IBPS PO Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
How many Kirti Chakras were approved on the eve of Republic Day 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 2
PIB 2096200: two Kirti Chakras (one posthumous) and 14 Shaurya Chakras were approved.
Consider the following statements about the Republic Day 2025 gallantry awards: 1. Gallantry awards were approved for 93 personnel, including 12 posthumous. 2. 14 Shaurya Chakras were approved. 3. 305 defence decorations included 50 Param Vishisht Seva Medals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2096200: 93 gallantry awards (12 posthumous) and 14 Shaurya Chakras were approved; the 305 defence decorations included 30 PVSMs, not 50.
Who among the following received the Kirti Chakra posthumously on the eve of Republic Day 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Naik Dilwar Khan
PIB 2096200: Kirti Chakras went to Major Manjit (22 RR) and Naik Dilwar Khan (28 RR, posthumous); Captain Deepak Singh received the Shaurya Chakra (posthumous).
How many Medals for Gallantry were awarded to police and fire personnel on Republic Day 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 95
PIB 2096015: 95 Medals for Gallantry (78 police, 17 fire service), 101 PSM and 746 MSM were awarded.
What was the total number of Police, Fire, Home Guard & Civil Defence and Correctional Services personnel awarded medals on Republic Day 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 942
PIB 2096015: a total of 942 personnel were awarded Gallantry and Service Medals.
How many Sarvottam Jeevan Raksha Padaks were approved in the Jeevan Raksha Padak Series of Awards-2024?
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Correct answer: D — 17
PIB 2096171: 17 Sarvottam, 9 Uttam and 23 Jeevan Raksha Padaks were approved for 49 persons.
How many of the Jeevan Raksha Padak Series of Awards-2024 awardees were honoured posthumously?
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Correct answer: B — 6
PIB 2096171: six of the 49 awardees are posthumous.
Which organisation received the Best Electoral Practices Award 2024-25 as the best government department for voter education and electoral participation?
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Correct answer: D — Indian Railways
PIB 2096251: President Murmu conferred the award on Indian Railways; Railway Board Chairman & CEO Satish Kumar received it.
Doordarshan won the ECI media award for voter awareness in which category?
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Correct answer: C — Electronic Media (TV)
PIB 2096231: Doordarshan was honoured in the Electronic Media (TV) category for its voter awareness campaign.
Which state topped NITI Aayog's inaugural Fiscal Health Index 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Odisha
PIB 2095974: Odisha topped with a score of 67.8, followed by Chhattisgarh (55.2) and Goa (53.6).
Who launched NITI Aayog's Fiscal Health Index 2025 on 24 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Arvind Panagariya
PIB 2095974: 16th Finance Commission Chairman Arvind Panagariya launched the inaugural FHI 2025.
Which of the following is NOT one of the five sub-indices of NITI Aayog's Fiscal Health Index 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Ease of Doing Business
PIB 2095974: the sub-indices are Quality of Expenditure, Revenue Mobilisation, Fiscal Prudence, Debt Index and Debt Sustainability.
Which state ranked second in NITI Aayog's Fiscal Health Index 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Chhattisgarh
PIB 2095974: Odisha (67.8) was followed by Chhattisgarh (55.2) and Goa (53.6).
'SANJAY', flagged off on 24 January 2025, is what kind of system?
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Correct answer: D — Battlefield surveillance system
PIB 2095712: SANJAY is the Battlefield Surveillance System that fuses sensor inputs into a Common Surveillance Picture.
Consider the following statements about SANJAY: 1. It was jointly developed by the Indian Army and Bharat Electronics Limited. 2. It was developed at a cost of ₹2,402 crore under the Buy (Indian) category. 3. Its induction is to be completed in a single phase in March 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2095712: SANJAY was developed by the Army and BEL at ₹2,402 crore under Buy (Indian); induction is in three phases from March to October 2025.
Which ministry was the top procurer on the Government e Marketplace in FY 2024-25 as of January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Coal
PIB 2095901: the Ministry of Coal emerged as the top procurer with transacted order value of nearly ₹1.63 lakh crore.
What share of GeM's gross merchandise value in FY 2024-25 (as of 23 January 2025) came from the services segment?
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Correct answer: C — 62%
PIB 2095901: services accounted for ₹2.54 lakh crore, 62% of total GMV; products were 38%.
What was GeM's gross merchandise value for FY 2024-25 as on 23 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — ₹4.09 lakh crore
PIB 2095901: GeM clocked a GMV of ₹4.09 lakh crore as on 23 January 2025, nearly 50% above the same period last year.
How many new employees were enrolled under the ESI Scheme in November 2024, as per ESIC's provisional payroll data?
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Correct answer: B — 16.07 lakh
PIB 2095848: 16.07 lakh new employees were added in November 2024, against 15.92 lakh in November 2023.
What share of new ESI registrations in November 2024 belonged to the age group of up to 25 years?
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Correct answer: C — About 47%
PIB 2095848: 7.57 lakh employees, around 47.11% of total registrations, were up to 25 years of age.
What was the year-on-year inflation rate based on CPI-AL for December 2024?
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Correct answer: A — 5.01%
PIB 2095463: CPI-AL inflation was 5.01% in December 2024, against 5.35% in November 2024 and 7.71% in December 2023.
What is the base year of the CPI for Agricultural Labourers and Rural Labourers?
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Correct answer: B — 1986-87 = 100
PIB 2095463: CPI-AL and CPI-RL have base 1986-87 = 100.
Consider the following about CPI-AL and CPI-RL for December 2024: 1. Both indices were unchanged from November 2024. 2. CPI-RL stood at 1331 points. 3. CPI-RL inflation was higher than in December 2023. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2095463: CPI-AL (1320) and CPI-RL (1331) were unchanged; CPI-RL inflation fell to 5.05% from 7.46% in December 2023.
RMBS Development Company Limited (RDCL), which got an RBI Certificate of Registration in January 2025, was set up by which body?
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Correct answer: C — National Housing Bank
PIB 2096815: National Housing Bank set up RDCL as its single largest shareholder.
What is the paid-up capital of RMBS Development Company Limited (RDCL)?
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Correct answer: A — ₹500 crore
PIB 2096815: RDCL's paid-up capital is ₹500 crore, with its registered office in Mumbai.
From when will the Legal Metrology rules for radar speed-measuring equipment, notified in January 2025, come into force?
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Correct answer: D — 1 July 2025
PIB 2095440: to give industry time to comply, the rules will come into force from 1 July 2025.
The draft rules for radar speed-measuring equipment were based on which international recommendation?
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Correct answer: A — OIML R 91
PIB 2095440: the committee submitted the initial draft based on OIML R 91.
The committee that framed the draft radar equipment rules was chaired by the Director of which institute?
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Correct answer: C — Indian Institute of Legal Metrology, Ranchi
PIB 2095440: the committee was formed under the chairmanship of the Director, Indian Institute of Legal Metrology (IILM), Ranchi.
What MSP was fixed for raw jute (TD-3 grade) for the 2025-26 season?
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Correct answer: B — ₹5,650 per quintal
PIB 2095068: the MSP of raw jute (TD-3 grade) was fixed at ₹5,650 per quintal, ₹315 above 2024-25.
What return over the all-India weighted average cost of production does the 2025-26 raw jute MSP ensure?
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Correct answer: D — 66.8%
PIB 2095068: the MSP ensures a return of 66.8% over the all-India weighted average cost of production.
Which state accounts for 82% of India's jute farmers, according to the Cabinet's January 2025 MSP decision?
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Correct answer: A — West Bengal
PIB 2095068: 82% of jute farmers belong to West Bengal; Assam and Bihar have 9% each of jute production.
From where was the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao scheme launched on 22 January 2015?
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Correct answer: A — Panipat, Haryana
PIB 2095231: PM Narendra Modi launched BBBP on 22 January 2015 from Panipat, Haryana.
According to the Health Minister at the BBBP 10-year event, India's Maternal Mortality Rate has fallen since 2014 from 130 to how many deaths per lakh live births?
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Correct answer: C — 97
PIB 2095231: MMR decreased from 130 to 97 deaths per lakh live births, and IMR from 39 to 28 per 1,000 live births.
Consider the following about Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP): 1. It was launched in 2015 from Panipat, Haryana. 2. It is a joint effort of the Ministries of Women and Child Development, Education, and Health and Family Welfare. 3. The Mission Vatsalya Portal was launched at its 10-year celebration. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2095231: BBBP was launched in 2015 from Panipat by three ministries; the Mission Vatsalya Portal was launched at the 22 January 2025 event.
According to MeitY's January 2025 report, what share of national income did India's digital economy account for in 2022-23?
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Correct answer: A — 11.74%
PIB 2095260: India's digital economy was estimated at 11.74% of national income in 2022-23.
With MeitY's digital economy estimates, India became the first developing country to use which organisation's framework to size its digital economy?
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Correct answer: C — OECD
PIB 2095260: India is the first among developing countries to use the OECD framework; alternate estimates use the ADB input-output approach.
Consider the following about MeitY's report on India's digital economy (January 2025): 1. The digital economy was worth ₹31.64 lakh crore in 2022-23. 2. It is projected to contribute one-fifth of GDP by 2030. 3. It also gives alternate estimates using the ADB's input-output approach. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2095260: the digital economy equalled ₹31.64 lakh crore in 2022-23, is projected at one-fifth of GDP by 2030, and alternate estimates use the ADB input-output approach.
By how much has India's Maternal Mortality Rate declined since 1990, as per the NHM update to the Cabinet in January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 83%
PIB 2095052: MMR declined by 83% since 1990, higher than the global decline of 45%.
How many Ayushman Arogya Mandirs had been reached by FY 2023-24, according to the NHM achievements placed before the Cabinet?
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Correct answer: D — 1.72 lakh
PIB 2095052: Ayushman Arogya Mandir centres reached the 1.72 lakh mark by FY 2023-24.
Consider the following about NHM achievements (2021-24) placed before the Cabinet: 1. TB incidence fell from 237 per lakh population in 2015 to 195 in 2023. 2. India's decline in MMR since 1990 was lower than the global decline. 3. NHM engaged over 12 lakh additional healthcare workers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
PIB 2095052: TB incidence fell from 237 to 195 and NHM engaged over 12 lakh additional workers; India's MMR decline (83%) exceeded the global 45%.
What target for Geographical Indication (GI) tags did the Commerce Minister set at the GI Samagam in January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 10,000 GI tags by 2030
PIB 2095279: Piyush Goyal set a target of 10,000 GI tags by 2030.
How many GI tags had been issued by the department as of 22 January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 605
PIB 2095279: the number of GI tags issued by the department till date stands at 605.
Consider the following about the GI Samagam (January 2025): 1. It was organised by DPIIT and the India Today Group in New Delhi. 2. A committee will be constituted to oversee the 10,000 GI tag target. 3. Authorised users of GI tags fell over the last 10 years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2095279: DPIIT and India Today Group organised the Samagam and a committee will oversee the target; authorised users rose from 365 to 29,000.
How many net members did EPFO add in November 2024, as per payroll data released in January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 14.63 lakh
PIB 2095007: EPFO recorded a net addition of 14.63 lakh members in November 2024.
What share of EPFO's new members in November 2024 came from the 18–25 age group?
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Correct answer: B — 54.97%
PIB 2095007: 4.81 lakh new members aged 18–25 made up 54.97% of new members in November 2024.
Consider the following about EPFO payroll data for November 2024: 1. Net member addition was 14.63 lakh. 2. New member enrolment fell compared with October 2024. 3. The 18–25 age group made up less than half of new members. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB 2095007: net addition was 14.63 lakh; new members rose 16.58% over October 2024; the 18–25 group was 54.97% of new members.
How many records did MoSPI's eSankhyiki platform hold when the ministry announced the milestone in January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 134 million
PIB 2095118: eSankhyiki now has 134 million records within seven months of its June 2024 launch.
eSankhyiki, a platform for statistical data dissemination, belongs to which ministry?
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Correct answer: B — Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
PIB 2095118: eSankhyiki is MoSPI's platform for statistical data dissemination.
From when will the Diamond Imprest Authorization Scheme, introduced in January 2025, be implemented?
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Correct answer: D — 1 April 2025
PIB 2094862: the DIA Scheme will be implemented with effect from 1 April 2025.
The Diamond Imprest Authorization Scheme allows duty-free import of natural cut and polished diamonds of what size?
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Correct answer: A — Less than ¼ carat (25 cents)
PIB 2094862: the scheme allows duty-free import of natural cut and polished diamonds of less than ¼ carat (25 cents).
Consider the following about the Diamond Imprest Authorization Scheme: 1. It mandates an export obligation with 10% value addition. 2. Exporters with Two Star Export House status and above and US$15 million annual exports are eligible. 3. It allows duty-free import of lab-grown diamonds. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2094862: the scheme requires 10% value addition and is open to Two Star Export Houses with US$15 million exports; it covers natural cut and polished diamonds.
Which body organised the second meeting of the BIMSTEC Expert Group on Cyber Security Cooperation in January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — National Security Council Secretariat
PIB 2095700: the National Security Council Secretariat organised the meeting on 21 January 2025 in New Delhi.
Over what timeframe is the BIMSTEC cyber security Action Plan proposed to be implemented?
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Correct answer: C — 5 years
PIB 2095700: the Action Plan has been proposed to be implemented within 5 years.
Consider the following about the BIMSTEC Expert Group on Cyber Security Cooperation: 1. Its second meeting was held in New Delhi on 21 January 2025. 2. Its first meeting was hosted by India in 2022. 3. The proposed Action Plan covers protection of critical information infrastructure. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2095700: the second meeting was in New Delhi on 21 January 2025, India hosted the first in 2022, and the Action Plan covers critical information infrastructure.
How many T-72 Bridge Laying Tanks did the Ministry of Defence contract for in January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 47
PIB 2094857: the contract is for 47 T-72 Bridge Laying Tanks at ₹1,560.52 crore.
Which unit will supply the 47 T-72 Bridge Laying Tanks to the Indian Army?
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Correct answer: D — Heavy Vehicles Factory, AVNL
PIB 2094857: the contract was signed with Heavy Vehicles Factory, a unit of Armoured Vehicle Nigam Limited.
Under which procurement category was the January 2025 contract for T-72 Bridge Laying Tanks placed?
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Correct answer: C — Buy (Indian-IDDM)
PIB 2094857: the case is a Buy (Indian-Indigenously Designed Developed and Manufactured) procurement.
What was the focus of the 27th PM-STIAC meeting held on 21 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Cell and gene therapy
PIB 2094915: the 27th PM-STIAC meeting discussed cell and gene therapy in India.
Who chaired the 27th meeting of PM-STIAC?
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Correct answer: B — Prof. Ajay Kumar Sood
PIB 2094915: the meeting was chaired by Principal Scientific Adviser Prof. Ajay Kumar Sood.
Who administered the presidential oath to Donald Trump on 20 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Chief Justice John G. Roberts Jr.
Congressional Record: Chief Justice John G. Roberts Jr. administered the presidential oath.
Consider the following statements about the US inauguration on 20 January 2025: 1. Donald Trump was sworn in as the 47th President. 2. The vice-presidential oath to JD Vance was administered by Chief Justice John G. Roberts Jr. 3. The ceremony was held in the Great Rotunda. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 3 only
Congressional Record: Trump was sworn in as the 47th President in the Great Rotunda; Associate Justice Brett Kavanaugh, not the Chief Justice, administered Vance's oath.
Who administered the vice-presidential oath to JD Vance on 20 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Associate Justice Brett Kavanaugh
Congressional Record: Associate Justice Brett Kavanaugh administered the vice-presidential oath to James David Vance.
The KOICA-assisted project 'Strengthening Vocational Education and Training in Mechatronics in India', for which notes were exchanged on 20 January 2025, will be implemented by NCERT at which institute?
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Correct answer: D — RIE Bhopal
PIB 2095225: NCERT will implement the project at the Regional Institute of Education (RIE), Bhopal.
Consider the following statements about India–Korea development cooperation: 1. The NCERT mechatronics project is the first KOICA-assisted project in India. 2. Korea was designated India's ODA partner in October 2016. 3. India–Korea ties were upgraded to a Special Strategic Partnership in 2018. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2095225: it is the first KOICA-assisted project in India and Korea became an ODA partner in October 2016; the Special Strategic Partnership dates from 2015, not 2018.
Who signed the Exchange of Notes for the KOICA mechatronics project on behalf of the Government of India on 20 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Manisha Sinha
PIB 2095225: Manisha Sinha, Additional Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs, signed for India.
How many companies were provisionally selected in the third round of the PLI Scheme for White Goods announced on 20 January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 24
PIB 2094465: 24 beneficiaries (18 new + 6 existing) were selected, committing ₹3,516 crore.
The PLI Scheme for White Goods covers components of which two products?
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Correct answer: B — Air conditioners and LED lights
PIB 2094465: the PLI Scheme for White Goods covers air conditioners and LED lights.
Consider the following statements about the PLI Scheme for White Goods: 1. It was approved by the Union Cabinet on 7 April 2021 with an outlay of ₹6,238 crore. 2. After the third round, 84 companies under the scheme are set to invest ₹10,478 crore. 3. The scheme runs from FY 2021-22 to FY 2025-26. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2094465: the Cabinet approved it on 7 April 2021 with ₹6,238 crore and 84 companies will invest ₹10,478 crore; the scheme period is FY 2021-22 to FY 2028-29.
Which programme has been included for the first time under the Prime Minister's Awards for Excellence in Public Administration 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Aspirational Blocks Programme
PIB 2094589: for the first time, the Aspirational Blocks Programme has been included under the PM's Award Scheme.
How many awards are there under the Prime Minister's Awards for Excellence in Public Administration 2024?
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Correct answer: C — 16
PIB 2094589: the 2024 scheme recognises civil servants through 16 awards in three categories.
What prize money will each awardee of the Prime Minister's Awards for Excellence in Public Administration 2024 receive?
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Correct answer: D — ₹20 lakh
PIB 2094589: the prize money for PM's Awards 2024 awardees will be ₹20 lakh each.
Which three countries mediated the Gaza ceasefire that took effect on 19 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Egypt, Qatar and the United States
UN OCHA: the ceasefire came into effect through mediation by Egypt, Qatar and the United States.
How long is the first phase of the Gaza ceasefire that took effect on 19 January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 42 days
UN OCHA: the first phase of the ceasefire is 42 days.
Consider the following statements about the first day of the Gaza ceasefire (19 January 2025): 1. Three Israeli women hostages were handed over via the ICRC. 2. 90 Palestinian detainees were released. 3. Fewer than 100 aid trucks entered Gaza that day. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
UN OCHA and UN News: three women hostages were released via the ICRC and 90 Palestinian detainees were freed; more than 630 aid trucks entered Gaza that day.
With which European Commissioner did Piyush Goyal hold a High Level Dialogue in Brussels on 18–19 January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Maroš Šefčovič
PIB 2094362: Goyal met Maroš Šefčovič, European Commissioner for Trade and Economic Security.
Consider the following statements about the Goyal–Šefčovič High Level Dialogue of January 2025: 1. It was the first in-person meeting between the two leaders. 2. It was held in New Delhi. 3. Goyal outlined six principles for an India–EU partnership. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 3 only
PIB 2094362: it was their first in-person meeting and Goyal outlined six principles; the dialogue was held in Brussels, not New Delhi.
At the January 2025 India–EU High Level Dialogue, Piyush Goyal estimated the combined India–EU market at over how much?
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Correct answer: D — $24 trillion
PIB 2094362: Goyal described the combined market as currently estimated at over $24 trillion, with 2 billion people.
After EPFO's January 2025 simplification of PF transfers, about what share of transfer claims is expected to reach EPFO directly without employer intervention?
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Correct answer: D — 94%
PIB 2094230: over 1.20 crore of 1.30 crore transfer claims, about 94%, are expected to be forwarded directly to EPFO.
What share of EPFO members' grievances relate to PF transfer issues, according to EPFO in January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 17%
PIB 2094230: presently 17% of total grievances pertain to transfer-related issues.
Under EPFO's January 2025 profile-update simplification, which members need only employer certification to update their details?
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Correct answer: A — Members with UAN obtained before 1 October 2017
PIB 2094229: where the UAN was obtained prior to 1 October 2017, updation requires certification of the employer only.
About how many EPFO members with pending profile-correction requests benefit immediately from the January 2025 simplification?
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Correct answer: A — 3.9 lakh
PIB 2094229: the revision will immediately benefit around 3.9 lakh members whose requests are pending.