HPSC HCS Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
In which year did India achieve leprosy elimination status at the national level (prevalence rate below 1 per 10,000 population)?
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Correct answer: B — 2005
PIB (MoHFW explainer): India achieved elimination status in March 2005 at the national level, meaning a prevalence rate below 1 per 10,000 population, and has sustained it.
Nikusth 2.0, the revamped web portal for leprosy data and monitoring, was launched on which occasion?
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Correct answer: D — National Anti-Leprosy Day, 30 January 2023
PIB: Nikusth 2.0, a revamped web-based ICT portal for recording, reporting and monitoring leprosy activities, was launched on 30 January 2023 (National Anti-Leprosy Day) by the Union Health Minister.
Consider the following statements about leprosy in India: 1. As of March 2025, 31 States and 638 districts had a prevalence rate below 1 per 10,000 population. 2. The new case detection rate rose from 7.0 per 100,000 in 2014–15 to 9.73 per 100,000 in 2024–25. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: as of March 2025, 31 States and 638 districts had achieved a prevalence rate below 1 per 10,000. The new case detection rate fell (not rose) from 9.73 per 100,000 in 2014–15 to 7.0 in 2024–25.
Which Article of the Constitution entrusts Panchayats with preparing plans for economic development and social justice, the basis of the People's Plan Campaign?
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Correct answer: D — Article 243G
PIB (MoPR): Article 243G recognises Panchayats as institutions of local self-government and entrusts them with the preparation of plans for economic development and social justice; PDPs cover the 29 subjects of the Eleventh Schedule.
Consider the following statements about the People's Plan Campaign (PPC): 1. Panchayat Development Plans cover the 29 subjects listed in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution. 2. PPC 2025–26, launched on 2 October 2025, prepares Panchayat Development Plans for the financial year 2025–26. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB (MoPR): PDPs cover the 29 subjects of the Eleventh Schedule. PPC 2025–26 was launched on 2 October 2025 to prepare PDPs for the financial year 2026–27, not 2025–26.
Exercise Konkan, which began on 5 October 2025, is a bilateral exercise between the Indian Navy and which navy?
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Correct answer: C — Royal Navy (United Kingdom)
PIB (Indian Navy): Exercise KONKAN-25 is a bilateral exercise between the Indian Navy and the Royal Navy of the UK, held off India's western coast from 5 to 12 October 2025.
Consider the following statements about Exercise Konkan 2025: 1. It was conducted off the eastern coast of India in the Bay of Bengal. 2. The Indian side was represented by the carrier battle group of INS Vikrant. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. PIB: the exercise was held off the western coast of India (western seaboard), and the Indian side was represented by the carrier battle group of the indigenous aircraft carrier INS Vikrant; the UK CSG 25 was led by HMS Prince of Wales.
Which airline told DGCA in October 2025 that it would deploy about 730 additional flights across 42 sectors for the festive season?
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Correct answer: D — IndiGo
PIB (MoCA): IndiGo — about 730 additional flights across 42 sectors; Air India & Air India Express — about 486 across 20 sectors; SpiceJet — about 546 across 38 sectors.
The DGCA watches airfares, especially during festive seasons, under a mandate from which ministry?
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Correct answer: B — Ministry of Civil Aviation
PIB: the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) is mandated by the Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA) to keep a watch on airfares, especially during the festive season.
INS Sahyadri, which visited Kemaman in October 2025, is the third ship of which class of Indian Navy frigates?
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Correct answer: B — Shivalik class
PIB (Indian Navy): INS Sahyadri, indigenously designed, built and commissioned in 2012, is the third ship of the Shivalik-class guided-missile stealth frigates.
Kemaman port, where INS Sahyadri made a port call from 2 October 2025, is in which country?
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Correct answer: C — Malaysia
PIB: INS Sahyadri made a port call at Kemaman port in Malaysia on 2 October 2025; it was the ship's third visit to Malaysia.
Consider the following statements about the ₹1,500 crore Critical Mineral Recycling Incentive Scheme: 1. Its eligible feedstock includes e-waste, spent lithium-ion batteries and other scrap. 2. Its incentives are meant for units engaged only in black mass production. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB (Ministry of Mines): eligible feedstock is e-waste, spent LiBs and other scrap. Incentives are for the value chain engaged in actual extraction of critical minerals, not the value chain involved only in black mass production.
Applications under the Critical Mineral Recycling Incentive Scheme, opened on 2 October 2025, can be made up to which date?
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Correct answer: B — 1 April 2026
PIB: the scheme is open for applications from 2 October 2025 for six months, i.e. up to 1 April 2026.
According to the government explainer of October 2025, what was India's unemployment rate in 2023–24?
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Correct answer: D — 3.2%
PIB explainer: the unemployment rate fell sharply from 6.0% in 2017–18 to 3.2% in 2023–24.
Consider the following statements based on the government's October 2025 employment explainer: 1. EPFO added fewer than 1 crore net subscribers in 2024–25. 2. The share of self-employment fell from 58.4% in 2017–18 to 52.2% in 2023–24. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct. PIB: EPFO added over 1.29 crore net subscribers in 2024–25 (up from 61.12 lakh in 2018–19). Self-employment rose (not fell) from 52.2% in 2017–18 to 58.4% in 2023–24, while casual labour fell from 24.9% to 19.8%.
Before UIDAI's October 2025 waiver, what fee was charged per Mandatory Biometric Update (MBU) for a child outside the free age windows?
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Correct answer: C — ₹125
PIB (MeitY/UIDAI): the first and second MBUs were free if done at ages 5–7 and 15–17; thereafter a prescribed fee of ₹125 per MBU was charged. The waiver makes MBU effectively free for all children aged 5–17.
Consider the following statements about Aadhaar for children: 1. Fingerprints and iris biometrics are not captured for Aadhaar enrolment of children below five years of age. 2. UIDAI's waiver of MBU charges, effective 1 October 2025, will remain in force for two years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: fingerprints and iris are not captured below age five because they are not mature. The MBU charge waiver took effect on 1 October 2025 and is in force for one year, not two.
Under the amended National Highways fee rules notified in October 2025, a vehicle without a valid FASTag that pays via UPI will be charged how much of the applicable user fee?
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Correct answer: C — 1.25 times
PIB (MoRTH): non-FASTag users paying in cash will be charged twice the applicable fee, while those paying via UPI will be charged only 1.25 times (e.g. ₹100 → ₹125 by UPI, ₹200 in cash).
From which date did the National Highways Fee (Determination of Rates and Collection) (Third Amendment) Rules, 2025 come into effect?
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Correct answer: D — 15 November 2025
PIB (MoRTH): the National Highways Fee (Determination of Rates and Collection) (Third Amendment) Rules, 2025 come into effect from 15 November 2025.
During his visit to Singapore for 'India-Singapore @60' in October 2025, Piyush Goyal met which President of Singapore at the Istana?
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Correct answer: C — Tharman Shanmugaratnam
PIB (Ministry of Commerce): a highlight of the three-day visit was a meeting with H.E. Tharman Shanmugaratnam, President of the Republic of Singapore, at the Istana.
Consider the following statements about the 'India-Singapore @60' business session of 4 October 2025: 1. It marked the 60th anniversary of diplomatic relations and was co-organised by FICCI, CII and ASSOCHAM. 2. Singapore was represented at the session by its Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the session marked the 60th anniversary of India–Singapore diplomatic relations and was co-organised by FICCI, CII and ASSOCHAM. Singapore was represented by Ms Gan Siow Huang, Minister of State, Ministry of Trade & Industry — not the Prime Minister.
According to MoSPI, the free foodgrain distribution scheme launched on 1 January 2023 covers what share of the population?
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Correct answer: B — 75% rural and 50% urban
PIB (MoSPI): the free food grain distribution scheme launched by the Government of India from 1 January 2023 covers 75% of the rural and 50% of the urban population.
Which body released the Discussion Paper 2.0 on 'The Treatment of Free PDS Items in CPI Compilation' in October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
PIB: the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), which is conducting the CPI base revision, released Discussion Paper 2.0 and invited comments.
According to the Ministry of Textiles (October 2025), what was the size of India's textiles and clothing market in 2024?
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Correct answer: B — $179 billion
PIB (Ministry of Textiles): India's textiles and clothing market was $179 billion in 2024, growing at an average annual rate of over 7%; domestic demand is expected to reach $250 billion by 2030.
With the Swadeshi Campaign and other initiatives, the Ministry of Textiles expects India's total domestic textile demand to reach what level by 2030?
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Correct answer: C — $250 billion
PIB: the Ministry expects domestic demand to grow at a CAGR of 9–10% a year to reach a total domestic textile demand of $250 billion by 2030.
What period of authorisation has TRAI recommended for digital radio broadcasting by private broadcasters (October 2025)?
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Correct answer: B — 15 years
PIB (TRAI): the period of authorisation for digital radio broadcasting should be 15 years.
Consider the following statements about TRAI's October 2025 recommendations on digital radio: 1. New broadcasters should start digital radio in simulcast mode, allowing one analog, three digital and one data channel on the assigned frequency. 2. Frequencies for new channels should be assigned by auction under Section 4(4) of the Telecommunications Act, 2023. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB (TRAI): digital radio should commence in simulcast mode (one analog, three digital and one data channel on the assigned spot frequency), and frequencies for new channels should be assigned by auction in accordance with Section 4(4) of the Telecommunications Act, 2023.
TRAI has recommended an authorisation fee of what share of Adjusted Gross Revenue (AGR) for digital radio in 'A+' and 'A' category cities?
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Correct answer: A — 4%
PIB (TRAI): authorisation fee is 4% of AGR for cities of category 'A+', 'A', 'B', 'C' and 'D'; for 'Others' (border/hilly areas of NE, J&K, Ladakh and island territories) and 'E' category, 2% of AGR for the first 3 years.
What penalty did the CCPA impose on Drishti IAS in October 2025 for misleading UPSC CSE 2022 results advertisements?
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Correct answer: C — ₹5 lakh
PIB (Department of Consumer Affairs): CCPA imposed a penalty of ₹5 lakh on Drishti IAS (VDK Eduventures Pvt. Ltd.) for misleading ads claiming '216+ selections in UPSC CSE 2022'.
Under which section of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 is 'misleading advertisement' defined, as cited by the CCPA in the Drishti IAS case?
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Correct answer: B — Section 2(28)
PIB: concealing the courses taken by successful candidates was held to be a misleading advertisement under Section 2(28) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019; Section 2(9) (consumer rights) was cited for the right to make an informed choice.
The Sabar Dairy plant inaugurated by Amit Shah on 3 October 2025, built at about ₹350 crore, is located in which city?
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Correct answer: A — Rohtak
PIB (Ministry of Cooperation): Amit Shah inaugurated the Sabar Dairy Plant in Rohtak, Haryana, built at about ₹350 crore, with daily output including 150 tonnes of curd and 3 lakh litres of buttermilk.
Consider the following statements made by the Union Cooperation Minister at Rohtak on 3 October 2025: 1. India's milk processing capacity is currently 66 million litres per day. 2. The target is to raise milk processing capacity to 100 million litres per day by 2028–29. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: today the country's milk processing capacity is 66 million litres per day, targeted to reach 100 million litres per day by 2028–29.
The first paper in NITI Aayog's Tax Policy Working Paper Series–I (October 2025) deals with which issue?
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Correct answer: C — Permanent Establishment and profit attribution for foreign investors
PIB (NITI Aayog): the first working paper is titled 'Enhancing Tax Certainty in Permanent Establishment and Profit Attribution for Foreign Investors in India'.
NITI Aayog's October 2025 working paper on Permanent Establishment recommends introducing which of the following for foreign companies?
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Correct answer: D — An optional, industry-specific Presumptive Taxation Scheme
PIB (NITI Aayog): the paper recommends an optional, industry-specific Presumptive Taxation Scheme for foreign companies, with legislative clarity, administrative efficiency and robust dispute resolution; it was prepared under NITI's Consultative Group on Tax Policy.
The Adi Karmayogi Abhiyan, under which Tribal Village Vision 2030 declarations were passed, was formally inaugurated by the PM on 17 September 2025 at which place?
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Correct answer: B — Dhar
PIB (Ministry of Tribal Affairs): the Adi Karmayogi Abhiyan was formally inaugurated by the Prime Minister on 17 September 2025 at Dhar, Madhya Pradesh.
The Government has declared which period as 'Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh'?
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Correct answer: D — 15 November 2024 to 15 November 2025
PIB (Ministry of Tribal Affairs): the Government of India has declared 15 November 2024 to 15 November 2025 as Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh; the Adi Karmayogi Abhiyan was launched as part of it.
Consider the following statements about the Tribal Village Vision 2030 initiative: 1. The declarations were passed by tribal villages and tolas in Special Gram Sabhas on 2 October 2025. 2. Under 'Adi Sewa Samay', villagers contribute one hour per week of voluntary service at Adi Sewa Kendras. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: tribal villages and tolas passed the Tribal Village Vision 2030 Declaration in Special Gram Sabhas on 2 October 2025; Adi Sewa Kendras serve as single-window centres, with villagers contributing 1 hour per week of voluntary service (Adi Sewa Samay).
The Swasth Nari Sashakt Parivar Abhiyaan (17 September–2 October 2025) was jointly led by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and which other ministry?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Women and Child Development
PIB (MoHFW): the Abhiyaan was jointly led by the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare and the Ministry of Women & Child Development.
Consider the following statements about the Swasth Nari Sashakt Parivar Abhiyaan: 1. Over 18 lakh health camps were held under it. 2. It registered a footfall of nearly 10 crore citizens. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB (MoHFW): by 2 October 2025, over 18 lakh (18,08,071) health camps were held, registering a footfall of nearly 10 crore (9,85,63,619) citizens and benefiting more than 6.5 crore women.
On 3 October 2025, envoys of four nations presented credentials to President Droupadi Murmu. Which of the following countries was NOT among them?
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Correct answer: D — Croatia
PIB (President's Secretariat): the President accepted credentials from the envoys of Mauritania, Luxembourg, Canada and Slovenia. Croatia was not among them.
In October 2025, the last date for submitting new applications under the PLI Scheme for Textiles was extended up to which date?
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Correct answer: D — 31 December 2025
PIB (Ministry of Textiles): the application portal for the PLI Scheme for Textiles will remain open until 31 December 2025.
How many applications did the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme (ECMS) receive by the close of its window in September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 249
ECMS received 249 applications with proposed investment of ₹1,15,351 crore.
What is the financial outlay of the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme approved by the Union Cabinet in March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹22,919 crore
The Union Cabinet approved ECMS on 28 March 2025 with an outlay of ₹22,919 crore; ₹59,350 crore was the investment target.
By what multiple did projected production under ECMS exceed its target, as announced in October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 2.2 times
Projected production of about ₹10,34,700 crore is 2.2 times the ₹4,56,000 crore target.
Consider the following statements about the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme (ECMS): 1. The scheme is projected to create about 1,42,000 direct jobs, above its target of 91,600. 2. The application window opened on 1 May 2025 and was extended till 30 September 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct as per the MeitY release of 2 October 2025.
Which Union Minister launched the NIELIT Digital University platform on 2 October 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Ashwini Vaishnaw
Ashwini Vaishnaw, Minister of Electronics and IT, launched the NIELIT Digital University platform in New Delhi.
Which of the following was NOT among the five new NIELIT centres inaugurated on 2 October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Shillong
The five new centres are at Muzaffarpur, Balasore, Tirupati, Lunglei and Daman; Shillong was not among them.
Consider the following statements about the NIELIT Digital University launched in October 2025: 1. It will offer industry-focused programmes in fields such as AI, cybersecurity, data science and semiconductors. 2. At the launch, NIELIT exchanged MoUs with Microsoft and Zscaler, among others. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct as per the MeitY release.
Which birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi was observed on 2 October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 156th
The Vice-President paid tribute to Mahatma Gandhi at Raj Ghat on his 156th birth anniversary on 2 October 2025.
According to Union Home Minister Amit Shah on Gandhi Jayanti 2025, sales of Khadi and village industry products have risen to over how much in 11 years?
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Correct answer: D — ₹1.7 lakh crore
Amit Shah said sales rose about fivefold, from ₹33,000 crore to over ₹1.7 lakh crore.
Consider the following statements about Gandhi Jayanti observances on 2 October 2025: 1. The Vice-President attended a Sarva Dharma Prarthana at Raj Ghat. 2. While paying tribute, the Vice-President recalled Gandhiji's idea of Antyodaya. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: C. P. Radhakrishnan attended the Sarva Dharma Prarthana at Raj Ghat and recalled Gandhiji's emphasis on Antyodaya.
During which period is Wildlife Week observed in India every year?
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Correct answer: D — 2 to 8 October
Wildlife Week is observed every year from 2 to 8 October.
Where did Union Environment Minister Bhupender Yadav lay the foundation stone of 'Namo Van' to mark Wildlife Week 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Manesar, Haryana
The foundation stone of 'Namo Van' was laid at Manesar, Haryana, on 2 October 2025.
Who founded the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS), which completed 100 years in October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Dr Keshav Baliram Hedgewar
The RSS was founded by Dr Keshav Baliram Hedgewar in 1925.
Which motto did the Vice-President cite while greeting the RSS on its centenary in October 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Seva Parmo Dharmah
C. P. Radhakrishnan said RSS volunteers are guided by the motto 'Seva Parmo Dharmah'.
The Swachhata Hi Seva 2025 campaign culminated on which day?
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Correct answer: C — Swachh Bharat Diwas (2 October)
SHS 2025 ran from 17 September to 2 October 2025 and culminated on Swachh Bharat Diwas.
Consider the following statements about the Swachhata Hi Seva 2025 campaign: 1. It was organised jointly by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs and the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation. 2. By 1 October 2025, over 16 crore citizens had participated in it. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct as per the Jal Shakti Ministry release.
As clarified by the CCPA in October 2025 after GST 2.0 complaints, at what GST rate does domestic LPG continue to be taxed?
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Correct answer: D — 5%
CCPA clarified that domestic LPG continues at 5% GST, with no change under the reforms.
On 2 October 2025, the Vice-President paid tribute to Lal Bahadur Shastri at which memorial in New Delhi?
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Correct answer: C — Vijay Ghat
Vijay Ghat is Lal Bahadur Shastri's memorial; the Vice-President paid tribute there on his birth anniversary.
What was the tagline of the Fit India Freedom Run 6.0 held on Gandhi Jayanti 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Swachhta se Swasthya ki or
The tagline was 'Swachhta se Swasthya ki or', meaning towards good health through cleanliness.
What is the financial outlay of the Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses approved in October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹11,440 crore
The six-year Mission has an outlay of ₹11,440 crore.
What pulses production target does the Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses set for 2030-31?
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Correct answer: D — 350 lakh tonnes
The Mission aims to raise pulses production to 350 lakh tonnes by 2030-31.
Consider the following statements about the Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses: 1. It provides for 100% procurement of tur, urad and masoor from farmers at MSP during the next four years. 2. The Mission runs from 2024-25 to 2028-29. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the Mission runs for six years, from 2025-26 to 2030-31.