SF Prep

CDS Current Affairs Quiz — All time

Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.

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3688 news · 9452 MCQs
Score: 0 / 0 attempted · 64 questions
CEA's 52nd Foundation Day: roadmap for 100 GW nuclear by 2047, Brahmaputra hydro evacuation plan, EADMS portal
Q1 Advanced

The Central Electricity Authority released a roadmap on its 52nd Foundation Day (11 October 2025) for which nuclear capacity goal?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 100 GW by 2047

PIB: CEA released the 'Road Map for Achieving the Goal of 100 GW of Nuclear Capacity by 2047'.

Q2 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Central Electricity Authority (CEA): 1. The CEA was set up in 1983. 2. On its 52nd Foundation Day it launched the EADMS portal for reporting and analysing electrical accidents. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 only

Only 2 is correct. PIB: the CEA Chairperson recalled the Authority's journey since its inception in 1973 (not 1983); the EADMS portal was launched as a central platform for reporting, analysing and minimising electrical accidents.

India–EFTA TEPA explainer: $100 billion investment and 1 million jobs pledge, in force since 1 October 2025
Q3

On which date did the India–EFTA Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) come into force?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 1 October 2025

PIB: TEPA was signed on 10 March 2024 in New Delhi and came into force on 1 October 2025.

Q4 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the India–EFTA TEPA: 1. EFTA states have pledged to increase FDI in India by $50 billion in the first 10 years and by a further $50 billion in the next five years. 2. India has offered tariff concessions on 92.2% of its tariff lines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. PIB: under Article 7.1, EFTA pledged $50 billion FDI in the first 10 years and another $50 billion in the next five; it is EFTA that offers concessions on 92.2% of tariff lines — India offers 82.7%.

ANRF Executive Council approves Special Purpose Fund and guidelines for ₹1 lakh crore RDI scheme
Q5 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Research, Development and Innovation (RDI) scheme: 1. The Union Cabinet approved the ₹1 lakh crore RDI Fund on 1 July 2025. 2. The Special Purpose Fund within ANRF will invest directly in startups and industries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. PIB: the Cabinet approved the ₹1 lakh crore RDI Fund on 1 July 2025; the Special Purpose Fund will not invest directly in industries and startups but will channel capital to second-level fund managers such as AIFs, DFIs and NBFCs.

Q6

Which department is the nodal ministry for the ₹1 lakh crore RDI scheme?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Department of Science & Technology

PIB: the Department of Science & Technology (DST) is the nodal ministry of the RDI scheme.

Manohar Lal at G20 Energy Transitions Ministerial in KwaZulu-Natal backs Africa's Mission 300
Q7 Advanced

Africa's 'Mission 300', which India backed at the G20 Energy Transitions Ministerial in October 2025, aims to:

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Electrify 300 million Africans by 2030

PIB: Manohar Lal reaffirmed India's support for Africa's Mission 300 — an initiative to electrify 300 million Africans by 2030.

Q8 Advanced

Consider the following statements made at the G20 Energy Transitions Ministerial Meeting (October 2025): 1. The Global Biofuels Alliance now includes 32 countries and 14 international organisations. 2. Bharat Urja Manthan – A Global Energy Conclave is scheduled for March 2026 in New Delhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct. PIB: Manohar Lal said the Global Biofuels Alliance now has 32 countries and 14 international organisations, and invited countries to Bharat Urja Manthan, scheduled for March 2026 in New Delhi.

India's best-ever World Para Athletics Championships: 22 medals, 10th place; Mandaviya felicitates athletes
Q9

What was India's result at the New Delhi 2025 World Para Athletics Championships?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 22 medals; 10th place

PIB: India finished 10th overall with a record 22 medals — 6 gold, 9 silver and 7 bronze — its best-ever performance at the championships.

Q10 Advanced

At which venue were the New Delhi 2025 World Para Athletics Championships held?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium

PIB: the championships were held at the Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium, with over 2,100 participants from 100 countries in 186 medal events.

MeitY holds India–AI Impact Summit 2026 pre-summit events at IMC; summit set for 19–20 February 2026
Q11

When is the India–AI Impact Summit 2026 scheduled to be held in New Delhi?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 19–20 February 2026

PIB: the India AI-Impact Summit 2026, hosted by MeitY, will be held on 19–20 February 2026 in New Delhi.

Q12 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the India–AI Impact Summit 2026: 1. It is guided by three sutras — People, Planet and Progress. 2. Its seven thematic chakras include 'Science' and 'Democratizing AI Resources'. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct. PIB: the summit is guided by the sutras of People, Planet and Progress, translated into seven chakras, including Science and Democratizing AI Resources.

NITI Aayog tax paper finds Income-tax Act, 2025 still criminalises 35 acts; proposes decriminalisation roadmap
Q13 Advanced

According to NITI Aayog's tax working paper of October 2025, the Income-tax Act, 2025 continues to criminalise how many actions and omissions?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 35 across 13 provisions

PIB: the paper highlights that the 2025 Act continues to criminalise 35 actions and omissions across 13 provisions, most prescribing mandatory imprisonment.

Q14 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the NITI Tax Policy Working Paper Series: 1. The first paper in the series dealt with Permanent Establishment and profit attribution for foreign investors in India. 2. The second paper recommends removing criminal sanctions even for cases of fraud and wilful evasion. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. PIB: the first paper was on certainty, transparency and uniformity in Permanent Establishment and profit attribution for foreign investors; the second paper recommends restricting criminal sanctions to cases involving fraud or wilful evasion, not removing them.

India and UK launch India–UK Connectivity & Innovation Centre with £24 million over four years
Q15 Advanced

What combined initial funding have India and the UK committed to the India–UK Connectivity and Innovation Centre?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — £24 million over four years

PIB: India and the UK have committed a combined initial £24 million over four years to the initiative.

Q16 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the India–UK Connectivity and Innovation Centre: 1. Its three focus areas are AI in telecom, quantum communication and semiconductor design. 2. It is delivered jointly by UKRI and India's Department of Telecommunications under the UK-India Technology Security Initiative. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 only

Only 2 is correct. PIB: the three focus areas are transforming telecom with AI, non-terrestrial networks and telecom cybersecurity (not quantum or semiconductors); the Centre is delivered by UKRI and DoT under the UK-India Technology Security Initiative.

Rajnath Singh co-chairs maiden India–Australia Defence Industry Business Round Table in Sydney, visits HMAS Kuttabul
Q17

Which Australian naval facility in Sydney did Rajnath Singh visit on 10 October 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — HMAS Kuttabul

PIB: Rajnath Singh visited the historic and strategic naval facility HMAS Kuttabul in Sydney on 10 October 2025.

Q18 Advanced

In which year was the India–Australia Comprehensive Strategic Partnership established, as recalled by Rajnath Singh in Sydney?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 2020

PIB: Rajnath Singh spoke of the Comprehensive Strategic Partnership 2020 as the banner for re-positioning defence relations.

Q19 Advanced

Consider the following statements from Rajnath Singh's address at the India–Australia Defence Industry Business Round Table (October 2025): 1. Australia has identified India as a 'Top Tier Partner', removing certain regulatory barriers to technology sharing. 2. India allows FDI in defence up to 49% under the automatic route. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. PIB: Rajnath Singh said Australia has identified India as a Top Tier Partner; he said the FDI policy has been liberalised up to 74% (not 49%) under the automatic route.

NITI Aayog's 'Roadmap for Job Creation in the AI Economy' sees up to 4 million new tech jobs in five years
Q20 Advanced

According to NITI Aayog's 'Roadmap for Job Creation in the AI Economy' (October 2025), India's tech services sector could create up to how many new jobs in the next five years?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 4 million

PIB: the roadmap says India's tech services sector has the opportunity to create up to 4 million new jobs in the next five years.

Q21 Advanced

Consider the following statements about NITI Aayog's 'Roadmap for Job Creation in the AI Economy': 1. It was developed by NITI Aayog's Frontier Tech Hub in collaboration with NASSCOM and BCG. 2. It recommends launching a National AI Talent Mission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct. PIB: the roadmap was developed by NITI's Frontier Tech Hub with NASSCOM and BCG, and recommends a National AI Talent Mission working with the IndiaAI Mission.

World Mental Health Day: Nadda launches Tele MANAS app upgrades; Deepika Padukone named Mental Health Ambassador
Q22

Who was designated Mental Health Ambassador by the Union Health Ministry on World Mental Health Day 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Deepika Padukone

PIB: J P Nadda said Deepika Padukone has been designated as the Mental Health Ambassador for raising awareness about access to mental health services.

Q23 Advanced

After the October 2025 upgrade, the Tele MANAS app is available in how many regional languages in addition to English and Hindi?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 10

PIB: the Tele MANAS app will now be available in 10 regional languages in addition to English and Hindi.

Jitin Prasada at G20 Trade & Investment Ministers' Meeting in Gqeberha seeks restored WTO appellate body
Q24

In which South African city was the G20 Trade & Investment Ministers' Meeting held in October 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Gqeberha

PIB: MoS Jitin Prasada participated in Day-1 proceedings of the G20 Trade & Investment Ministers' Meeting (TIMM) in Gqeberha.

Q25 Advanced

Consider the following statements: 1. At the G20 TIMM in October 2025, India called for restoring a fully functional two-tier WTO dispute settlement system with an operational Appellate Body. 2. The G20 comprises 20 countries and the European Union. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. PIB: Jitin Prasada called for a fully functional two-tier dispute settlement system with an operational appellate body; the G20 comprises 19 countries, the European Union and the African Union.

UK PM Keir Starmer's first official India visit: missile deal, university campuses, critical minerals and JETCO reset
Q26

During UK PM Keir Starmer's October 2025 visit, which UK university received in-principle approval to open a campus in GIFT City?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — University of Surrey

PIB (list of outcomes): in-principle approval was given for opening a campus of the University of Surrey in GIFT City; Lancaster University received an LoI for Bengaluru.

Q27 Advanced

India and the UK agreed in October 2025 to proceed via the government-to-government route on an initial supply of which missile system?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Lightweight Multirole Missile (LMM)

PIB (joint statement): both leaders announced agreement to proceed via the government-to-government route on an initial supply of Lightweight Multirole Missile (LMM) systems to support India's air defence.

Q28 Advanced

Consider the following statements about UK PM Keir Starmer's visit to India (October 2025): 1. Phase II of the UK-India Critical Minerals Supply Chain Observatory includes a new satellite campus at IIT-ISM Dhanbad. 2. It was Starmer's second official visit to India as Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. PIB: Phase II of the Observatory will establish a new satellite campus at IIT-ISM Dhanbad; the joint statement says this was Prime Minister Starmer's first official visit to India.

Textiles Ministry eases PLI scheme for MMF and technical textiles; minimum investment halved
Q29 Advanced

Under the October 2025 amendments to the PLI scheme for textiles, the minimum investment for new applicants in the Part-1 category was reduced to:

Show answer

Correct answer: B — ₹150 crore

PIB: with effect from 1 August 2025, the minimum investment for new applicants was reduced from ₹300 crore to ₹150 crore in Part-1 and from ₹100 crore to ₹50 crore in Part-2.

Q30 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the amended PLI scheme for textiles: 1. The incremental turnover required to qualify for incentives has been reduced from 25% to 10%. 2. The application portal has been opened until 31 March 2026. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. PIB: from FY 2025–26 applicants need a minimum 10% incremental turnover (down from 25%); the application portal is open until 31 December 2025, not 31 March 2026.

Inaugural Australia–India Defence Ministers' Dialogue in Canberra; submarine rescue arrangement signed
Q31 Advanced

Which India–Australia implementing arrangement was signed at the inaugural Defence Ministers' Dialogue in October 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Mutual Submarine Rescue Support and Cooperation

PIB (joint statement): ministers welcomed the signing of the Australia–India Implementing Arrangement on Mutual Submarine Rescue Support and Cooperation; the air-to-air refuelling arrangement had been signed in 2024.

Q32 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Australia–India Defence Ministers' Dialogue (October 2025): 1. It was the inaugural edition, and the ministers agreed to hold it annually. 2. Australia's first defence trade mission to India took place from 7 to 10 October 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct. PIB: the October 2025 meeting was the inaugural Australia–India Defence Ministers' Dialogue, with a commitment to an annual dialogue; ministers welcomed Australia's first defence trade mission to India from 7 to 10 October 2025.

Tobacco Free Youth Campaign 3.0 launched: 60-day drive, 4th National Tobacco Testing Laboratory at NIMHANS
Q33 Advanced

What is the duration of the Tobacco Free Youth Campaign 3.0 launched in October 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 60 days

PIB: the 60-day Tobacco Free Youth Campaign 3.0 prioritises six enhanced key strategies.

Q34 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Tobacco Free Youth Campaign: 1. The first campaign was launched on 31 May 2023 to mark World No Tobacco Day. 2. At the launch of TFYC 3.0, the 4th National Tobacco Testing Laboratory was dedicated at AIIMS, New Delhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. PIB: the inaugural campaign was launched on 31 May 2023 to mark World No Tobacco Day; the 4th National Tobacco Testing Laboratory was dedicated at NIMHANS, Bengaluru, not AIIMS.

NPS and APY assets under management cross ₹16 lakh crore; subscribers top 9 crore
Q35

In October 2025 the combined assets under management of NPS and Atal Pension Yojana crossed which mark?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — ₹16 lakh crore

PIB: the combined AUM of NPS and APY crossed the ₹16 lakh crore mark on 9 October 2025.

Q36 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the pension sector (October 2025): 1. The combined subscriber base of NPS and APY has surpassed 9 crore. 2. PFRDA's Multiple Scheme Framework became effective from 1 April 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. PIB: the subscriber base has surpassed 9 crore; the Multiple Scheme Framework is effective from 1 October 2025, not 1 April 2025.

Mines Ministry holds roadshow for Tranche VI auction of 23 critical and strategic mineral blocks
Q37 Advanced

How many critical and strategic mineral blocks are offered in Tranche VI of the auction launched in September 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 23

PIB: Tranche VI, launched on 16 September 2025, includes 23 critical and strategic mineral blocks — 19 composite licences and 4 mining leases.

Q38 Advanced

Consider the following statements about Tranche VI of the critical mineral block auction: 1. It comprises 19 composite licences and 4 mining leases. 2. It was launched by the Ministry of Mines on 16 September 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct. PIB: Tranche VI was launched on 16 September 2025 and includes 23 blocks — 19 composite licences and 4 mining leases.

CCRAS's AI-ready DRAVYA portal to catalogue 100 Ayush substances in first phase
Q39

How many medicinal substances will the CCRAS DRAVYA portal catalogue in its first phase?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 100

PIB: in its first phase, the DRAVYA portal aims to catalogue information on 100 key medicinal substances.

NITI Aayog roadmap 'AI for Inclusive Societal Development' proposes Mission Digital ShramSetu for 490 million informal workers
Q40 Advanced

NITI Aayog's October 2025 roadmap 'AI for Inclusive Societal Development' proposes which national mission for informal workers?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Mission Digital ShramSetu

PIB: NITI Aayog called for Mission Digital ShramSetu, a proposed national mission to make AI accessible, affordable and impactful for every worker.

Q41 Advanced

Consider the following statements about NITI Aayog's roadmap 'AI for Inclusive Societal Development' (October 2025): 1. It focuses on India's 490 million informal workers. 2. It warns that on the current trajectory, informal workers' average annual income will stagnate at $6,000 by 2047, against a $14,500 target. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct. PIB: the study explores how AI can transform the lives of India's 490 million informal workers and warns that at the current trajectory their average annual income will stagnate at $6,000 by 2047, far below the $14,500 target.

Piyush Goyal co-chairs first India–Qatar Joint Commission in Doha; goal to double trade by 2030, UPI launched in Qatar
Q42

At the first meeting of the upgraded India–Qatar Joint Commission (October 2025), the two sides set a goal of doubling bilateral trade by:

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2030

PIB: the sides set a shared goal of doubling bilateral trade by 2030.

Q43 Advanced

Consider the following statements about Piyush Goyal's October 2025 visit to Qatar: 1. The upgraded Joint Commission replaced the earlier Joint Working Group on Trade and Commerce. 2. India–Qatar bilateral trade in 2024–25 was over USD 24 billion. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. PIB: it was the first meeting of the upgraded Joint Commission, elevated from the earlier Joint Working Group on Trade and Commerce; trade was valued at over USD 14 billion in 2024–25.

Labour Ministry releases draft 'Shram Shakti Niti 2025' — National Labour & Employment Policy — for public feedback
Q44 Advanced

The draft Shram Shakti Niti 2025 is described as rooted in which civilisational ethos?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Śrama dharma

PIB: the policy is rooted in India's civilisational ethos of śrama dharma — the dignity and moral value of work.

Q45 Advanced

Under the draft National Labour & Employment Policy – Shram Shakti Niti 2025, which platform is to serve as India's Digital Public Infrastructure for Employment?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — National Career Service (NCS)

PIB: the National Career Service (NCS) platform will serve as India's Digital Public Infrastructure for Employment, enabling job matching, credential verification and skill alignment.

India wins ISSA 'Outstanding Achievement in Social Security' Award 2025; social protection cover 19% → 64.3%
Q46 Advanced

Which country received the ISSA award for outstanding achievement in social security immediately before India (in 2022)?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Iceland

PIB: previous recipients include Brazil (2013), China (2016), Rwanda (2019) and Iceland (2022).

Q47 Advanced

Consider the following statements: 1. According to the ILO, India's social protection coverage rose from 19% in 2015 to 64.3% in 2025. 2. The ISSA award for outstanding achievement in social security is presented every year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. PIB: coverage expanded from 19% in 2015 to 64.3% in 2025, as highlighted by the ILO; the ISSA Award is presented once every three years at the World Social Security Forum.

Q48 Advanced

India's vote share in the ISSA General Assembly has been raised to which number, the maximum permissible for any member country?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 30

PIB: Dr Mandaviya stressed the rise in India's vote share in the ISSA General Assembly to 30, the maximum permissible limit for any member country.

PM Surya Ghar: public sector banks sanction 5.79 lakh rooftop-solar loans worth ₹10,907 crore
Q49 Advanced

As of September 2025, public sector banks had sanctioned loans under PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana amounting to about:

Show answer

Correct answer: D — ₹10,907 crore

PIB: as of September 2025, PSBs had sanctioned over 5.79 lakh loan applications amounting to ₹10,907 crore.

Q50 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the model loan scheme under PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana: 1. It offers collateral-free loans of up to ₹2 lakh. 2. It provides a 12-month moratorium from disbursement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. PIB: the model loan scheme offers loans up to ₹2 lakh without collateral and a 6-month moratorium period from disbursement.

7th India–Brazil Trade Monitoring Mechanism meets in New Delhi; India–MERCOSUR PTA expansion discussed
Q51 Advanced

During PM Modi's July 2025 State visit to Brazil, India and Brazil set a target of raising bilateral trade within five years to:

Show answer

Correct answer: B — USD 20 billion

PIB: the leaders set a target to increase bilateral trade to USD 20 billion over the next five years.

Q52 Advanced

Consider the following statements: 1. Brazil is India's largest trading partner in the Latin American and Caribbean region. 2. India–Brazil bilateral merchandise trade in FY 2024-25 was about USD 20 billion. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. PIB: Brazil is the largest trading partner of India in the LAC region; bilateral merchandise trade in FY 2024-25 stood at USD 12.19 billion (USD 20 billion is the five-year target).

India-AI Impact Summit 2026 logo: Ashoka Chakra with neural-network flares, designed by Ajith P. Suresh
Q53

What symbol sits at the centre of the India-AI Impact Summit 2026 logo?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Ashoka Chakra

PIB: at the centre of the winning design is the Ashoka Chakra, symbolising ethical governance, justice and constitutional values.

Q54 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the India-AI Impact Summit 2026 logo: 1. It was selected through a Logo Design Contest on MyGov that received 599 entries. 2. The Summit is scheduled for 19–20 February 2026 at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct. PIB: MyGov received 599 entries in the contest held from 28 May to 12 June 2025; the Summit is set for 19–20 February 2026 at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.

Q55 Advanced

Who designed the winning logo of the India-AI Impact Summit 2026?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Ajith P. Suresh

PIB: MyGov received 599 entries, and the winning design was submitted by Shri Ajith P. Suresh.

Leprosy in India: prevalence falls to 0.57 per 10,000 in 2024–25; 31 States below elimination threshold
Q56

In which year did India achieve leprosy elimination status at the national level (prevalence rate below 1 per 10,000 population)?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2005

PIB (MoHFW explainer): India achieved elimination status in March 2005 at the national level, meaning a prevalence rate below 1 per 10,000 population, and has sustained it.

Q57 Advanced

Nikusth 2.0, the revamped web portal for leprosy data and monitoring, was launched on which occasion?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — National Anti-Leprosy Day, 30 January 2023

PIB: Nikusth 2.0, a revamped web-based ICT portal for recording, reporting and monitoring leprosy activities, was launched on 30 January 2023 (National Anti-Leprosy Day) by the Union Health Minister.

Q58 Advanced

Consider the following statements about leprosy in India: 1. As of March 2025, 31 States and 638 districts had a prevalence rate below 1 per 10,000 population. 2. The new case detection rate rose from 7.0 per 100,000 in 2014–15 to 9.73 per 100,000 in 2024–25. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. PIB: as of March 2025, 31 States and 638 districts had achieved a prevalence rate below 1 per 10,000. The new case detection rate fell (not rose) from 9.73 per 100,000 in 2014–15 to 7.0 in 2024–25.

People's Plan Campaign 2025–26 'Sabki Yojana, Sabka Vikas' under way for Panchayat plans of FY 2026–27
Q59 Advanced

Which Article of the Constitution entrusts Panchayats with preparing plans for economic development and social justice, the basis of the People's Plan Campaign?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Article 243G

PIB (MoPR): Article 243G recognises Panchayats as institutions of local self-government and entrusts them with the preparation of plans for economic development and social justice; PDPs cover the 29 subjects of the Eleventh Schedule.

Q60 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the People's Plan Campaign (PPC): 1. Panchayat Development Plans cover the 29 subjects listed in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution. 2. PPC 2025–26, launched on 2 October 2025, prepares Panchayat Development Plans for the financial year 2025–26. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. PIB (MoPR): PDPs cover the 29 subjects of the Eleventh Schedule. PPC 2025–26 was launched on 2 October 2025 to prepare PDPs for the financial year 2026–27, not 2025–26.

Exercise Konkan 2025: Indian Navy and Royal Navy begin bilateral drill off India's western coast
Q61

Exercise Konkan, which began on 5 October 2025, is a bilateral exercise between the Indian Navy and which navy?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Royal Navy (United Kingdom)

PIB (Indian Navy): Exercise KONKAN-25 is a bilateral exercise between the Indian Navy and the Royal Navy of the UK, held off India's western coast from 5 to 12 October 2025.

Q62 Advanced

Consider the following statements about Exercise Konkan 2025: 1. It was conducted off the eastern coast of India in the Bay of Bengal. 2. The Indian side was represented by the carrier battle group of INS Vikrant. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 only

Only 2 is correct. PIB: the exercise was held off the western coast of India (western seaboard), and the Indian side was represented by the carrier battle group of the indigenous aircraft carrier INS Vikrant; the UK CSG 25 was led by HMS Prince of Wales.

INS Sahyadri makes port call at Kemaman, Malaysia during South China Sea deployment
Q63 Advanced

INS Sahyadri, which visited Kemaman in October 2025, is the third ship of which class of Indian Navy frigates?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Shivalik class

PIB (Indian Navy): INS Sahyadri, indigenously designed, built and commissioned in 2012, is the third ship of the Shivalik-class guided-missile stealth frigates.

Q64

Kemaman port, where INS Sahyadri made a port call from 2 October 2025, is in which country?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Malaysia

PIB: INS Sahyadri made a port call at Kemaman port in Malaysia on 2 October 2025; it was the ship's third visit to Malaysia.