PPI). 2. A Deputy Director General of DPIIT is its Member Secretary. 3. It is chaired by the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Commerce): the ToR include a roadmap for switch over from WPI to PPI and the DDG, DPIIT is Member Secretary; the Chairman is Prof. Ramesh Chand of NITI Aayog, while RBI only sends a representative.
What was the record monthly coal production from captive and commercial mines in December 2024?
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Correct answer: D — 18.40 MT
PIB (Coal): December 2024 witnessed the highest ever monthly production from captive and commercial mines, with 18.40 MT.
By what percentage did coal production from captive and commercial mines grow during April–December 2024 over the same period of the previous year?
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Correct answer: A — 34.20%
PIB (Coal): production between 1 April and 31 December 2024 reached 131.05 MT, a 34.20% increase from 97.665 MT; 30.75% is the rise in December's daily average.
How much immediate relief assistance did India announce for Vanuatu on 2 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — USD 500,000
MEA: the Government of India extends a relief assistance of USD 500,000 to support relief, rehabilitation and reconstruction in Vanuatu.
Under which forum did MEA describe Vanuatu as India's close friend and partner while announcing the earthquake aid?
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Correct answer: B — Forum for India-Pacific Islands Cooperation
MEA: India extended the assistance as a close friend and partner under the Forum for India-Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC).
How many Indian fishermen were to be repatriated by Bangladesh under the mutual release announced on 2 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 95
MEA: 95 Indian fishermen were handed over by Bangladesh authorities to the Bangladesh Coast Guard for handing over to the Indian Coast Guard on 5 January 2025; 90 Bangladeshi fishermen were to be released by India.
Where was the India–Bangladesh fishermen exchange of January 2025 to be concluded?
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Correct answer: D — At sea between the two Coast Guards
MEA: the mutual release and repatriation operation will be concluded at sea between the respective Coast Guard authorities.
What corpus did the Union Cabinet approve on 1 January 2025 for the Fund for Innovation and Technology (FIAT) under the crop insurance schemes?
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Correct answer: D — ₹824.77 crore
PIB (Cabinet): the Cabinet approved creation of the Fund for Innovation and Technology (FIAT) with a corpus of ₹824.77 crore.
Under YES-TECH in PMFBY, what minimum weightage is given to technology-based yield estimates?
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Correct answer: A — 30%
PIB (Cabinet): YES-TECH uses remote sensing technology for yield estimation with minimum 30% weightage to technology-based yield estimates.
Consider the following statements about the crop insurance decisions of 1 January 2025: 1. WINDS envisages Automatic Weather Stations at block level and Automatic Rain Gauges at panchayat level. 2. 2024-25 was approved as the first year of WINDS implementation, with central fund sharing of 90:10. 3. Madhya Pradesh has adopted 100% technology-based yield estimation. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (Cabinet): all three are stated — AWS at block and ARGs at panchayat level; 2024-25 approved as WINDS' first year with 90:10 central sharing; MP has adopted 100% technology-based yield estimation.
Which body centrally coordinates the subscription process under the One Nation One Subscription scheme?
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Correct answer: B — INFLIBNET
PIB (Education): the entire subscription process will be centrally coordinated by INFLIBNET, an autonomous inter-university centre under the UGC.
How many international publishers' journals are covered under Phase I of One Nation One Subscription, which began on 1 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 30
PIB (Education): Phase I provides access to more than 13,000 scholarly journals from 30 major international publishers; 6,300 is the number of institutions.
Consider the following statements about the One Nation One Subscription scheme: 1. It was approved by the Union Cabinet on 25 November 2024. 2. ₹6,000 crore has been allocated for the three calendar years 2025, 2026 and 2027. 3. It provides ₹150 crore per year for beneficiary authors to publish in selected open access journals. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (Education): Cabinet approved ONOS on 25 November 2024; ₹6,000 crore covers 2025, 2026 and 2027; and ₹150 crore per year supports open access publishing.
At what rate per tonne did the Union Cabinet on 1 January 2025 extend the one-time special package on DAP beyond the NBS subsidy?
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Correct answer: A — ₹3,500 per tonne
PIB (Cabinet): the Cabinet approved extension of the one-time special package on DAP beyond the NBS subsidy @ ₹3,500 per MT from 01.01.2025 till further orders.
What is the approximate financial implication of the DAP special package extension approved on 1 January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Up to ₹3,850 crore
PIB (Cabinet): the tentative budgetary requirement is approximately up to ₹3,850 crore; ₹2,625 crore was the earlier package and ₹6,475 crore is the total since April 2024.
Consider the following statements about fertiliser subsidy as stated in the Cabinet release of 1 January 2025: 1. Subsidy on P&K fertilisers has been governed by the NBS scheme since 1 April 2010. 2. The first one-time special package on DAP covered 1 April to 31 December 2024. 3. The new extension of the special package is limited to the Rabi 2024-25 season only. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Cabinet): NBS has governed P&K subsidy w.e.f. 01.04.2010 and the July 2024 package covered 01.04.2024 to 31.12.2024; the extension runs from 01.01.2025 till further orders, so statement 3 is wrong.
The Ministry of Defence declared 2025 as the year of what?
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Correct answer: C — Year of Reforms
PIB (Defence): it was unanimously decided to observe 2025 as the 'Year of Reforms' in the Ministry of Defence.
Which structural change in the Armed Forces do the 'Year of Reforms' focus areas seek to facilitate through jointness and integration?
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Correct answer: D — Establishment of Integrated Theatre Commands
PIB (Defence): reforms should aim to further bolster jointness and integration initiatives and facilitate establishment of the Integrated Theatre Commands.
Who chaired the meeting at which it was decided to observe 2025 as the 'Year of Reforms' in the Ministry of Defence?
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Correct answer: A — Raksha Mantri Rajnath Singh
PIB (Defence): Raksha Mantri Rajnath Singh chaired a meeting with all the Secretaries of the MoD on the eve of the New Year, where the decision was taken unanimously.
The exchange of nuclear installation lists between India and Pakistan on 1 January 2025 was the how-manyth consecutive exchange?
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Correct answer: A — 34th
MEA: this is the 34th consecutive exchange of such lists, the first having taken place on 1 January 1992.
Under which agreement do India and Pakistan exchange lists of civilian prisoners and fishermen every 1 January and 1 July?
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Correct answer: B — Agreement on Consular Access, 2008
MEA: under the provisions of the bilateral Agreement on Consular Access 2008, such lists are exchanged every year on 1 January and 1 July.
Consider the following statements about the India–Pakistan exchanges of 1 January 2025: 1. India shared names of 381 civilian prisoners and 81 fishermen in its custody. 2. Pakistan shared names of 49 civilian prisoners and 217 fishermen in its custody. 3. The Agreement on the Prohibition of Attack against Nuclear Installations and Facilities was signed on 31 December 1988. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1, 2 and 3
MEA: India — 381 civilian prisoners and 81 fishermen; Pakistan — 49 civilian prisoners and 217 fishermen; the nuclear agreement was signed on 31 December 1988 and entered into force on 27 January 1991.
Who assumed command of the IAF's Western Air Command on 1 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Air Marshal Jeetendra Mishra
PIB (Defence): Air Marshal Jeetendra Mishra assumed command of the Western Air Command on 01 January 2025, succeeding Air Marshal Pankaj Mohan Sinha.
What post did Air Marshal Jeetendra Mishra hold immediately before taking over the Western Air Command?
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Correct answer: A — Deputy Chief of Integrated Defence Staff (Operations)
PIB (Defence): he was Deputy Chief of Integrated Defence Staff (Operations) prior to taking over his present appointment.
How many awards will be conferred under the 28th National Awards for e-Governance 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 16
PIB (DARPG): 16 awards are being conferred under NAeG 2025 — 10 Gold and 6 Silver.
What incentive will Gold awardees receive under the National Awards for e-Governance 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹10 lakh
PIB (DARPG): an incentive of ₹10 lakh for Gold awardees and ₹5 lakh for Silver awardees, to be used for public welfare projects.
Who assumed charge as CEO of UIDAI on 1 January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Bhuvnesh Kumar
PIB (MeitY): Shri Bhuvnesh Kumar assumed charge as the CEO of UIDAI on Wednesday (1 January 2025).
To which IAS batch and cadre does UIDAI CEO Bhuvnesh Kumar belong?
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Correct answer: C — 1995 batch, Uttar Pradesh cadre
PIB (MeitY): he is an officer of the 1995 batch IAS from the Uttar Pradesh cadre.
According to the Dynamic Ground Water Resource Assessment Report 2024 released on 31 December 2024, what is India's overall stage of ground water extraction?
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Correct answer: C — 60.47%
PIB (Jal Shakti): annual extraction of 245.64 BCM against an extractable resource of 406.19 BCM gives a stage of extraction of 60.47%; 73.4% is the share of safe units and 11.13% the share of over-exploited units.
Out of 6,746 assessment units in the 2024 ground water assessment, how many were categorised as 'Over-exploited'?
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Correct answer: A — 751
PIB (Jal Shakti): 751 units are over-exploited; 206 are critical, 711 semi-critical and 127 saline, with 4,951 safe.
Consider the following statements about the 2024 ground water assessment compared with the 2017 assessment: 1. Total annual recharge increased by 15 BCM. 2. Annual extraction increased by 3 BCM. 3. Recharge from tanks, ponds and water conservation structures rose from 13.98 BCM to 25.34 BCM. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 3 only
PIB (Jal Shakti): recharge rose by 15 BCM and extraction fell (not rose) by 3 BCM; recharge from tanks, ponds and WCS rose from 13.98 BCM to 25.34 BCM. So statements 1 and 3 are correct.