CTET Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
The Environment Audit Rules, 2025 were notified by the Union Environment Ministry on:
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Correct answer: D — 29 August 2025
MoEFCC notified the Environment Audit Rules, 2025 on 29 August 2025.
Under the Environment Audit Rules, 2025, which body certifies and registers environment auditors?
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Correct answer: C — Environment Audit Designated Agency
Auditors are certified and registered by the Environment Audit Designated Agency (EADA) notified by MoEFCC.
Under the Environment Audit Rules, 2025, an individual can become a Certified Environment Auditor through:
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Correct answer: B — Recognition of Prior Learning or the National Certification Examination
Certification is through Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) or the National Certification Examination (NCE).
Consider the following statements about the Environment Audit Rules, 2025: 1. Registered Environment Auditors will be assigned to project entities by a random assignment method. 2. The rules replace State Pollution Control Boards as the authority for monitoring environmental compliance. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the rules aim to bridge manpower and infrastructure gaps of CPCB, the Ministry's regional offices and State PCBs; The Hindu describes auditors as supplementing the work of State PCBs.
At the 15th India–Japan Annual Summit (29 August 2025), what new target was set for private investment from Japan to India over the next decade?
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Correct answer: D — JPY 10 trillion
The Joint Vision sets a new target of JPY 10 trillion of private investment, building on the 2022–2026 target of JPY 5 trillion of public and private investment and financing.
The Action Plan for India–Japan Human Resource Exchange adopted in August 2025 aims at a two-way exchange of how many people in five years?
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Correct answer: D — 5,00,000
The plan targets two-way exchange of 500,000 people, including 50,000 skilled and semi-skilled personnel from India to Japan, in the next five years.
An Implementing Arrangement signed between ISRO and JAXA at the 15th Annual Summit concerns which mission?
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Correct answer: D — Chandrayaan-5 (joint lunar polar exploration)
The ISRO–JAXA Implementing Arrangement concerns the Joint Lunar Polar Exploration Mission, i.e. the Chandrayaan-5 mission.
Consider the following statements about the India–Japan Joint Declaration on Security Cooperation (August 2025): 1. It envisages enhanced maritime domain awareness through the Information Fusion Centre – Indian Ocean Region (IFC-IOR). 2. It provides for exploring a new meeting framework on comprehensive dialogue between the Joint Staffs of the two sides. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The Declaration lists cooperation through IFC-IOR and the Indo-Pacific Partnership for Maritime Domain Awareness, and exploring a new Joint Staffs dialogue framework, among other measures.
Consider the following statements about the outcomes of PM Modi's visit to Japan (29 August 2025): 1. A Memorandum of Cooperation on the Joint Crediting Mechanism was signed to diffuse decarbonising technologies. 2. The Joint Vision for the Next Decade lays out five lines of effort. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the Joint Vision lays out eight lines of effort (economic partnership, economic security, mobility, ecological sustainability, technology and innovation, health, people-to-people and state-prefecture engagement).
At the INCOIS–NDMA conclave in Chennai (29 August 2025), which technology was announced for trial from 1 September to alert fishermen about cyclones?
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Correct answer: B — Cell-broadcast common alerting system
NDMA member Lt Gen Syed Ata Hasnain (retd) said a common alerting system through cell broadcast would be trialled from 1 September; it sounds even if the phone is on silent.
Consider the following statements based on the INCOIS–NDMA conclave of 29 August 2025: 1. 'Samudra' is a weather-alert app of INCOIS and 'Sachet' is an app of NDMA. 2. More than 32 million alert messages were sent during Cyclone Biparjoy, which hit the Odisha coast in 2023. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: Cyclone Biparjoy hit the Gujarat coast in 2023.
At the 20th CII India–Africa Business Conclave (29 August 2025), Piyush Goyal said India and Africa must work to double bilateral trade by:
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Correct answer: B — 2030
The Minister said India and Africa must work to double bilateral trade by 2030.
Consider the following statements based on Piyush Goyal's address at the 20th CII India–Africa Business Conclave: 1. India's exports to Africa are about USD 42.7 billion. 2. India runs a trade deficit of more than USD 20 billion with Africa. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: trade is fairly balanced, with exports of USD 42.7 billion and imports of USD 40 billion.
Under which regulations did TRAI register the first eight Digital Connectivity Rating Agencies in August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Rating of Properties for Digital Connectivity Regulations, 2024
The DCRAs were registered under the Rating of Properties for Digital Connectivity Regulations, 2024.
Consider the following statements about TRAI's Digital Connectivity Rating Agencies (DCRAs): 1. Their registration is valid for three years from 27 August 2025. 2. They will assign star ratings to properties for digital connectivity. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: registration is for five years from 27 August 2025. Statement 2 is correct.
The Men's Hockey Asia Cup 2025, which began on 29 August 2025, is being held in which city?
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Correct answer: D — Rajgir
The Men's Hockey Asia Cup 2025 (Hero Asia Cup Rajgir Bihar 2025) began on 29 August 2025 in Rajgir, Bihar.
Consider the following statements about the Men's Hockey Asia Cup 2025: 1. The tournament is being held in Patna, the capital of Bihar. 2. Eight teams, including Kazakhstan and Chinese Taipei, are taking part. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the venue is Rajgir, Bihar. Statement 2 is correct: Hockey India lists eight teams — India, Malaysia, Japan, China, Bangladesh, Chinese Taipei, Kazakhstan and Korea.
The State Energy Efficiency Index 2024, released on 29 August 2025, was developed by BEE in association with:
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Correct answer: C — Alliance for an Energy Efficient Economy (AEEE)
SEEI 2024 was developed by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency in association with the Alliance for an Energy Efficient Economy.
In SEEI 2024, which State was the top performer in Group 4 (States with energy consumption below 1 MToE)?
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Correct answer: A — Tripura
Tripura topped Group 4 (<1 MToE); Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh and Assam topped Groups 1, 2 and 3.
Consider the following statements about the State Energy Efficiency Index 2024: 1. It uses 66 indicators and is the sixth edition of the index. 2. Kerala has achieved 74% adoption of solar-powered agricultural pumps. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Ministry of Power release of 29 August 2025.
National Sports Day is celebrated on 29 August every year to honour:
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Correct answer: B — Major Dhyan Chand
National Sports Day is celebrated annually on 29 August to honour hockey icon Major Dhyan Chand; 2025 marked his 120th birth anniversary.
National Sports Day 2025 marked which birth anniversary of Major Dhyan Chand?
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Correct answer: D — 120th
The Sports Ministry release says the 2025 celebrations marked the 120th birth anniversary of Major Dhyan Chand.
Consider the following statements about National Sports Day 2025: 1. About 30 crore citizens took part across all States and UTs. 2. The first world-class MONDO athletics track was inaugurated at Major Dhyan Chand National Stadium. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the MONDO track was inaugurated at the Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium, New Delhi; the floral tribute was paid at the Major Dhyan Chand National Stadium.
MoSPI's workshop on 'Capacity Building of Coastal States on Development of Ocean Accounts' on 29 August 2025 was held in:
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Correct answer: C — Kochi
The workshop was held in Kochi, Kerala, with the Directorate of Economics and Statistics, Government of Kerala.
India's Ocean Ecosystem Accounts, discussed at MoSPI's Kochi workshop, are compiled in line with which framework?
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Correct answer: B — System of Environmental-Economic Accounting (SEEA)
MoSPI said the workshop aimed to improve compilation of Ocean Accounts in line with the SEEA framework, complementing GDP.
The India–Japan Economic Forum attended by PM Modi and PM Ishiba in Tokyo on 29 August 2025 was organised by CII and:
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Correct answer: C — Keidanren
The Forum was organised by the Confederation of Indian Industry and Keidanren (Japan Business Federation).
At the India–Japan Economic Forum (29 August 2025), PM Modi said India contributes about what share of global growth?
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Correct answer: C — 18%
The Prime Minister stated that India was contributing around 18% to global growth.
In August 2025, the Ministry of Education approved ₹385.27 crore through HEFA for infrastructure expansion at which university?
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Correct answer: A — Central University of Tamil Nadu, Thiruvarur
The funding is for the Central University of Tamil Nadu (CUTN), Thiruvarur, through the Higher Education Financing Agency.
According to UDISE+ 2024-25, which milestone was reached for the first time since UDISE+ began?
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Correct answer: B — Number of teachers crossed 1 crore
For the first time, the total number of teachers crossed 1 crore (1,01,22,420) in 2024-25.
As per UDISE+ 2024-25, the dropout rate at the Secondary stage was:
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Correct answer: C — 8.2%
The Secondary dropout rate fell from 10.9% in 2023-24 to 8.2% in 2024-25; 3.5% is the Middle-stage rate.
The Pupil-Teacher Ratio at the Secondary level reported in UDISE+ 2024-25 is:
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Correct answer: A — 21
PTRs are 10 (Foundational), 13 (Preparatory), 17 (Middle) and 21 (Secondary), all better than the NEP norm of 30:1.
Consider the following statements about UDISE+ 2024-25: 1. The number of teachers rose by about 6.7% compared with 2022-23. 2. The retention rate at the Secondary level is above 75%. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: Secondary-level retention rose from 45.6% to 47.2%.
The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana, which completed 11 years in August 2025, was launched on:
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Correct answer: B — 28 August 2014
PMJDY was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 28 August 2014.
As per the Finance Ministry (August 2025), how many Jan Dhan accounts have been opened in 11 years?
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Correct answer: C — More than 56 crore
More than 56 crore Jan Dhan accounts have been opened, with deposits of ₹2.68 lakh crore.
What share of PMJDY accounts belong to women, according to the Finance Minister in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 56%
56% of PMJDY accounts are opened by women; 67% are in rural or semi-urban areas.
Consider the following statements about PMJDY as of August 2025: 1. More than 38 crore free RuPay cards have been issued to account holders. 2. Under a saturation campaign, camps are being held in each of the 2.7 lakh gram panchayats. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Finance Ministry release of 28 August 2025.
As per the Finance Ministry, how much was credited to bank accounts under various DBT schemes during FY 2024-25 through the JAM trinity?
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Correct answer: A — ₹6.9 lakh crore
₹6.9 lakh crore was credited under DBT schemes in FY 2024-25; ₹2.68 lakh crore is the total PMJDY deposit balance.
India signed an MoU on technical cooperation in agriculture and allied sectors in August 2025 with which country, in its capital Thimphu?
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Correct answer: D — Bhutan
The India–Bhutan MoU was signed in Thimphu, followed by the first Joint Technical Working Group meeting.
Consider the following statements about the India–Bhutan agriculture MoU (August 2025): 1. It was signed at the level of Agriculture Secretaries of the two countries. 2. A Joint Technical Working Group met for the first time after the signing. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: Secretaries Devesh Chaturvedi and Thinley Namgyel signed it, and the first JTWG session followed.
The 7th meeting of the India–Saudi Arabia Joint Committee on Defence Cooperation was held on 28 August 2025 in:
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Correct answer: A — New Delhi
The 7th JCDC meeting took place in New Delhi on 28 August 2025.
Consider the following statements about India–Saudi Arabia defence ties (August 2025): 1. A Ministerial Committee on Defence Cooperation was added under the Strategic Partnership Council during the PM's visit to Saudi Arabia in April 2025. 2. At the 7th JCDC, Saudi Arabia offered to provide training to the Indian Armed Forces. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: it was India that offered to provide training to the Saudi Armed Forces.
As per MoSPI's quick estimate, India's Index of Industrial Production grew by how much in July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 3.5%
IIP grew 3.5% in July 2025; 5.4% was manufacturing growth and 1.5% was June's IIP growth.
Consider the following statements about the IIP release of 28 August 2025: 1. The mining sector contracted in July 2025. 2. Under the revised calendar, the IIP quick estimate is released on the 12th of every month. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: mining fell 7.2%. Statement 2 is wrong: the quick estimate is now released on the 28th of every month.
The ₹60,000 crore National Scheme for ITI Upgradation, discussed at Kaushal Manthan (Chandigarh, 28 August 2025), aims to transform how many Government ITIs?
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Correct answer: A — 1,000
The scheme seeks to transform 1,000 Government ITIs through a hub-and-spoke model led by industry-led SPVs.
Consider the following statements about the 'Kaushal Manthan' conference of 28 August 2025: 1. It was a Regional Conference of Skill Ministers held in Chandigarh. 2. The ITI upgradation scheme discussed there follows a hub-and-spoke model led by industry-led special purpose vehicles. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the MSDE release of 28 August 2025.
The end-to-end semiconductor OSAT pilot line of CG Power inaugurated on 28 August 2025 is located at:
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Correct answer: B — Sanand, Gujarat
The CG Power OSAT pilot line facility was inaugurated at Sanand, Gujarat.
In semiconductor manufacturing, 'OSAT' stands for:
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Correct answer: B — Outsourced Semiconductor Assembly and Test
OSAT means Outsourced Semiconductor Assembly and Test – the back-end packaging and testing of chips.
Consider the following statements made at the inauguration of the Sanand OSAT pilot line (28 August 2025): 1. The India Semiconductor Mission has approved ten projects so far. 2. Twenty student-designed chips have been fabricated at SCL Mohali. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the MeitY release of 28 August 2025.
Under the draft amendments to the NDCT Rules, 2019 published on 28 August 2025, the statutory processing time for test licence applications is proposed to be reduced from 90 days to:
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Correct answer: D — 45 days
The draft reduces the overall statutory processing time for test licence applications from 90 days to 45 days.
In the context of drug regulation, 'BA/BE studies', addressed in the draft NDCT amendments of August 2025, stand for:
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Correct answer: B — Bioavailability / Bioequivalence studies
The draft amendments concern applications for Bioavailability/Bioequivalence (BA/BE) studies.
Consider the following statements about the draft amendments to the New Drugs and Clinical Trials Rules, 2019 (August 2025): 1. Test licences for all drugs, including high-risk categories, will be replaced by an intimation system. 2. The Ministry expects the number of licence applications to fall by about 50%. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: a small category of high-risk drugs is excluded from the intimation system. Statement 2 is correct.
On 28 August 2025, the Centre extended the import duty exemption on cotton (HS 5201) till:
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Correct answer: C — 31 December 2025
The exemption, originally from 19 August to 30 September 2025, was extended till 31 December 2025.
The temporary import duty exemption on cotton, later extended in August 2025, had originally come into force on:
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Correct answer: D — 19 August 2025
The Centre had temporarily exempted cotton from import duty from 19 August 2025 till 30 September 2025.
The Union Cabinet approved India's bid for the Commonwealth Games 2030 on 27 August 2025. Which city has been put forward as the host?
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Correct answer: B — Ahmedabad
The Cabinet release describes Ahmedabad as an ideal host city and provides for grant-in-aid to the Gujarat Government if the bid is accepted.
As per the Cabinet release on the CWG 2030 bid, athletes from how many countries will participate in the Games?
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Correct answer: D — 72
The release states that athletes from 72 countries will participate in the Commonwealth Games.
Consider the following statements about the Cabinet decision of 27 August 2025 on CWG 2030: 1. The Cabinet approved signing a Host Collaboration Agreement and grant-in-aid to the Gujarat Government in case the bid is accepted. 2. The proposed host city's Narendra Modi Stadium hosted the 2023 ICC Cricket World Cup Final. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Cabinet release of 27 August 2025.
The proposal to submit India's bid for the Commonwealth Games 2030, approved by the Union Cabinet in August 2025, was moved by which Ministry?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports
The Cabinet approved the proposal of the Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports for submission of the bid.
Under the restructuring approved on 27 August 2025, the lending period of the PM SVANidhi scheme has been extended till:
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Correct answer: C — 31 March 2030
The Cabinet extended the lending period of PM SVANidhi until 31 March 2030.
Under the restructured PM SVANidhi scheme (August 2025), the first-tranche loan amount has been raised to up to:
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Correct answer: A — ₹15,000
First-tranche loans rise to ₹15,000 from ₹10,000; second-tranche loans rise to ₹25,000 from ₹20,000.
What is the total outlay of the restructured PM SVANidhi scheme approved by the Cabinet in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹7,332 crore
The total outlay is ₹7,332 crore; ₹13,797 crore is the amount of loans already disbursed as of 30 July 2025.
Consider the following statements about the restructured PM SVANidhi scheme (August 2025): 1. A UPI-linked RuPay Credit Card will be provided to beneficiaries who have repaid the second loan. 2. The third-tranche loan has been raised from ₹50,000 to ₹75,000. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the third tranche remains unchanged at ₹50,000.
The additional US ad valorem duty on products of India imposed by Executive Order 14329, which took effect on 27 August 2025, is:
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Correct answer: B — 25%
EO 14329 imposed an additional ad valorem duty of 25 percent on imports of articles of India, effective 12:01 a.m. EDT on 27 August 2025.
According to the US Federal Register notice, the additional duty on Indian goods under Executive Order 14329 was imposed because India was:
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Correct answer: D — Directly or indirectly importing Russian Federation oil
The notice says the duty was imposed on articles of India, 'which is directly or indirectly importing Russian Federation oil'.
Consider the following statements about the US duty on Indian goods effective 27 August 2025: 1. Executive Order 14329 was issued under the International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA). 2. The new duty replaces the additional duty on Indian goods under the reciprocal-tariff order EO 14257. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the CBP notice says the duty applies in addition to the duty under EO 14257.
Under the CBP Federal Register notice on the additional duty on Indian goods, articles already loaded and in transit before 12:01 a.m. EDT on 27 August 2025 are exempt if entered for consumption before:
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Correct answer: C — 17 September 2025
Heading 9903.01.85 exempts such in-transit goods if entered (or withdrawn from warehouse) for consumption before 12:01 a.m. EDT on 17 September 2025.
Multilateral Exercise Bright Star, in which over 700 Indian personnel were set to participate from 28 August 2025, is hosted by:
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Correct answer: A — Egypt, in conjunction with the US
Exercise Bright Star is hosted by Egypt in conjunction with the US since 1980.
Exercise Bright Star, one of the largest tri-service multilateral exercises in its region, is held:
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Correct answer: B — Biennially
The exercise is held biennially; the previous edition took place in 2023.
The new rail line approved by the Cabinet on 27 August 2025 to connect Dholavira, Narayan Sarovar and Lakhpat fort is located in which region?
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Correct answer: B — Kutch
The Deshalpar–Hajipir–Luna and Vayor–Lakhpat new line will connect far-flung areas of Kutch, Gujarat.
What is the approximate total cost of the four railway projects approved by the Union Cabinet on 27 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹12,328 crore
The four projects together cost about ₹12,328 crore; ₹2,526 crore is the Kutch new line alone and ₹5,012 crore is the Secunderabad–Wadi line.
Consider the following statements about the railway projects approved on 27 August 2025: 1. The Secunderabad (Sanathnagar)–Wadi 3rd and 4th line spans Karnataka and Telangana. 2. The Bhagalpur–Jamalpur 3rd line is in Bihar. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Cabinet release; the Furkating–New Tinsukia doubling is the Assam project.
According to the Annual Survey of Industries 2023-24, which state ranked first in terms of employment?
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Correct answer: A — Tamil Nadu
Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka are the top five states by employment, in that order.
As per ASI 2023-24 results released on 27 August 2025, Gross Value Added in the sector grew in current prices by:
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Correct answer: B — 11.89%
GVA grew 11.89% in current prices; output grew more than 5.80% and employment 5.92%.
Consider the following statements about the Annual Survey of Industries 2023-24: 1. Gujarat ranked first among states in terms of employment. 2. The sector added about 57 lakh jobs during 2014-15 to 2023-24. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: Tamil Nadu ranked first and Gujarat second. Statement 2 is correct.
According to Union Minister Jitendra Singh (August 2025), India's bioeconomy was valued at about how much in 2024?
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Correct answer: D — $165.7 billion
India's bioeconomy grew from $10 billion in 2014 to $165.7 billion in 2024; $300 billion is the 2030 target.
India's first Biomanufacturing Institute, cited as an achievement in the first year of the BioE3 Policy, was inaugurated at:
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Correct answer: A — Mohali
The Minister highlighted the inauguration of India's first Biomanufacturing Institute at Mohali.
The tri-service seminar 'Ran Samwad', at which the CDS released two joint doctrines on 27 August 2025, was held at:
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Correct answer: D — Army War College, Dr Ambedkar Nagar (MP)
Ran Samwad was held at the Army War College in Dr Ambedkar Nagar, Madhya Pradesh.
Which two Joint Doctrines did CDS General Anil Chauhan release at Ran Samwad on 27 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Special Forces Operations and Airborne & Heliborne Operations
The two doctrines released were for Special Forces Operations and for Airborne & Heliborne Operations.
Which helicopters did the IAF press into service for flood rescue in the Jammu region and northern Punjab in August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Five Mi-17 and one Chinook
Five Mi-17 helicopters and one Chinook were pressed into service from bases in the Northern Sector.
During the IAF's flood relief operations reported on 27 August 2025, 46 stranded civilians were evacuated and over 750 kg of relief material air-dropped in which area?
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Correct answer: D — Pathankot
IAF helicopters evacuated 46 civilians and air-dropped over 750 kg of relief material in the Pathankot area, Punjab.
Which vehicle, described as Suzuki's first Made-in-India global strategic Battery Electric Vehicle, was flagged off by PM Modi at Hansalpur on 26 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — e VITARA
The PM inaugurated and flagged off the e VITARA, Suzuki's first Made-in-India global strategic BEV.
At the Hansalpur event (August 2025), PM Modi said electric vehicles made in India would be exported to how many countries?
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Correct answer: D — 100
The PM said that starting that day, electric vehicles manufactured in India would be exported to 100 countries.
Consider the following statements made by PM Modi at Hansalpur on 26 August 2025: 1. Under a new TDSG initiative, three Japanese companies will jointly manufacture battery cells in India for the first time. 2. Land at Hansalpur was allotted to Maruti Suzuki in 2012, when he was Chief Minister of Gujarat. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the PMO release of 26 August 2025.
PM Modi, speaking at Hansalpur in August 2025, recalled that the Government of India had conferred which award on the late Osamu Suzuki?
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Correct answer: A — Padma Vibhushan
The PM said the Government of India had the honour of conferring the Padma Vibhushan upon Osamu Suzuki.