BSSC Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
From which date did select provisions of the National Sports Governance Act, 2025 come into force, as notified on 31 December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 1 January 2026
PIB (Sports): the Central Government appointed 1 January 2026 as the date for select provisions; the Act itself was notified in the Gazette on 18 August 2025.
Consider the following statements about the National Sports Governance Act, 2025: 1. It was notified in the Official Gazette on 18 August 2025. 2. Its section 1(2) allows different dates to be appointed for different provisions. 3. The provisions brought into force from 1 January 2026 include the constitution of the National Sports Board. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (Sports): the Act was gazetted on 18 August 2025; section 1(2) permits different dates for different provisions; and the provisions in force from 1 January 2026 include the constitution of the National Sports Board. All three are correct.
In his video-conference with MGNREGA functionaries on 30 December 2025 about the VB-G RAM G Act, Shivraj Singh Chouhan interacted with roughly how many functionaries?
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Correct answer: D — Over 2 lakh
PIB (Rural Development): more than 2 lakh MGNREGA functionaries joined from about 45,000 locations.
The Viksit Bharat – Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) (VB-G RAM G) Act, 2025 replaces which law?
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Correct answer: B — Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005
PIB (assent release, 21 December 2025): the Act replaces the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), 2005.
Consider the following statements about the VB-G RAM G Act, 2025: 1. It guarantees not less than 125 days of wage employment per rural household in each financial year. 2. States may notify a pause period aggregating sixty days in a financial year to free labour for peak sowing and harvesting. 3. Its cost is shared 75:25 between the Centre and all States. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (assent release): Section 5(1) guarantees at least 125 days and Section 6 allows a 60-day aggregate pause. Cost-sharing is 60:40, 90:10 for North Eastern and Himalayan States and 100% central for UTs without legislatures, so statement 3 is wrong.
Under the VB-G RAM G Act, 2025, what is the Centre–State cost-sharing ratio for North Eastern and Himalayan States?
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Correct answer: C — 90:10
PIB (assent release): the cost-sharing pattern is 60:40 between Centre and States, 90:10 for North Eastern and Himalayan States, and 100% central funding for UTs without legislatures.
Sagarmala Finance Corporation Limited (SMFCL) began lending at its 51st Board Meeting on 30 December 2025 by sanctioning loans of about:
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Correct answer: C — ₹4,300 crore
PIB (Ports, Shipping and Waterways): SMFCL approved loan sanctions of about ₹4,300 crore at its 51st Board Meeting on 30 December 2025. ₹8,000 crore is its FY26 lending target and ₹25,000 crore its borrowing limit.
Consider the following statements about Sagarmala Finance Corporation Limited (SMFCL): 1. SMFCL is India's first maritime-focused Non-Banking Financial Company. 2. SMFCL is targeting a loan book of ₹8,000 crore in 2025-26. 3. The largest share of its first tranche of sanctions went to Goa Shipyard. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB: SMFCL is India's first maritime-focused NBFC and targets an ₹8,000 crore loan book in FY26. About ₹4,000 crore of the ₹4,300 crore went to a greenfield port project; Goa Shipyard got ₹110 crore, so statement 3 is wrong.
The 48 heavyweight torpedoes contracted on 30 December 2025 for the Indian Navy's Kalvari-class submarines will be supplied by a firm from which country?
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Correct answer: B — Italy
PIB (Defence): the torpedo contract was signed with WASS Submarine Systems S.R.L., Italy.
Consider the following statements about the defence contracts signed on 30 December 2025: 1. The Close Quarter Battle carbines are for the Indian Army and the Indian Air Force. 2. The heavyweight torpedoes are for the Kalvari-class (P-75) submarines. 3. Delivery of the torpedoes will begin from April 2028. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 2 and 3 only
PIB (Defence): the carbines are for the Indian Army and the Indian Navy, not the Air Force. The torpedoes are for the six Kalvari-class (P-75) submarines, with deliveries from April 2028 to early 2030.
Under PM-YUVA 3.0, whose results were declared on 30 December 2025, each selected young author receives a monthly scholarship of:
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Correct answer: A — ₹50,000
PIB (Education): each selected author gets a scholarship of ₹50,000 per month during six months of mentorship, plus a 10% lifetime royalty.
Consider the following statements about PM-YUVA 3.0: 1. It selected book proposals from authors below 30 years of age. 2. It is implemented by the Sahitya Akademi under the Ministry of Culture. 3. Selected authors get a lifetime royalty of 10% on their published books. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 3 only
PIB (Education): authors are below 30 and receive a 10% lifetime royalty. The scheme is implemented by the National Book Trust, India under the Ministry of Education, not the Sahitya Akademi.
What is 'Jal Seva Aankalan', launched by the Ministry of Jal Shakti on 30 December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — A Gram Panchayat-led digital self-assessment of drinking water service functionality in Har Ghar Jal villages
PIB (Jal Shakti): Jal Seva Aankalan is a Gram Panchayat-led digital drinking water service functionality assessment tool on the JJM portal for Har Ghar Jal villages.
Jal Seva Aankalan was launched on the portal of which mission?
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Correct answer: C — Jal Jeevan Mission
PIB: the tool was e-launched on the Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) portal by the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation.
Arjun Erigaisi settled for bronze at the FIDE World Blitz Championship 2025 in Doha after losing the semifinal to:
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Correct answer: A — Nodirbek Abdusattorov
The Hindu and Sportstar: Erigaisi lost the semifinal 2.5–0.5 to Uzbekistan's Nodirbek Abdusattorov. Carlsen beat Caruana in the other semifinal and won the title.
Consider the following statements about Arjun Erigaisi at the FIDE World Rapid and Blitz Championships 2025 in Doha: 1. Erigaisi topped the Open Swiss stage of the World Blitz Championship. 2. Erigaisi also won bronze at the World Rapid Championship the same week. 3. Erigaisi is the first Indian ever to win medals at both the world rapid and blitz championships. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
Sportstar and ESPN: Erigaisi topped the Swiss stage and also won rapid bronze. Viswanathan Anand did the rapid–blitz double in 2017, so Erigaisi is the first since Anand, not the first ever.
NFAP-2025, effective 30 December 2025, identifies which frequency band for International Mobile Telecommunications (IMT) to expand mid-band spectrum for 5G and 6G?
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Correct answer: D — 6425–7125 MHz
PIB (DoT): NFAP-2025 identifies the 6425–7125 MHz band for IMT, significantly enhancing mid-band availability for 5G, 5G Advanced and future 6G.
The National Frequency Allocation Plan 2025, which governs radio-frequency spectrum allocation in India, was released by:
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Correct answer: A — Department of Telecommunications
PIB: NFAP-2025 was released by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT), Ministry of Communications.
In its maiden flight test on 29 December 2025, the Pinaka Long Range Guided Rocket was tested for its maximum range of:
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Correct answer: D — 120 km
PIB (Defence): LRGR 120 was tested for its maximum range of 120 km at ITR Chandipur, demonstrating all planned in-flight manoeuvres.
Consider the following statements about the Pinaka LRGR 120 test of 29 December 2025: 1. The rocket was designed by ARDE in association with HEMRL. 2. A new dedicated launcher had to be developed to fire the rocket. 3. The test was carried out at the Integrated Test Range, Chandipur. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
PIB (Defence): ARDE designed the rocket with HEMRL and the test was at ITR Chandipur. It was fired from the in-service Pinaka launcher, not a new one, so statement 2 is wrong.
The National Technology Readiness Assessment Framework (NTRAF), unveiled on 29 December 2025, assesses projects across how many Technology Readiness Levels?
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Correct answer: B — 9
PIB (Office of PSA): NTRAF assesses projects across 9 TRLs, from proof of concept (TRL 1-3) to prototype (TRL 4-6) and operational deployment (TRL 7-9).
The Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser developed NTRAF in collaboration with which industry body?
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Correct answer: D — Confederation of Indian Industry (CII)
PIB (Office of PSA): NTRAF was developed in collaboration with the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII).
According to the quick estimate released on 29 December 2025, India's Index of Industrial Production grew by how much in November 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 6.7%
PIB (MoSPI): IIP grew 6.7% in November 2025. 0.4% was October's growth, 8.0% manufacturing and 5.4% mining.
Which IIP sector recorded a contraction in November 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Electricity
PIB (MoSPI): growth rates for November 2025 were Mining 5.4%, Manufacturing 8.0% and Electricity (−)1.5%.
Consider the following statements about the Index of Industrial Production (IIP): 1. The current IIP series uses 2011-12 as its base year. 2. The quick estimate of IIP is released on the 28th of every month, or the next working day if the 28th is a holiday. 3. In November 2025, electricity was the fastest-growing IIP sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB (MoSPI): the IIP base is 2011-12=100 and quick estimates come out on the 28th of every month (or the next working day). In November 2025 electricity contracted 1.5% while manufacturing grew fastest at 8.0%.
The Defence Acquisition Council meeting of 29 December 2025 accorded Acceptance of Necessity to proposals worth about:
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Correct answer: B — ₹79,000 crore
PIB (Defence): the DAC chaired by Rajnath Singh accorded AoN for proposals of the three Services amounting to about ₹79,000 crore.
For which Service did the DAC approve the leasing of High Altitude Long Range (HALE) Remotely Piloted Aircraft Systems on 29 December 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Indian Navy
PIB (Defence): AoN was accorded to the Indian Navy for leasing HALE RPAS to ensure continuous ISR and maritime domain awareness over the Indian Ocean Region.
The India AI Impact Summit 2026 is anchored in which three guiding 'Sutras'?
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Correct answer: A — People, Planet and Progress
PIB (MeitY): the Summit is anchored in three guiding Sutras: People, Planet and Progress.
The three Sutras of the India AI Impact Summit 2026 are operationalised through how many thematic 'Chakras' (working groups)?
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Correct answer: B — Seven
PIB (MeitY): the Sutras are operationalised through seven thematic Chakras, or working groups.
How much renewable energy capacity did India add in 2025 up to November, according to MNRE's 29 December 2025 release?
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Correct answer: B — 44.51 GW
PIB (MNRE): 44.51 GW of RE was added in 2025 till November, nearly double the 24.72 GW of the same period last year. 34.98 GW was solar and 5.82 GW wind.
India reached 50% of its cumulative installed power capacity from non-fossil sources, five years ahead of its 2030 NDC target, in:
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Correct answer: A — June 2025
PIB (MNRE): India achieved 50% non-fossil installed capacity in June 2025, five years ahead of the 2030 target under its NDC. January 2025 is when solar crossed 100 GW and August 2025 when non-fossil crossed 250 GW.
Consider the following statements about India's renewable energy in 2025: 1. Installed solar capacity crossed 100 GW in January 2025. 2. Non-fossil capacity reached about 51.5% of total installed capacity in November 2025. 3. Wind capacity additions exceeded solar capacity additions in 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (MNRE): solar crossed 100 GW in January 2025 and non-fossil capacity was 262.74 GW, 51.5% of 509.64 GW, in November 2025. Solar added 34.98 GW against wind's 5.82 GW, so statement 3 is wrong.
Who won the women's title at the FIDE World Rapid Championship 2025 in Doha, where Koneru Humpy took bronze?
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Correct answer: B — Aleksandra Goryachkina
FIDE and Sportstar: Aleksandra Goryachkina won the women's crown after beating Zhu Jiner in a blitz playoff; Humpy took bronze.
Magnus Carlsen's win at the FIDE World Rapid Championship 2025 in Doha was his:
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Correct answer: C — Sixth World Rapid title
FIDE: Magnus Carlsen claimed his sixth World Rapid Championship title with 10.5/13.
Consider the following statements about India at the FIDE World Rapid Championship 2025: 1. Koneru Humpy was the defending women's champion, having won gold in New York in 2024. 2. Arjun Erigaisi won bronze on tiebreaks after finishing on 9.5 points. 3. Koneru Humpy lost the women's title playoff to Aleksandra Goryachkina. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
FIDE and Sportstar: Humpy was the defending champion (gold in New York 2024) and Erigaisi took bronze among four players on 9.5 points. Humpy missed the two-player playoff on tiebreaks; Goryachkina beat Zhu Jiner in it, so statement 3 is wrong.
What was the overarching theme of the 5th National Conference of Chief Secretaries held at Pusa, Delhi, from 26 to 28 December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Human Capital for Viksit Bharat
PIB (PMO): the conference discussed the overarching theme 'Human Capital for Viksit Bharat'.
At the 5th National Conference of Chief Secretaries, the PM urged the Centre and States to jointly identify how many products for domestic manufacturing to reduce import dependence?
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Correct answer: B — 100
PIB (PMO): the PM urged the Centre and States to jointly identify 100 products for domestic manufacturing.
Consider the following statements about the National Conference of Chief Secretaries held in December 2025: 1. It was held at Pusa, Delhi, from 26 to 28 December 2025. 2. It was the fifth such national conference. 3. The PM said about half of India's population is in the working-age group. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (PMO): the 5th conference was held at Pusa, Delhi, from 26 to 28 December 2025. The PM said nearly 70% of the population is of working age, not about half.
According to the Railways' Year End Review 2025, how many Amrit Bharat trains were in service in total after 13 new ones were introduced in 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 30
PIB (Railways): 13 new Amrit Bharat trains were introduced nationwide in 2025, taking the total to 30.
The Railways' Year End Review 2025 says India has become the world's second-largest rail freight carrier, overtaking which country?
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Correct answer: D — USA
PIB (Railways): record wagon production, Gati Shakti cargo terminals and freight corridors have helped India become the world's second-largest freight carrier, leaving the USA behind.
President Droupadi Murmu's sortie on INS Vaghsheer on 28 December 2025 made her the second President to sail in a submarine. Who was the first?
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Correct answer: C — A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
PIB (President's Secretariat): President Murmu is the second President to take a sortie in a submarine after President Dr A. P. J. Abdul Kalam.
From which naval harbour did President Murmu embark INS Vaghsheer for her dived sortie on 28 December 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Karwar
PIB: the President embarked the submarine at Karwar Naval Harbour, Karnataka.
Consider the following statements about President Murmu's sortie on INS Vaghsheer: 1. INS Vaghsheer is an indigenous Kalvari-class submarine. 2. The Chief of the Naval Staff accompanied the President. 3. INS Vaghsheer's motto is 'Sham No Varunah'. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB: INS Vaghsheer is an indigenous Kalvari-class submarine and Admiral Dinesh K. Tripathi accompanied the President. The President quoted the submarine's motto as 'Veerta Varchasva Vijaya', so statement 3 is wrong.
In the 129th Mann Ki Baat (28 December 2025), the PM cited an ICMR report warning that:
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Correct answer: C — Antibiotics are proving ineffective against diseases like pneumonia and UTI
PIB (PMO): the PM said a recent ICMR report states antibiotics are proving ineffective against many diseases like pneumonia and UTI, largely due to indiscriminate use.
According to the PM in Mann Ki Baat (28 December 2025), the Kutch Rann Utsav 2025-26 runs during which period?
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Correct answer: D — 23 November to 20 February
PIB (PMO): the Kutch Ranotsav began on 23 November and will continue until 20 February.
The Viksit Bharat Young Leaders Dialogue mentioned in the 129th Mann Ki Baat is held on National Youth Day, which falls on:
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Correct answer: A — 12 January
PIB (PMO): National Youth Day is celebrated on the 12th of January, Swami Vivekananda's birth anniversary, and the Young Leaders Dialogue will be held that day.
Consider the following statements about the Smart India Hackathon (SIH), as described in the 129th Mann Ki Baat: 1. In SIH 2025, students worked on more than 270 problems from more than 80 government departments. 2. Over 13 lakh students and over 6,000 institutes have participated in SIH in the last 7 to 8 years. 3. SIH 2025 was organised by ISRO for space-sector problems only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB (PMO): SIH 2025 covered 270+ problems of 80+ government departments, and 13 lakh+ students and 6,000+ institutes have taken part over 7–8 years. The problems spanned traffic, financial fraud, cyber security and agriculture, not only space, so statement 3 is wrong.
What is the total corpus of the Shipbuilding Financial Assistance Scheme (SBFAS), whose guidelines were notified on 27 December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹24,736 crore
PIB (MoPSW): SBFAS has a total corpus of ₹24,736 crore. ₹19,989 crore is the SbDS outlay, ₹44,700 crore the combined outlay, and ₹96,000 crore the projects SBFAS is expected to support.
Under the Shipbreaking Credit Note introduced by SBFAS, ship owners scrapping vessels at Indian yards receive a credit equal to what share of the scrap value?
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Correct answer: D — 40%
PIB (MoPSW): ship owners scrapping vessels at Indian yards will receive a credit equivalent to 40% of the scrap value.
Under the Shipbuilding Development Scheme (SbDS), the India Ship Technology Centre will be set up under which institution?
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Correct answer: C — Indian Maritime University
PIB (MoPSW): SbDS provides for an India Ship Technology Centre under the Indian Maritime University to support research, design, innovation and skills.
Consider the following statements about the shipbuilding schemes whose guidelines were notified in December 2025: 1. SBFAS provides financial assistance of 15% to 25% per vessel, depending on the vessel category. 2. Greenfield shipbuilding clusters get 100% capital support through a 50:50 Centre–State special purpose vehicle. 3. Both SBFAS and SbDS are valid only until 31 March 2030. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (MoPSW): SBFAS gives 15–25% per vessel and greenfield clusters get 100% capital support via a 50:50 Centre–State SPV. Both schemes are valid until 31 March 2036, with an in-principle extension to 2047, so statement 3 is wrong.
What is the toll-free number of the National Consumer Helpline?
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Correct answer: B — 1915
PIB (Consumer Affairs): consumers can register grievances in 17 languages through the toll-free number 1915.
Which sector accounted for the largest share of refunds facilitated by the National Consumer Helpline between 25 April and 26 December 2025?
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Correct answer: C — E-commerce
PIB (Consumer Affairs): e-commerce recorded 39,965 grievances and ₹32 crore of the ₹45 crore refunds; travel and tourism was second with ₹3.5 crore.
Consider the following statements about the National Consumer Helpline (NCH): 1. Between 25 April and 26 December 2025, the NCH facilitated ₹45 crore in refunds on 67,265 grievances across 31 sectors. 2. The NCH operates at the pre-litigation stage under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019. 3. Grievances can be registered on the NCH in only 12 languages. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Consumer Affairs): the ₹45 crore refunds covered 67,265 grievances in 31 sectors, and the NCH works at the pre-litigation stage under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019. Grievances can be registered in 17 languages, so statement 3 is wrong.
Which agency organised the Anti-Terrorism Conference-2025 inaugurated in New Delhi on 26 December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — National Investigation Agency
PIB 2208950: the two-day conference was organised by the National Investigation Agency (NIA) under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
According to the Home Minister at the Anti-Terrorism Conference-2025, the terrorists who carried out the Baisaran (Pahalgam) attack were neutralised through:
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Correct answer: C — Operation Mahadev
PIB 2208950: the planners were punished through Operation Sindoor and those who carried out the attack were neutralised through Operation Mahadev.
Consider the following statements about the Anti-Terrorism Conference-2025: 1. An Organised Crime Network Database was launched at the conference. 2. The Home Minister asked states to adopt a common ATS structure for their police. 3. It was a one-day conference organised by the Intelligence Bureau. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2208950: the Organised Crime Network Database was launched and states were asked to implement a common ATS structure. The conference was a two-day event organised by the NIA, so statement 3 is wrong.
How many children received the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar on 26 December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 20
PIB backgrounder: 20 children from 18 States and Union Territories were selected for the PMRBP 2025.
Where was the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar 2025 conferred by the President on 26 December 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Vigyan Bhawan
PIB backgrounder: the awards were conferred at a special ceremony at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi. The national Veer Bal Diwas programme was held separately at Bharat Mandapam.
Consider the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar: 1. It is given to Indian children aged 5 to 18 years as on 31 July of the year. 2. A maximum of 25 awards are normally conferred in a year. 3. The award is never conferred posthumously. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB backgrounder: eligibility is 5–18 years as on 31 July and at most 25 awards are given annually. Posthumous conferment is possible in rare cases, and two 2025 bravery awards were posthumous, so statement 3 is wrong.
The selection committee for the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar is chaired by the:
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Correct answer: A — Secretary, Ministry of Women and Child Development
PIB backgrounder: the PMRBP Committee is constituted by the Minister for Women and Child Development and chaired by the Secretary, MWCD.
Indian Railways' plan announced in December 2025 aims to double the train-originating capacity of major cities by which year?
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Correct answer: B — 2030
PIB 2208869: the works for doubling the originating capacity are to be completed by 2030.
Under Indian Railways' capacity-doubling plan, which stations are being considered along with Pune station to raise Pune's capacity?
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Correct answer: A — Hadapsar, Khadki and Alandi
PIB 2208869: for Pune, Hadapsar, Khadki and Alandi have been considered along with more platforms and stabling lines at Pune station.
Veer Baal Diwas, observed on 26 December, honours which two Sahibzadas of Guru Gobind Singh Ji?
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Correct answer: C — Zorawar Singh and Fateh Singh
PIB backgrounder: Veer Baal Diwas honours Sahibzada Zorawar Singh Ji and Sahibzada Fateh Singh Ji, the two youngest sons of Guru Gobind Singh Ji.
The two youngest Sahibzadas were martyred on 26 December 1704 at:
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Correct answer: C — Sirhind (Fatehgarh Sahib)
PIB backgrounder: they were bricked alive and martyred at Sirhind (present-day Fatehgarh Sahib, Punjab) on 26 December 1704.
In his Veer Baal Diwas 2025 address, the Prime Minister said the colonial mindset was seeded by Macaulay in which year?
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Correct answer: D — 1835
PIB 2208811: the PM said the mentality was seeded by British politician Macaulay in 1835, and that 2035 will mark 200 years.
What is the peak computing power of the PARAM Rudra supercomputer inaugurated at IIT Patna in December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 838 TFLOPS
National Supercomputing Mission: PARAM Rudra at IIT Patna has a peak computing power of 838 TFLOPS.
Consider the following statements about the PARAM Rudra system at IIT Patna: 1. It was set up under the National Supercomputing Mission. 2. It was designed and commissioned by C-DAC. 3. It is the first PARAM Rudra supercomputer in Bihar. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
NSM: the system was set up under NSM Phase-3 and designed and commissioned by C-DAC. Times of India and Inext Live: it is Bihar's first PARAM Rudra supercomputer. All three statements are correct.
Data from which instrument did Indian Institute of Astrophysics scientists use to study PAH molecules around the young star T Chamaeleontis?
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Correct answer: B — Mid Infrared Instrument (MIRI) of JWST
PIB 2208927: IIA scientists used archival spectroscopic data from JWST's Mid Infrared Instrument (MIRI).
Consider the following statements about the IIA study of T Chamaeleontis released in December 2025: 1. T Chamaeleontis is a young star about 350 light-years from Earth. 2. The PAH molecules found contain more than 100 carbon atoms each. 3. Faint PAH signatures were also found in archival Spitzer Space Telescope data. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 3 only
PIB 2208927: T Cha is about 350 light-years away and faint PAH signatures were found in archival Spitzer data. The PAHs are smaller molecules with fewer than 30 carbon atoms, so statement 2 is wrong.
What name has the Labour Ministry given to the authorised facilitators who will guide EPFO members in accessing benefits?
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Correct answer: B — EPF Suvidha Providers
PIB 2208948: the Government will introduce EPF Suvidha Providers, authorised facilitators who guide members and act as a bridge between citizens and EPFO.
By when did the Labour Minister say India would bring 100 crore citizens under social security coverage?
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Correct answer: C — March 2026
PIB 2208948: 94 crore people are covered today and by March 2026 India will ensure coverage for 100 crore citizens.
Consider the following statements made at the EPFO event at Vatva on 26 December 2025: 1. EPFO holds a fund corpus of about ₹28 lakh crore. 2. As per the ILO, India's social security coverage rose from 19% before 2014 to 64%. 3. EPF claims of up to ₹1 lakh only are settled automatically. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2208948: the corpus is ₹28 lakh crore and coverage rose from 19% to 64% as per the ILO. Settlements up to ₹5 lakh are now processed automatically, so statement 3 is wrong.
India will chair which international initiative against trade in 'conflict diamonds' from 1 January 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Kimberley Process
PIB 2208375: the Kimberley Process Plenary selected India to assume the chairpersonship of the Kimberley Process from 1 January 2026.
How many times will India have chaired the Kimberley Process when it takes over in 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Third
PIB 2208375: this will be the third time India has been entrusted with the chair of the Kimberley Process.
Consider the following statements about the Kimberley Process: 1. The Kimberley Process Certification Scheme came into effect on 1 January 2003. 2. It has 60 participants, with the European Union and its member states counted as one. 3. Its participants account for about three-fourths of global rough diamond trade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2208375: KPCS came into effect on 1 January 2003 and KP has 60 participants (EU counted as one). Participants account for over 99% of global rough diamond trade, so statement 3 is wrong.
In which script is the Santhali version of the Constitution of India, released on 25 December 2025, written?
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Correct answer: A — Ol Chiki
PIB 2208453: the President said the Constitution is now available in the Santhali language, written in the Ol Chiki script.
Santhali was included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution by which Amendment Act?
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Correct answer: C — 92nd Amendment Act, 2003
PIB 2208453 and 2208484: Santhali was included in the Eighth Schedule through the 92nd Amendment Act, 2003.
Consider the following statements about the Santhali Constitution released in December 2025: 1. The Ol Chiki script was developed by Pandit Raghunath Murmu in 1925. 2. The translation was published by the Legislative Department of the Ministry of Law and Justice. 3. It was released at a joint sitting in Parliament House. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2208484: Ol Chiki was developed by Pandit Raghunath Murmu in 1925 and the translation was published by the Legislative Department. It was released at Rashtrapati Bhavan, so statement 3 is wrong.