JKPSC Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What was India's IIP growth rate for May 2025 as per the Quick Estimate released on 30 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 1.2%
MoSPI: the IIP growth rate for May 2025 is 1.2%, compared with 2.7% (Quick Estimate) in April 2025.
Which sector recorded the steepest contraction in the IIP for May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Electricity
MoSPI: growth rates for May 2025 were mining (-)0.1%, manufacturing 2.6% and electricity (-)5.8%, so electricity contracted most.
Consider the following about the IIP release of 30 June 2025: 1. The IIP uses base year 2011-12=100. 2. Under the revised calendar, the Quick Estimate is released on the 28th of every month. 3. 13 of 23 manufacturing industry groups recorded positive growth in May 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct as per MoSPI: base 2011-12=100; release on the 28th of every month (or next working day); 13 out of 23 industry groups at NIC 2-digit level grew.
The Integrated Alert System 'SACHET' operated by NDMA was developed by which organisation?
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Correct answer: A — Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT)
PIB: NDMA has operationalised the Integrated Alert System (SACHET), developed by the Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT).
SACHET is based on the Common Alerting Protocol (CAP) recommended by which body?
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Correct answer: C — International Telecommunication Union
PIB: SACHET is based on the Common Alerting Protocol (CAP) recommended by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU).
As on 27 June 2025, what was the total kharif sown area reported by the Agriculture Ministry?
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Correct answer: B — 262.15 lakh hectare
Agriculture Ministry: total kharif area sown as on 27 June 2025 was 262.15 lakh hectare, against 235.44 lakh hectare in 2024.
What was the theme of the 19th Statistics Day observed on 29 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 75 Years of National Sample Survey
MoSPI: the theme for the 19th Statistics Day was '75 Years of National Sample Survey'.
Statistics Day (29 June) commemorates the birth anniversary of which statistician?
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Correct answer: C — Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis
MoSPI: in recognition of Prof. (Late) Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis's contributions, the Government designated his birthday, 29 June, as Statistics Day.
Which mobile application did the National Sample Survey Office launch on Statistics Day 2025?
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Correct answer: D — GoIStats
MoSPI: the NSO launched the GoIStats mobile application on Statistics Day 2025.
Consider the following about Statistics Day 2025: 1. It was the 132nd birth anniversary of Prof. P.C. Mahalanobis. 2. MoSPI released the SDG – National Indicator Framework Progress Report, 2025 on the day. 3. The celebration was held in Kolkata. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (MoSPI: 19th Statistics Day commemorated the 132nd birth anniversary; SDG-NIF Progress Report 2025 released on 29 June). Statement 3 is wrong: the celebration was held at Dr. Ambedkar International Centre, New Delhi.
In Mann Ki Baat (29 June 2025), the PM said WHO had declared India free of which disease?
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Correct answer: C — Trachoma
Mann Ki Baat 123: WHO has declared India Trachoma free; India now has become a Trachoma free country.
Citing an ILO report in Mann Ki Baat (June 2025), what share of India's population did the PM say avails some social protection benefit?
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Correct answer: A — More than 64%
Mann Ki Baat 123: the ILO report says more than 64% of the population of India is now availing some social protection benefit.
As recalled in Mann Ki Baat 123, what was the theme of International Yoga Day 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Yoga for One Earth, One Health
Mann Ki Baat 123: this time the theme was 'Yoga for One Earth, One Health'.
Consider the following about the 123rd episode of Mann Ki Baat (29 June 2025): 1. About 95 crore people were said to be covered by social security schemes, against under 25 crore till 2015. 2. The 50th year of the Emergency was recalled as 'Samvidhan Hatya Diwas'. 3. The Amarnath Yatra was said to commence on 3 July. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct as per the PM's address: about 95 crore people covered (under 25 crore till 2015); the Emergency's 50 years observed as 'Samvidhan Hatya Diwas'; the Amarnath Yatra to commence on 3 July.
The new Passenger Reservation System planned by Indian Railways (June 2025) will allow how many ticket bookings per minute?
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Correct answer: B — Over 1.5 lakh
Ministry of Railways: the new PRS will allow over 1.5 lakh ticket bookings per minute, about five times the current 32,000.
Under the charting reform approved in June 2025, how long before departure will reservation charts generally be prepared?
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Correct answer: C — Eight hours
Ministry of Railways: the Railway Board proposed preparing the reservation chart eight hours before departure (currently four hours), and the Minister agreed.
Which organisation is building Indian Railways' upgraded Passenger Reservation System, due by December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — CRIS
Ministry of Railways: the PRS upgrade project is being executed for the last few months by CRIS.
Which ministry issued the 'Model Rules for Felling of Trees in Agricultural Lands' on 29 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
PIB: the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has issued the 'Model Rules for Felling of Trees in Agricultural Lands'.
Under the Model Rules for felling trees on farmland, applicants must register plantations on which portal?
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Correct answer: D — National Timber Management System (NTMS)
PIB: applicants are required to register their plantations on the National Timber Management System (NTMS) portal, which is being developed.
Consider the following about the Model Rules for Felling of Trees in Agricultural Lands (June 2025): 1. They will be implemented by the State Level Committee under the Wood-Based Industries (Establishment and Regulation) Guidelines, 2016. 2. Divisional Forest Officers will supervise the verifying agencies. 3. Felling permits are issued directly by Gram Panchayats without site inspection. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (PIB). Statement 3 is wrong: verifying agencies carry out site inspections, and permits are issued based on their reports.
Which Indian Navy ship responded to the fire on tanker MT Yi Cheng 6 on 29 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — INS Tabar
Indian Navy: INS Tabar, on mission-based deployment, received a Mayday call from MT Yi Cheng 6 and commenced firefighting.
MT Yi Cheng 6, rescued by the Indian Navy in June 2025, was flagged in which country?
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Correct answer: A — Palau
Indian Navy: the operation was on board the Palau-flagged tanker MT Yi Cheng 6.
How many Indian crew members were on MT Yi Cheng 6 when INS Tabar responded on 29 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 14
Indian Navy: the operation ensured the safety of 14 Indian crew members; seven were evacuated to INS Tabar.
During his interaction with PM Modi on 28 June 2025, how many orbits of the Earth did Shubhanshu Shukla say the ISS crew completes in a day?
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Correct answer: B — 16
PIB: Shukla said they complete 16 orbits a day, witnessing 16 sunrises and 16 sunsets.
What approximate speed of the space station did Shubhanshu Shukla mention during the interaction with the Prime Minister?
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Correct answer: D — Nearly 28,000 km per hour
PIB: Shukla said they were travelling at a speed of nearly 28,000 km per hour.
Consider the following statements about the PM–Shubhanshu Shukla interaction of 28 June 2025: 1. Shukla said he shared carrot halwa, moong dal halwa and aam ras with fellow astronauts. 2. The interaction took place after Shukla had returned to Earth. 3. Shukla said that a short while earlier the station had passed over Hawaii. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
PIB: statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong: Shukla was aboard the ISS and the interaction was by videoconference.
According to Shubhanshu Shukla, the first experiment scheduled on the day of his interaction with the PM studied which subject?
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Correct answer: A — Stem cells and whether supplements can prevent or delay muscle loss in microgravity
PIB: the first experiment that day focused on stem cells, testing whether specific supplements can prevent or delay muscle loss caused by the absence of gravity.
Which of the following was NOT part of the 'homework' PM Modi set for Shubhanshu Shukla on 28 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Landing an Indian astronaut on Mars
PIB: the PM said India must move forward with Mission Gaganyaan, build its own space station and land an Indian astronaut on the Moon. Mars was not mentioned.
According to the Health Ministry (28 June 2025), the percentage of zero-dose children in India's total population fell from 0.11% in 2023 to what in 2024?
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Correct answer: C — 0.06%
MoHFW: the share of zero-dose children declined from 0.11% in 2023 to 0.06% in 2024.
The Zero Dose Implementation Plan 2024 was rolled out in how many districts?
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Correct answer: A — 143 districts in 11 states
MoHFW: the Zero Dose Implementation Plan 2024 was rolled out across 143 districts in 11 states with a high burden of unvaccinated children.
Consider the following statements about India's Universal Immunization Programme (UIP): 1. The UIP currently covers 12 vaccine-preventable diseases. 2. Till 2013, only six vaccines were available in the programme. 3. Mission Indradhanush was first launched in 2017. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
MoHFW: statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: Mission Indradhanush runs since 2014 and was intensified in 2017.
The 'India Energy Stack', announced on 28 June 2025, is an initiative of which ministry?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Power
PIB: the Ministry of Power announced a task force to conceive the India Energy Stack and is spearheading the initiative.
What is the duration of the Proof of Concept that the Ministry of Power will run to demonstrate the India Energy Stack?
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Correct answer: C — 12 months
PIB: the Ministry will undertake a 12-month Proof of Concept with selected utilities.
Consider the following statements about the India Energy Stack (IES): 1. The IES will provide unique IDs for consumers, assets and transactions. 2. Data under the IES will be shared without the need for consumer consent. 3. The Utility Intelligence Platform will be piloted with DISCOMs in Mumbai, Gujarat and Delhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 3 only
PIB: statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the IES provides real-time, consent-based data sharing.
Under MNRE's revised Waste-to-Energy guidelines (June 2025), what share of the total Central Financial Assistance can be released after the plant obtains Consent to Operate from the State Pollution Control Board?
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Correct answer: D — 50%
MNRE: 50% of total CFA will be released after obtaining the Consent to Operate certificate from the SPCB, against a bank guarantee.
The Biomass Programme whose guidelines MNRE revised in June 2025 is part of which programme?
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Correct answer: A — Phase-I of the National Bioenergy Programme
MNRE: the revised guidelines are for the Biomass Programme under Phase-I of the National Bioenergy Programme (FY 2021-22 to 2025-26).
Consider the following statements about MNRE's revised bioenergy guidelines of June 2025: 1. Under Waste-to-Energy, the balance CFA is released on achieving 80% of rated capacity or the maximum CFA-eligible capacity, whichever is lesser. 2. Under the Biomass Programme, the two-year briquette or pellet sale contract has been replaced with a general sale agreement. 3. Under the Biomass Programme, SCADA-based monitoring has been made mandatory for all plants. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
MNRE: statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: IoT-based monitoring or quarterly data submission is allowed instead of expensive systems like SCADA.
Scientists of which institute found that teak leaf extract can act as a natural, biodegradable laser shield (reported 27 June 2025)?
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Correct answer: A — Raman Research Institute
PIB (DST): scientists at the Raman Research Institute (RRI), an autonomous institute funded by DST, uncovered the use of teak leaves.
Which natural pigment in teak leaves shows the nonlinear optical properties that make the extract suitable for optical power-limiting?
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Correct answer: D — Anthocyanins
PIB (DST): teak leaves are rich in anthocyanins, natural pigments whose nonlinear optical properties make the extract suitable for optical power-limiting.
As per telecom subscription data as of 31 May 2025, what was India's overall tele-density?
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Correct answer: D — 85.36%
PIB (TRAI data): overall tele-density as of 31 May 2025 was 85.36%.
What was the total number of telephone subscribers (wireless plus wireline) in India as of 31 May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 1,207.08 million
PIB: total telephone subscribers were 1,207.08 million. 1,168.42 million is wireless only, 974.87 million is broadband, and 1,080.06 million is active wireless on peak VLR date.
Consider the following statements based on telecom subscription data for May 2025: 1. Rural tele-density stood at 59.33%. 2. About 14.03 million mobile number portability requests were submitted in May 2025. 3. Wireline subscribers declined during May 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB: statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: wireline subscribers grew by 1.25 million (3.34%) in May 2025.
The report 'Skills for the Future: Transforming India's Workforce Landscape', unveiled on 27 June 2025, was prepared by which organisation?
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Correct answer: C — Institute for Competitiveness
PIB: the report was developed independently by the Institute for Competitiveness (IFC).
According to the 'Skills for the Future' report based on PLFS 2023-24 data, what share of India's workforce is in low-competency occupations?
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Correct answer: D — 88%
PIB: PLFS-based analysis shows that in 2023-24, 88% of India's workforce is in low-competency occupations, while only 10-12% are in high-competency roles.
The 'Adi Karmayogi' programme, whose Beta version was launched on 27 June 2025, belongs to which ministry?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Tribal Affairs
PIB: Union Tribal Affairs Minister Jual Oram launched the Ministry's flagship programme Adi Karmayogi Beta version.
The Adi Karmayogi Beta version aims at capacity building of nearly how many stakeholders?
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Correct answer: B — 20 lakh
PIB: the Adi Karmayogi Beta version will enable capacity building of nearly 20 lakh stakeholders.
Consider the following statements about the Adi Karmayogi Beta version: 1. It targets reaching 1 lakh tribal villages and habitations. 2. It was launched at the national conference 'Adi Anveshan' held at Vanijya Bhawan, New Delhi. 3. Its training framework includes about 3,000 State Master Trainers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB: statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the framework has more than 180 State Master Trainers; 3,000 is the number of District Trainers.
To which module of the International Space Station did the Axiom Mission 4 Dragon dock on 26 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Harmony module (space-facing port)
NASA: the spacecraft docked to the space-facing port of the space station's Harmony module.
After the hatch opened on 26 June 2025, who was the first Axiom-4 crew member to enter the International Space Station?
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Correct answer: A — Commander Peggy Whitson
NASA: Ax-4 Commander Peggy Whitson was the first to enter the station after the hatch opened, followed by Pilot Shubhanshu Shukla.
Which institutions conduct the Axiom-4 experiment studying the germination of sprouting moong and methi seeds in space, as described by Dr. Jitendra Singh?
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Correct answer: C — UAS Dharwad and IIT Dharwad
PIB: the second experiment, by UAS Dharwad and IIT Dharwad, investigates the germination and nutritional properties of sprouting moong and methi seeds. ICGEB and BRIC-NIPGR lead the microalgae experiment.
Consider the following statements about the Axiom-4 arrival at the ISS: 1. The Dragon docked to the space-facing port of the Harmony module. 2. After the arrival, eleven people were aboard the station, including seven Expedition 73 crew members. 3. The mission had launched from Vandenberg Space Force Base, California. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
NASA: statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: Ax-4 launched from Launch Complex 39A at NASA's Kennedy Space Center, Florida.
In which Chinese city was the SCO Defence Ministers' Meeting attended by Rajnath Singh held in June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Qingdao
PIB: Rajnath Singh addressed the SCO Defence Ministers' Meeting at Qingdao, China on 26 June 2025.
Who was the Chinese counterpart with whom Rajnath Singh held a bilateral meeting on the sidelines of the SCO meeting in Qingdao on 26 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Admiral Dong Jun
PIB: Rajnath Singh held a bilateral meeting with his Chinese counterpart Admiral Dong Jun in Qingdao on 26 June 2025.
In his meeting with Admiral Dong Jun, Rajnath Singh appreciated the resumption of the Kailash Manasarovar Yatra after a gap of how many years?
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Correct answer: A — Five
PIB: Raksha Mantri appreciated the resumption of the Kailash Manasarovar Yatra after a gap of five years.
Consider the following statements about the SCO Defence Ministers' Meeting in Qingdao (June 2025): 1. Rajnath Singh said The Resistance Front, a proxy of UN-designated Lashkar-e-Taiba, claimed responsibility for the Pahalgam attack. 2. According to the MEA, the joint statement was not adopted because India's concerns on terrorism were not acceptable to one particular country. 3. The MEA spokesperson publicly named the country that objected. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statement 1 is from Singh's address (PIB). Statement 2 is the MEA spokesperson's line (Reuters, Indian Express). Statement 3 is wrong: Randhir Jaiswal did not name the country.
How many Registered Unrecognised Political Parties (RUPPs) did the ECI start proceedings to delist on 26 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 345
ECI: proceedings were started for delisting 345 RUPPs which had not contested any election since 2019 and whose offices could not be located.
Political parties in India are registered with the Election Commission under which provision?
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Correct answer: D — Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951
ECI: political parties (National/State/RUPPs) are registered with the ECI under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
Consider the following statements about the ECI's RUPP delisting exercise of June 2025: 1. The identified parties had not contested any election since 2019. 2. Over 2,800 RUPPs are currently registered with the ECI. 3. The final decision on delisting rests with the Chief Electoral Officers of the States/UTs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
ECI: statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: CEOs issue show-cause notices, but the final decision on delisting is taken by the Election Commission of India.
Sagarmala Finance Corporation Limited, inaugurated on 26 June 2025 as India's first maritime NBFC, was formerly known as what?
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Correct answer: B — Sagarmala Development Company Limited
PIB: formerly known as Sagarmala Development Company Limited, SMFCL is India's first NBFC in the maritime sector.
What CPSE status does Sagarmala Finance Corporation Limited (SMFCL) hold?
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Correct answer: A — Mini Ratna Category-I
PIB: SMFCL is a Mini Ratna, Category-I, Central Public Sector Enterprise.
INS Teg's port call from 26 to 30 June 2025, during its deployment to the South West Indian Ocean Region, was at which port?
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Correct answer: D — Port Victoria, Seychelles
PIB: INS Teg entered Port Victoria, Seychelles, for a port call scheduled from 26 to 30 June 2025.
At what time (IST) did Axiom Mission 4 lift off on 25 June 2025, according to ISRO?
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Correct answer: B — 12:01 IST
ISRO: the mission lifted off from Launch Complex 39A at the Kennedy Space Centre at 12:01 Hrs IST aboard a SpaceX Falcon 9.
Which ISRO astronaut from the Gaganyaan pool was nominated as the backup crew member for Axiom Mission 4?
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Correct answer: C — Prashanth B. Nair
ISRO: Prashanth B. Nair, also an ISRO astronaut from the Gaganyaan pool, was nominated as the backup crew member.
ISRO said the Axiom-4 mission follows the legacy of international cooperation that sent Rakesh Sharma to space in 1984. Aboard which spacecraft did he fly?
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Correct answer: A — Soviet Soyuz
ISRO: the mission follows the legacy of international cooperation that sent Rakesh Sharma to space in 1984 aboard the Soviet Soyuz.
Consider the following statements about the launch of Axiom Mission 4: 1. The mission lifted off from Launch Complex 39A at the Kennedy Space Center. 2. It was launched aboard a SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket. 3. A launch scheduled on 19 June 2025 had been called off before the eventual launch. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
ISRO: all three are correct. Lift-off was from LC-39A, KSC, on a Falcon 9, and the launch scheduled on 19 June was called off to resolve issues.
In the bye-elections to five Assembly constituencies concluded in June 2025, what major change did ECINET enable, according to the ECI?
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Correct answer: D — Direct upload of Voter Turnout (VTR) trends by Presiding Officers
ECI: a major achievement during the bye-polls was uploading of VTR trends directly by Presiding Officers on ECINET, instead of the earlier manual process.
To what amount did EPFO raise the auto-settlement limit for advance claims in June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — ₹5 lakh
PIB: EPFO increased the auto-settlement limit for advance claims from the existing ₹1 lakh to ₹5 lakh.
How many advance claims did EPFO process through auto-settlement in FY 2024–25, a record according to the Labour Ministry?
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Correct answer: A — 2.34 crore
PIB: in FY 2024–25 EPFO processed a record 2.34 crore advance claims through auto-settlement, up 161% over the previous year.
What is the minimum investment required from approved applicants under SPMEPCI?
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Correct answer: B — ₹4,150 crore
PIB: approved applicants would be required to make a minimum investment of Rs. 4,150 crore (₹4,150 crore).
Under SPMEPCI, approved applicants may import completely built-up electric four-wheelers with a minimum CIF value of USD 35,000 at what reduced customs duty?
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Correct answer: C — 15%
PIB: approved applicants can import CBUs of e-4W with a minimum CIF value of USD 35,000 at a reduced customs duty of 15% for 5 years.
Consider the following statements about SPMEPCI: 1. The scheme was notified on 15 March 2024. 2. Its detailed guidelines were issued through Notification S.O. 2450(E) dated 2 June 2025. 3. The application portal opened on 24 June 2025 will remain open until 21 October 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB: the scheme was notified on 15 March 2024, guidelines were issued via S.O. 2450(E) dated 02.06.2025, and the portal is open from 24 June 2025 until 21 October 2025. All three are correct.
Who authorised the CDS & Secretary, Department of Military Affairs, to issue Joint Instructions and Joint Orders for the three Services in June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Raksha Mantri
PIB: Raksha Mantri Rajnath Singh authorised the CDS & Secretary, DMA, to issue Joint Instructions and Joint Orders for all three Services.
Consider the following statements: 1. Before June 2025, instructions or orders pertaining to two or more Services were issued by each Service separately. 2. The first Joint Order, released on 24 June 2025, was on 'Approval, Promulgation and Numbering of Joint Instructions and Joint Orders'. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB: the change marks a shift from the earlier system in which Instructions/Orders pertaining to two or more Services were issued by each Service separately, and the first Joint Order on 'Approval, Promulgation and Numbering of Joint Instructions and Joint Orders' was released on 24 June 2025. Both are correct.
During which period is the month-long Dharti Aaba Janbhagidari Abhiyan (DAJA) being conducted?
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Correct answer: D — 15 June – 15 July 2025
PIB: from 15 June to 15 July 2025, the month-long national movement is reaching over 5.5 crore tribal citizens.
Where was the 9th India–South Africa Joint Defence Committee meeting held on 23–24 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Johannesburg
PIB: the 9th Joint Defence Committee (JDC) meeting was held in Johannesburg on June 23 & 24, 2025.
India–South Africa defence collaboration dates back to an MoU on 'Cooperation in the field of Defence Equipment' signed in which year?
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Correct answer: B — 1996
PIB: defence collaboration dates back to 1996, when the MoU on 'Cooperation in the field of Defence Equipment' was signed; it was upgraded by an MoU in 2000.
Who chairs the Technical Expert Group constituted by MoSPI to guide the all-India Household Income Survey?
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Correct answer: A — Surjit S. Bhalla
PIB: MoSPI constituted a Technical Expert Group under the Chairmanship of Dr. Surjit S. Bhalla, former Executive Director of India, IMF.
In which year was the first survey of the National Sample Survey (NSS) launched, as noted by MoSPI?
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Correct answer: B — 1950
PIB: the first survey was launched in 1950, and since then NSS has provided data-driven insights for policymaking.
To which date was the cut-off for exercising the option under the Unified Pension Scheme extended in June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 30 September 2025
PIB: the Government decided to extend the cut-off date for exercising the option for UPS by three months, i.e., up to 30th September 2025 (30 September 2025).
Consider the following statements about the Unified Pension Scheme (UPS): 1. UPS was notified by the Ministry of Finance on 24 January 2025. 2. PFRDA notified the regulations operationalising UPS under NPS on 1 April 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB: UPS was notified by the Ministry of Finance on 24 January 2025, but PFRDA notified the operationalisation regulations on 19 March 2025, not 1 April 2025. So 1 only.