HSSC CET Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
According to India's Second Progress Report on the Bonn Challenge, presented at UNCCD COP17 in August 2026, how much land did India bring under restoration during 2011–2020?
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Correct answer: D — 21.76 million hectares
India brought 21.76 million hectares under restoration during 2011–2020, generating about 1.22 billion person-days of employment.
Under its enhanced Bonn Challenge commitment, India aims to restore how much degraded and deforested land by 2030?
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Correct answer: C — 26 million hectares
India's initial 2015 Bonn Challenge commitment was later enhanced to 26 million hectares by 2030.
India's next Bonn Challenge reporting cycle, for 2021–2025, is being carried out in collaboration with which two bodies?
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Correct answer: A — ICFRE Centre of Excellence on Sustainable Land Management and IUCN
Yadav said the 2021–2025 cycle is being done with the ICFRE Centre of Excellence on Sustainable Land Management and IUCN, tracking area restored, financial flows and employment.
As noted at the 3rd India–Cambodia JWGTI in August 2026, what was India–Cambodia bilateral trade in 2025-26?
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Correct answer: A — USD 406.78 million
Trade grew by over 36% to USD 406.78 million in 2025-26, up from USD 299 million in the previous year.
Consider the following statements about India–Cambodia economic ties as of August 2026: 1. Cambodia is India's 8th largest trading partner in ASEAN. 2. UPI acceptance at KHQR-enabled merchants in Phnom Penh was launched in June 2026. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. Cambodia accounts for 0.31% of India's trade with ASEAN, and UPI acceptance at KHQR merchants in Phnom Penh began on 2 June 2026.
How much foreign exchange had the RBI's special USD-INR swap facility mobilised as of 21 August 2026?
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Correct answer: B — USD 73 billion
The facility mobilised USD 73 billion in under eleven weeks, of which FCNR(B) deposits made up USD 65.40 billion.
The RBI's 2026 USD-INR swap facility was compared with a similar FCNR(B) swap scheme of which earlier year that raised about USD 26 billion?
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Correct answer: D — 2013
The 2013 FCNR(B) swap scheme raised about USD 26 billion over roughly three months; the 2026 facility raised USD 73 billion in under eleven weeks.
Consider the following statements about the RBI's 2026 USD-INR swap facility: 1. It was launched on 8 June 2026. 2. The RBI extended the FCNR(B) window from 31 August to 30 September 2026. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The RBI advanced the closure of the FCNR(B) window from 30 September to 31 August 2026 because the target was met early.
Where was the 4th India–Argentina Joint Trade Committee meeting held on 24 August 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Buenos Aires
The 4th JTC was held at Palacio San Martín in Buenos Aires.
KABIL's lithium mining activities in Argentina, reviewed at the August 2026 JTC, are located in which province?
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Correct answer: D — Catamarca
KABIL's project in Catamarca is the first lithium mining initiative by an Indian company in Argentina and has completed Phase II drilling; Salta and Jujuy are being explored next.
Consider the following statements about the 4th India–Argentina JTC: 1. India–Argentina trade crossed USD 6.5 billion in 2025. 2. Argentina committed to work towards upgrading India from Annex II to Annex I in its pharmaceutical regulatory framework. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. India is also now Argentina's fifth-largest trading partner.
Where was the 2nd India–New Zealand Defence Strategic Dialogue held on 24 August 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Wellington
The second Defence Strategic Dialogue was held in Wellington on 24 August 2026.
The 2nd India–New Zealand Defence Strategic Dialogue discussed implementing which roadmap?
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Correct answer: B — Strategic Partnership Roadmap 2030
The talks focused on implementing the targets in the India–New Zealand Strategic Partnership Roadmap 2030, after ties were elevated to a Strategic Partnership.
What is the name of Kazakhstan's new single-chamber parliament, first elected on 23 August 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Kurultai
The Kurultai is the new 145-member unicameral parliament created by Kazakhstan's 2026 constitution.
Which party won Kazakhstan's first Kurultai election in August 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Adilet
The newly formed pro-government Adilet party won over 71% of the vote; it had absorbed the former ruling party Amanat.
Consider the following statements about Kazakhstan's August 2026 election: 1. The Kurultai is a two-chamber legislature. 2. Voter turnout was about 74%. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only statement 2 is correct. The Kurultai is a single-chamber body that replaced the earlier two-chamber parliament.
The August 2026 restriction covers all fixed dose combinations of chlorpheniramine maleate with which other drug?
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Correct answer: C — Phenylephrine hydrochloride
The restriction applies to all FDCs containing chlorpheniramine maleate and phenylephrine hydrochloride.
Below what age must the restricted chlorpheniramine–phenylephrine FDCs not be used, as per the mandatory warning?
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Correct answer: A — 4 years
The label must say: 'Fixed Dose Combination shall not be used in children below four years of age.'
Consider the following statements about the August 2026 FDC restriction: 1. The notification was issued under the Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897. 2. The decision followed recommendations of an Expert Committee and the Drugs Technical Advisory Board. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only statement 2 is correct. The notification was issued under Section 26A of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940.
Where were the 17–21 August 2026 talks between DR Congo and AFC/M23 held?
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Correct answer: D — Switzerland
The talks were held in Switzerland; the joint statement was released on 22 August 2026.
When was the Doha Framework for a Comprehensive Peace Agreement between DR Congo and AFC/M23 signed?
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Correct answer: A — 15 November 2025
The Doha Framework for a Comprehensive Peace Agreement was signed in Doha on 15 November 2025.
Consider the following statements about the DR Congo–AFC/M23 joint statement of 22 August 2026: 1. Togo took part as the African Union mediator. 2. The parties agreed that the order of negotiating protocols does not dictate the order of implementing them. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The statement was also issued with Qatar, the US, Switzerland and the AU Commission.
Exercise Pitch Black 2026, in which the IAF took part, was hosted by the air force of which country?
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Correct answer: A — Australia
Pitch Black 2026 was hosted by the Royal Australian Air Force, with air forces from more than 20 nations.
Where was Exercise Udara Shakti 2026 held?
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Correct answer: C — Subang, Malaysia
After Pitch Black, the IAF contingent moved directly to Subang, Malaysia, for Udara Shakti 2026 with the Royal Malaysian Air Force.
Consider the following statements about the IAF's August 2026 deployments: 1. The IAF deployed Su-30MKI fighters to Exercise Pitch Black 2026. 2. Exercise Udara Shakti 2026 was a trilateral exercise with Australia and Malaysia. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong. The IAF deployed Rafale aircraft to Pitch Black, and Udara Shakti was a bilateral exercise with the Royal Malaysian Air Force.
How much did the National Biodiversity Authority disburse under the Access and Benefit-Sharing mechanism in August 2026?
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Correct answer: D — ₹2.82 crore
The NBA disbursed ₹2.82 crore: ₹2.80 crore to State and UT biodiversity bodies and about ₹2.01 lakh to ICAR-IIHR.
Which state received the largest share of the NBA's August 2026 ABS disbursement?
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Correct answer: B — Gujarat
Gujarat received the largest share (₹44.59 lakh), followed by West Bengal and Madhya Pradesh.
Consider the following statements about the NBA's August 2026 ABS disbursement: 1. The funds came from a payment by Advanta Enterprises for genetic resources behind hybrids of cauliflower, hot pepper, okra and tomato. 2. The money was released to 27 State Biodiversity Boards and 3 UT Biodiversity Councils, besides ICAR-IIHR. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. Since the resources could not be traced to specific farmers or communities, the money was shared by crop cultivation area.
INS Sudarshini, which reached Lisbon in August 2026 on the Lokayan 26 expedition, is a:
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Correct answer: B — Sail training ship
INS Sudarshini is the Indian Navy's sail training ship, a three-masted barque.
The Lisbon stop on 22 August 2026 was INS Sudarshini's which port visit of the Lokayan 26 expedition?
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Correct answer: C — 15th
Lisbon was the ship's 15th port visit in seven months of voyage.
What is the budgetary outlay of the Mobile Phone Manufacturing Scheme notified by MeitY in August 2026?
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Correct answer: B — ₹62,500 crore
The Mobile Phone Manufacturing Scheme (MPMS) has a budgetary outlay of ₹62,500 crore.
What is the tenure of the Mobile Phone Manufacturing Scheme (MPMS)?
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Correct answer: D — FY 2026-27 to FY 2030-31
The scheme runs for five years, from FY 2026-27 to FY 2030-31; TS2 applicants may get a one-year gestation period.
Under Target Segment 2 (TS2) of the Mobile Phone Manufacturing Scheme, what incentive do Indian brands get?
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Correct answer: A — 5%, plus an additional 3% for Indian design and R&D
TS2 gives Indian brands 5%, plus an additional 3% for Indian design and R&D; up to 1.5% more is available for domestic sourcing of key components.
Consider the following statements about the Mobile Phone Manufacturing Scheme: 1. It follows the PLI scheme for Large Scale Electronics Manufacturing, whose tenure ended on 31 March 2026. 2. To be eligible under Target Segment 1, a manufacturer needs a minimum turnover of ₹10,000 crore in FY 2025-26. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. TS1 also requires existing brands to add ₹5,000 crore in sales each year over FY 2025-26.
How many FDI investments had been reported under the revised land-bordering-country framework up to 20 August 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 29
29 FDI investments with proposed FDI of ₹4,895.65 crore had been reported up to 20 August 2026.
Under the revised FDI framework of 2026, investors with non-controlling beneficial ownership from land-bordering countries up to what level can use the automatic route?
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Correct answer: B — 10%
Non-controlling LBC beneficial ownership of up to 10% can now come through the automatic route, subject to sectoral caps and reporting.
Consider the following statements about the revised FDI framework for land-bordering-country ownership: 1. It was introduced through Press Note 2 of 2026. 2. Investors using it no longer need to report any information to the government. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The investor entity may proceed without other approvals only after reporting the relevant information to the government.
Which edition of the India–UK Defence Consultative Group meeting was held in New Delhi on 21 August 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 25th
The 25th India–UK Defence Consultative Group meeting was held in New Delhi on 21 August 2026.
The Regional Maritime Security Centre of Excellence (RMSCE), noted at the India–UK DCG meeting, was set up under which initiative?
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Correct answer: A — Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI)
The two sides acknowledged the RMSCE established under the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative.
Consider the following statements about the 25th India–UK Defence Consultative Group meeting: 1. It was co-chaired by India's Defence Minister and the UK Defence Secretary. 2. It was held in London. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong. It was co-chaired by India's Defence Secretary Rajesh Kumar Singh and the UK's Permanent Under Secretary for Defence Jeremy Pocklington, in New Delhi.
What stock limit did the Centre impose on sugar dealers from 1 August to 30 November 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 400 tonnes
A stock limit of 400 tonnes was imposed on sugar dealers across the country from 1 August to 30 November 2026.
To improve sugar availability in 2026, the Centre permitted duty-free import of how much raw sugar?
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Correct answer: A — 10 LMT
As a precaution, the government permitted duty-free import of 10 lakh metric tonnes (LMT) of raw sugar.
Consider the following statements about the Centre's August 2026 note on sugar prices: 1. The government attributed the price rise mainly to diversion of sugar for ethanol. 2. Sugar production this season is expected to be about 343 LMT. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong. The government said ethanol diversion was not the cause (its share fell to about 9%), and output is expected at about 306 LMT; 343 LMT was the states' initial estimate.
Which Japanese Defence Minister held the Japan-India Defence Ministers' Meeting with Rajnath Singh in New Delhi on 20 August 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Shinjiro Koizumi
Japan's Minister of Defense Shinjiro Koizumi met Rajnath Singh in New Delhi on 20 August 2026.
The India-Japan Memorandum of Arrangement on Maritime Security Cooperation signed on 20 August 2026 specifically covers which areas?
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Correct answer: D — MDA information sharing, Search and Rescue, and HADR
The Memorandum covers cooperation between the JMSDF and the Indian Navy, including MDA information sharing and cooperation in SAR and HADR.
Under which Japan-India air force exercise, scheduled for 2026, will Japan Air Self-Defense Force fighter aircraft visit India for the first time?
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Correct answer: A — Veer Guardian 26
Under 'Veer Guardian 26', JASDF fighter aircraft will, for the first time, visit India and take part in the exercise.
Consider the following statements about the India-Japan defence engagement of 20 August 2026: 1. The Memorandum of Arrangement on Maritime Security Cooperation was signed directly between the Japan Maritime Self-Defense Force and the Indian Navy. 2. 'Dharma Guardian' is the Japan-India Army exercise. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only statement 2 is correct. The Memorandum was signed between the Ministry of Defense of Japan and the Ministry of Defence of India; it provides for JMSDF-Indian Navy cooperation. Dharma Guardian is the Army exercise and JAIMEX the maritime exercise.
With which Mauritian entity did Indian Oil Corporation sign a long-term petroleum products supply agreement on 20 August 2026?
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Correct answer: B — State Trading Corporation
IOCL and the State Trading Corporation (STC) of Mauritius exchanged a long-term sales and purchase agreement.
What is the duration of the IOCL-STC petroleum supply agreement with Mauritius?
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Correct answer: D — Five years
The IOCL-STC agreement is a five-year assured supply commitment.
Consider the following statements about India-Mauritius energy agreements of August 2026: 1. IOCL will supply the entire import requirement of Mauritius for motor spirit, high-speed diesel and aviation turbine fuel. 2. The facility at Mer Rouge, Port Louis, whose groundbreaking Hardeep Singh Puri attended, is a 27.5 MMTPA oil refinery. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The Mer Rouge project is Indian Oil (Mauritius) Ltd's 27.5 TMT (thousand metric tonnes) bunker marine fuel storage facility, not a refinery.
By how much did the Index of Core Industries grow year-on-year in July 2026 (provisional)?
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Correct answer: A — 5.4%
The ICI grew 5.4% in July 2026; June 2026 (final) was 6.0% and April-July cumulative growth was 4.3%.
Which core industry recorded the highest year-on-year growth in July 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Iron ore
Iron ore grew 29.5%, ahead of cement (13.1%), electricity (9%) and coal (7.6%).
Aboard which research vessel was most of the survey work behind CMLRE's 2026 national report on deep-sea fishery resources carried out?
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Correct answer: D — FORV Sagar Sampada
The Fishery and Oceanographic Research Vessel (FORV) Sagar Sampada served as the floating laboratory for the surveys.
Consider the following statements about CMLRE's National Report on Deep-Sea and Distant-Water Fishery Resources of the Indian EEZ: 1. It describes the mesopelagic 'twilight zone' as extending from 200 to 1,000 metres deep. 2. It covers India's Exclusive Economic Zone of about 2.37 million sq km. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The report also names biodiversity hotspots such as Kollam Bank and Angria Bank.
What was the theme of the OCHA-led World Humanitarian Day 2026 campaign?
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Correct answer: A — Families of Fallen Humanitarians
The 2026 OCHA-led campaign focused on 'Families of Fallen Humanitarians'.
World Humanitarian Day on 19 August commemorates which event?
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Correct answer: C — The 2003 bombing of the Canal Hotel in Baghdad
On 19 August 2003, a bomb attack on the Canal Hotel in Baghdad killed 22 humanitarian workers, including UN envoy Sergio Vieira de Mello.
Consider the following statements about World Humanitarian Day: 1. It was designated by a resolution of the UN Security Council. 2. The annual campaign is led by the World Health Organization. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct. The day was designated by UN General Assembly resolution 63/139, and the campaign is led by OCHA. The UN Security Council link in 2026 is the 10th anniversary of Resolution 2286 on health care in armed conflict.
At what level did the RBI's Monetary Policy Committee keep the policy repo rate at its 3-5 August 2026 meeting, as recorded in the minutes released on 19 August?
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Correct answer: B — 5.25%
The MPC unanimously kept the repo rate at 5.25%; the SDF rate is 5.00% and the MSF rate and Bank Rate are 5.50%.
The RBI Monetary Policy Committee meeting held from 3 to 5 August 2026 was its
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Correct answer: D — 62nd meeting
The minutes describe it as the sixty-second meeting of the MPC.
Consider the following statements about the RBI MPC minutes released on 19 August 2026: 1. The minutes are published under Section 45ZL of the RBI Act, 1934. 2. The MPC changed its stance from neutral to accommodative. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The MPC decided to continue with the neutral stance.
Who chaired the selection committee for the National Sports Awards 2025, announced on 18 August 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Justice (Retd.) Arun Kumar Mishra
The selection committee was chaired by former Supreme Court judge Justice (Retd.) Arun Kumar Mishra.
Which entity received the Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Army Paralympic Node, Pune
The Army Paralympic Node, Pune, was the sole entity named for the Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar 2025.
Who received the Arjuna Award (Lifetime) 2025, and in which sport?
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Correct answer: A — I. Arumainayagam, football
Footballer I. Arumainayagam received the Arjuna Award (Lifetime); the others are Dronacharya awardees.
Consider the following statements about the National Sports Awards 2025: 1. Chess players Vidit Gujrathi and Divya Deshmukh are among the Arjuna awardees. 2. The Dronacharya Award (regular category) went to coaches in athletics, boxing and shooting. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The regular Dronacharya awardees are Parveer Singh (athletics), Chhote Lal Yadav (boxing) and Neha Nandkumar Chavan (shooting).
Who was the main challenger to Hakainde Hichilema in Zambia's 2026 presidential election?
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Correct answer: B — Brian Mundubile
Brian Mundubile received about 38% of the vote, against about 60% for Hichilema.
Consider the following statements about Zambia's 2026 presidential election result: 1. Hakainde Hichilema won a second five-year term. 2. Hichilema won more than 75% of the vote. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. Hichilema won about 60% of the vote.
From when is the Incentive Scheme for Promotion of Domestic PNG Connections effective?
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Correct answer: C — 1 September 2026
The scheme, approved on 18 August 2026, is effective from 1 September 2026.
Under the Domestic PNG incentive scheme, how much additional APM gas does a CGD entity get for every incremental billed domestic connection?
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Correct answer: B — 200 SCM
Eligible CGD entities get an additional 200 SCM of domestically produced, lower-priced APM gas per incremental billed connection above the threshold.
Consider the following statements about the Domestic PNG incentive scheme: 1. India currently has about 1.74 crore domestic PNG connections. 2. The scheme runs in four tranches spread over two years. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The scheme runs in two tranches spanning six months.
How many items are on the sixth Positive Indigenisation List notified by the Department of Defence Production on 18 August 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 405
The sixth PIL has 405 strategically important items with an estimated business potential of ₹3,070 crore.
On which portal is the detailed sixth Positive Indigenisation List available?
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Correct answer: B — SRIJAN
The detailed list is available on the SRIJAN portal (srijandefence.gov.in).
Consider the following statements about the sixth Positive Indigenisation List: 1. It contains 389 items of Defence PSUs and 16 items of the Indian Coast Guard. 2. Its estimated business potential is ₹30,700 crore. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The estimated business potential is ₹3,070 crore.
Which Indian official visited Armenia on 17-18 August 2026, during which a defence MoU was signed?
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Correct answer: A — Defence Secretary Rajesh Kumar Singh
Defence Secretary Rajesh Kumar Singh visited Armenia on 17-18 August 2026.
Consider the following statements about the India-Armenia defence engagement of August 2026: 1. The two sides exchanged Terms of Reference for institutionalising Joint Services Staff Talks. 2. An IT Lab at the Armenian Military Academy has been set up with Indian assistance. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The defence ministries also signed an MoU on joint collaboration, innovation and research.
For what period did the Ministry of Defence lease two MQ-9B Sea Guardian RPAS for the Indian Navy under the contract signed on 17 August 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 30 months
The contract with GA-ASI is for leasing two MQ-9B Sea Guardian HALE RPAS for 30 months.
The approximate value of the MQ-9B Sea Guardian lease contract signed by the Ministry of Defence on 17 August 2026 is:
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Correct answer: D — ₹1,943 crore
The Ministry of Defence said the contract is valued at approximately ₹1,943 crore.
Consider the following statements about the MQ-9B lease contract of 17 August 2026: 1. The contract was signed with General Atomics Aeronautical Systems, Inc. (GA-ASI). 2. The aircraft are High-Altitude Long-Endurance (HALE) remotely piloted systems meant to boost the Navy's Maritime Domain Awareness. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the vendor is GA-ASI, and the MQ-9B Sea Guardian is a HALE RPAS that the ministry said will strengthen Maritime Domain Awareness through persistent ISR coverage.
The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2026, notified on 17 August 2026, amends which principal Act?
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Correct answer: C — MMDR Act, 1957
The 2026 Amendment Act amends the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, under which mining in India is regulated.
According to the PIB backgrounder on the MMDR Amendment Act, 2026, roughly how many taxes, charges and fees do States currently impose on mining?
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Correct answer: A — Around 14
The backgrounder said States impose around 14 taxes, charges and fees, including royalty, auction premium, dead rent, DMF payments, GST and transit fee.
Consider the following statements about the MMDR Amendment Act, 2026: 1. It completely abolishes royalty payable on major minerals. 2. It allows States to levy fresh taxes on mineral-bearing lands without any conditions. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct. The Act does not abolish royalty; it bars States from levying fresh taxes on mineral rights and mineral-bearing lands except within conditions prescribed by the Central Government.
According to the PLFS monthly bulletin for July 2026, what was the overall Labour Force Participation Rate (15 years and above, CWS)?
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Correct answer: B — 55.4%
Overall LFPR rose to 55.4% in July 2026 from 54.4% in June 2026; 58.0% is the rural LFPR and 52.5% the overall WPR.
Consider the following statements about the PLFS monthly bulletin for July 2026: 1. Female LFPR (15 years and above) rose to 34.4% from 32.7% in June 2026. 2. The overall Worker Population Ratio rose to 52.5% from 51.4% in June 2026. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the MoSPI press note on the July 2026 bulletin.
The PLFS monthly bulletin for July 2026 is which number in the monthly series that began with April 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Sixteenth
Monthly bulletins for April 2025 to June 2026 were already out, so the July 2026 bulletin is the sixteenth in the series.
On 17 August 2026, the Supreme Court directed all States to set up dedicated SITs to probe fraudulent claims in which area?
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Correct answer: A — Motor accident insurance claims
The order concerns suspected fraudulent motor accident insurance claims, including cases where the same vehicle was shown in multiple accidents.
Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court's 17 August 2026 order on fraudulent motor accident claims: 1. The SITs are to be constituted by the Union Ministry of Road Transport and Highways at the national level. 2. Top management of insurance companies will be held accountable if fraud-indicative claims are forwarded selectively. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only statement 2 is correct. The Court directed each State to form a dedicated SIT at the State level, not a single national SIT under the Union ministry.
Under the Supreme Court's 17 August 2026 directions, what must an insurer do when a Motor Accident Claims Tribunal rejects a claim on the ground of fraud or collusion?
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Correct answer: D — Forward details to the State SIT and run an in-house inquiry into collusion by its own officers
The Court directed insurers to immediately forward such cases to the SIT of the State where the claim was raised and to investigate whether their own officers colluded.