BSSC Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What additional tariff did the US impose on Indian goods through the executive order of 6 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 25%
The executive order imposed an additional 25% tariff on Indian goods over India's purchases of Russian oil, taking the combined rate to 50%.
How did India's Ministry of External Affairs describe the additional US tariffs in its statement of 6 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Unfair, unjustified and unreasonable
The MEA said: 'We reiterate that these actions are unfair, unjustified and unreasonable.'
Consider the following statements about India's response to the US tariff order of 6 August 2025: 1. India said its oil imports are based on market factors and aimed at the energy security of 1.4 billion people. 2. India said it would take all actions necessary to protect its national interests. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The MEA said India's imports are based on market factors to ensure the energy security of 1.4 billion people, and that India will take all actions necessary to protect its national interests.
What was the maximum depth reached by an Indian aquanaut during the Indo-French deep dives in the Atlantic in August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 5,002 m
Cdr (Retd) Jatinder Pal Singh reached 5,002 m, while Raju Ramesh reached 4,025 m, India's deepest-ever dives.
The Indian aquanauts' record dives of August 2025 were made aboard Nautile, a submersible belonging to which institution?
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Correct answer: D — IFREMER (France)
The dives were a collaborative activity with IFREMER (France), the French marine research institute, aboard its submersible Nautile.
Consider the following statements about India's Samudrayaan mission, as described in August 2025: 1. It aims to send three aquanauts to a depth of 6,000 m in the submersible MATSYA-6000 by 2027. 2. MATSYA-6000 is being developed by the National Institute of Oceanography, Goa. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: Samudrayaan aims to send three aquanauts to 6,000 m in MATSYA-6000 by 2027. Statement 2 is incorrect: MATSYA-6000 is being developed by the National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT), Chennai, under the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
Consider the following statements about MATSYA-6000: 1. It is designed for an operational endurance of 12 hours and an emergency endurance of up to 96 hours. 2. It completed wet trials at L&T Shipyard, Kattupalli, in early 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. MATSYA-6000 is designed for 12 hours of operational and up to 96 hours of emergency endurance, and completed wet trials at L&T Shipyard, Kattupalli, Tamil Nadu, in January–February 2025.
At what level did the RBI's Monetary Policy Committee keep the policy repo rate in its August 2025 meeting?
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Correct answer: C — 5.50%
The MPC unanimously voted to keep the policy repo rate unchanged at 5.50%.
What CPI inflation did the RBI's MPC project for 2025-26 in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 3.1%
Considering all factors, CPI inflation for 2025-26 was projected at 3.1%.
Consider the following statements about the RBI's monetary policy decision of August 2025: 1. The standing deposit facility rate remained at 5.25% and the marginal standing facility rate at 5.75%. 2. The MPC changed its stance from neutral to accommodative. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the SDF rate stayed at 5.25% and the MSF rate and Bank Rate at 5.75%. Statement 2 is incorrect: all members decided to continue with the neutral stance.
Consider the following statements about the RBI's August 2025 policy: 1. The MPC projected real GDP growth for 2025-26 at 6.5%. 2. The decision to keep the repo rate unchanged was taken by a 4–2 majority. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: real GDP growth for 2025-26 was projected at 6.5%. Statement 2 is incorrect: the MPC voted unanimously to keep the repo rate unchanged.
The Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2025, passed by the Rajya Sabha on 6 August 2025, repeals an Act of which year?
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Correct answer: B — 1925
The Bill repeals the century-old Indian Carriage of Goods by Sea Act, 1925.
Which internationally accepted set of maritime rules does the Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2025 adopt?
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Correct answer: D — Hague-Visby Rules
The Bill adopts the Hague-Visby Rules, a globally accepted maritime standard also followed by countries like the United Kingdom.
Consider the following statements about the maritime bills of 6 August 2025: 1. The Lok Sabha passed the Merchant Shipping Bill, 2025 on the same day the Rajya Sabha passed the Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2025. 2. The Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2025 was introduced in the Rajya Sabha by Minister of State Shantanu Thakur. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. On 6 August 2025 the Lok Sabha cleared the Merchant Shipping Bill and the Rajya Sabha passed the Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, which was introduced by MoS Shantanu Thakur.
What was the approximate total value of the proposals cleared by the Defence Acquisition Council on 5 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — About ₹67,000 crore
The DAC chaired by Rajnath Singh approved proposals amounting to a total cost of about ₹67,000 crore.
Which procurement cleared for the Indian Navy by the DAC in August 2025 is meant for detection, classification and neutralisation of threats in anti-submarine warfare missions?
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Correct answer: B — Compact Autonomous Surface Craft
The Compact Autonomous Surface Craft will give the Navy the capability to detect, classify and neutralise threats in anti-submarine warfare missions.
Consider the following statements about the DAC approvals of 5 August 2025: 1. The SAKSHAM/SPYDER Weapon System of the Air Force is to be upgraded for integration with the Integrated Air Command and Control System. 2. AoN for Medium Altitude Long Endurance (MALE) RPAs was accorded only for the Indian Air Force. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the SAKSHAM/SPYDER upgrade is for integration with the Integrated Air Command and Control System. Statement 2 is incorrect: AoN for MALE RPAs was accorded for all three Services.
Consider the following statements about the DAC approvals of 5 August 2025: 1. AoN was accorded for the procurement of additional S-400 squadrons. 2. AoN was accorded for the sustenance of the C-17 and C-130J fleets. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the S-400 approval was for a comprehensive annual maintenance contract, not new squadrons. Statement 2 is correct: AoN was accorded for sustenance of the C-17 and C-130J fleets.
During the State Visit of Philippine President Ferdinand R. Marcos Jr. in August 2025, India and the Philippines elevated their ties to which level?
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Correct answer: B — Strategic Partnership
On 5 August 2025, the two countries signed a Declaration establishing a Strategic Partnership between India and the Philippines.
The India–Philippines Strategic Partnership established in August 2025 is guided by a Plan of Action covering which period?
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Correct answer: D — 2025-2029
The declaration states that the Strategic Partnership is guided by the Plan of Action (2025-2029), adopted on 5 August 2025.
Consider the following statements about the India–Philippines Strategic Partnership declaration of August 2025: 1. It marks the 75th anniversary of diplomatic relations, established in 1949, and recalls the Treaty of Friendship signed on 11 July 1952. 2. It reiterates both countries' strong support for ASEAN Centrality. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The declaration celebrates 75 years of diplomatic relations established in 1949, emphasises the Treaty of Friendship of 11 July 1952, and reiterates strong support for ASEAN Centrality.
Consider the following statements about the outcomes of the Philippine President's State Visit to India in August 2025: 1. India extended a gratis e-tourist visa facility to Filipino nationals for one year from August 2025. 2. India and the Philippines signed a Free Trade Agreement during the visit. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: a gratis e-tourist visa facility was extended to Filipino nationals for one year from August 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect: the two sides only adopted Terms of Reference for negotiations on a Preferential Trade Agreement.
During the Philippine President's visit in August 2025, a Statement of Intent on cooperation in the peaceful uses of outer space was signed between the Philippine Space Agency and which Indian body?
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Correct answer: D — Indian Space Research Organisation
The list of outcomes includes a Statement of Intent between the Indian Space Research Organisation and the Philippine Space Agency on cooperation on the peaceful uses of outer space.
The inaugural India–New Zealand Defence Strategic Dialogue, held in New Delhi on 5 August 2025, was constituted under an MoU signed in which month?
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Correct answer: A — March 2025
The dialogue was constituted under an MoU signed between the two countries in March 2025.
Consider the following statements about the inaugural India–New Zealand Defence Strategic Dialogue (August 2025): 1. It was held in Wellington. 2. It was co-chaired by the defence ministers of the two countries. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither statement is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect: the dialogue was held in New Delhi. Statement 2 is incorrect: it was co-chaired by Joint Secretary (International Cooperation) Amitabh Prasad and New Zealand's Head of International Branch Kathleen Pearce.
As per the government's reply of August 2025, how many infrastructure projects have been evaluated through the Network Planning Group mechanism under PM GatiShakti?
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Correct answer: C — 293
So far, 293 infrastructure projects amounting to ₹13.59 lakh crore have been evaluated through the NPG mechanism.
Consider the following statements about the PM GatiShakti National Master Plan, as stated in August 2025: 1. It has a specific and separate fund allocation in the Union Budget. 2. 36 States/UTs have been onboarded on the platform. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the PM GatiShakti National Master Plan has no specific or separate fund allocation. Statement 2 is correct: 36 States/UTs have been onboarded on PMGS NMP.
By what margin did India beat England in the fifth Test at The Oval on 4 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 6 runs
India won by 6 runs, its closest Test victory by runs, to draw the series 2-2.
What was the final result of the 2025 England–India Test series for the Anderson-Tendulkar Trophy?
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Correct answer: A — Series drawn 2-2
Series drawn 2-2: India's six-run win at The Oval levelled the five-match series.
Consider the following statements about the Oval Test of August 2025: 1. It was India's first-ever Test victory at The Oval. 2. Shubman Gill's 754 runs are the most by any batter in a Test series between England and India. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: it was India's third Test win at The Oval, after 1971 and 2021. Statement 2 is correct: no batter has scored more runs in an England–India series than Gill's 754, which passed Graham Gooch's 752 from 1990.
Who took five wickets in England's second innings and was Player of the Match in India's six-run win at The Oval in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Mohammed Siraj
Mohammed Siraj took 5 for 104, bowling Gus Atkinson with a yorker to seal the win, and was named Player of the Match.
Pariksha Pe Charcha 2025 earned a Guinness World Record for how many valid registrations received in one month?
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Correct answer: B — 3.53 crore
The record recognises 3.53 crore valid registrations received for the 8th edition on the MyGov platform.
Consider the following statements about the Guinness World Record conferred on Pariksha Pe Charcha in August 2025: 1. Pariksha Pe Charcha has been organised by the Ministry of Education in collaboration with MyGov since 2018. 2. The record was for the largest live television audience for an educational programme. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: PPC has been organised by the Ministry of Education with MyGov since 2018. Statement 2 is incorrect: the record was for the most people registered on a Citizen Engagement Platform in one month.
The Guinness World Record conferred on Pariksha Pe Charcha in August 2025 recognised registrations for which edition of the programme?
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Correct answer: D — 8th
8th edition (PPC 2025), with 3.53 crore valid registrations on MyGov.
Under the revised ComSec fee structure effective 1 August 2025, what is the security test evaluation fee for Group A telecom equipment?
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Correct answer: A — ₹10,000
Fees for Group A equipment dropped to ₹10,000 from ₹2,00,000 under the revised ComSec structure.
Consider the following statements about the DoT's ComSec changes announced in August 2025: 1. Optical Line Terminals and Optical Networking Terminals are under mandatory security testing. 2. Government R&D institutes such as C-DOT and CDAC are fully exempted from security test evaluation fees for applications until 31 March 2028. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: Optical Line Terminals and Optical Networking Terminals are subject to voluntary security certification. Statement 2 is correct: C-DOT, CDAC and other government R&D institutes are fully exempted for applications until 31 March 2028.
By up to what percentage did the Department of Telecommunications cut security test evaluation fees under the ComSec scheme, as announced on 4 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 95%
95%; fees that earlier ranged from ₹2,00,000 to ₹3,50,000 now range from ₹10,000 to ₹50,000.
The India Electric Mobility Index launched by NITI Aayog in August 2025 scores States/UTs out of 100 across how many indicators?
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Correct answer: C — 16
The IEMI scores all States and UTs out of 100 across 16 indicators under three core themes.
According to NITI Aayog's August 2025 EV report, India seeks to attain what share of electric vehicles in total vehicles sold by 2030?
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Correct answer: D — 30%
The report states that India seeks to attain a 30% share of electric vehicles in total vehicles sold by 2030.
Consider the following statements about NITI Aayog's EV releases of August 2025: 1. Charging Infrastructure Readiness is one of the three themes of the India Electric Mobility Index. 2. EV sales in India rose from 50,000 in 2016 to 2.08 million in 2024. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. Charging Infrastructure Readiness is one of the IEMI's three themes, and the report notes EV sales rose from 50,000 in 2016 to 2.08 million in 2024.
In which category did Sitender win gold at the U17 World Wrestling Championships 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Men's freestyle 60 kg
Men's freestyle 60 kg; he beat Japan's Rihito Hiura 9-4 in the final.
The U17 World Wrestling Championships 2025, which concluded on 3 August 2025, were held in which city?
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Correct answer: D — Athens
Athens, Greece, at the Ano Liosia Olympic Hall, the wrestling venue of the 2004 Olympics.
Consider the following statements about India's performance at the U17 World Wrestling Championships 2025: 1. India won nine medals, including four gold. 2. India defended its women's freestyle team title. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. India's tally was four gold, four silver and one bronze.
Which instalment of PM-KISAN did Prime Minister Narendra Modi release from Varanasi on 2 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 20th
The Prime Minister released the 20th instalment of PM-KISAN, transferring more than ₹20,500 crore to over 9.7 crore farmers.
Approximately how much money was transferred to farmers with the PM-KISAN instalment released on 2 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — More than ₹20,500 crore
More than ₹20,500 crore was transferred to over 9.7 crore farmers with the 20th instalment.
From which city did the Prime Minister release the 20th instalment of PM-KISAN in August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Varanasi
The 20th instalment was released by the Prime Minister in Varanasi, where he also launched development works worth about ₹2,200 crore.
Consider the following statements about PM-KISAN, as reported in August 2025: 1. The scheme was launched on 24 February 2019. 2. Over ₹3,77,000 crore has so far been transferred directly to farmers' accounts under the scheme. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. PM-KISAN was launched on 24 February 2019, and the Agriculture Minister said over ₹3,77,000 crore has been transferred directly to farmers so far.
According to the Health Ministry at the 15th Indian Organ Donation Day (August 2025), how many organ transplants did India perform in 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Over 18,900
India performed over 18,900 organ transplants in 2024, the highest ever recorded in a single year.
Consider the following statements made at the 15th Indian Organ Donation Day (August 2025): 1. India ranks second globally in the total number of organ transplants. 2. More than 3.30 lakh citizens have pledged their organs since the Aadhaar-based NOTTO online pledge website was launched in 2023. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: India ranks third globally, behind the United States and China. Statement 2 is correct: more than 3.30 lakh citizens have pledged their organs since the Aadhaar-based pledge website was launched in 2023.
Which body organised the 15th Indian Organ Donation Day in New Delhi on 2 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organization (NOTTO)
National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organization (NOTTO), under the Directorate General of Health Services.
After the Election Commission's decision of 2 August 2025, what is the annual remuneration of a Booth Level Officer (BLO)?
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Correct answer: C — ₹12,000
The Commission doubled the annual remuneration of BLOs from ₹6,000 to ₹12,000.
Consider the following statements about the Election Commission's remuneration decision of August 2025: 1. Electoral Registration Officers and Assistant Electoral Registration Officers were given an honorarium for the first time. 2. The previous revision of BLO remuneration was done in 2019. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: honorariums of ₹30,000 for EROs and ₹25,000 for AEROs were provided for the first time. Statement 2 is incorrect: the last such revision was done in 2015.
What honorarium did the Election Commission provide for Electoral Registration Officers (EROs) in August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹30,000
EROs were given an honorarium of ₹30,000, and AEROs ₹25,000, for the first time.
On which date is the poll, if necessary, for the 17th Vice-Presidential Election scheduled, as announced on 1 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 9 September 2025
The poll, if necessary, and the counting are both scheduled for 9 September 2025 at Parliament House.
According to the Election Commission, what is the total strength of the Electoral College for the 2025 Vice-Presidential Election?
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Correct answer: B — 788
The Electoral College comprises a total of 788 members of both Houses of Parliament: 233 elected and 12 nominated Rajya Sabha members and 543 elected Lok Sabha members.
Consider the following statements about the 2025 Vice-Presidential Election: 1. The security deposit for a candidate is ₹15,000. 2. A nomination paper must be subscribed by at least 20 electors as proposers and at least 20 other electors as seconders. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The security deposit is ₹15,000, and each nomination needs at least 20 proposers and 20 seconders from among the electors.
Who has been appointed Returning Officer for the 2025 Vice-Presidential Election?
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Correct answer: D — Secretary General, Rajya Sabha
The Election Commission, in consultation with the Central Government, appointed the Secretary General, Rajya Sabha as the Returning Officer.
Which film won the Best Feature Film award at the 71st National Film Awards announced on 1 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 12th Fail
12th Fail won the Best Feature Film award at the 71st National Film Awards for the year 2023.
Who won the Best Actress award at the 71st National Film Awards?
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Correct answer: A — Rani Mukerji
Rani Mukerji won Best Actress for Mrs. Chatterjee Vs Norway; it is her first National Film Award.
Consider the following statements about the 71st National Film Awards: 1. Shah Rukh Khan and Vikrant Massey shared the Best Actor award. 2. The Feature Film Jury was chaired by P. Sheshadri. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: Shah Rukh Khan (Jawan) and Vikrant Massey (12th Fail) shared Best Actor. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Feature Film Jury was chaired by Ashutosh Gowariker; P. Sheshadri chaired the Non-Feature Film Jury.
Which film was adjudged Best Film in AVGC (Animation, Visual Effects, Gaming and Comic) at the 71st National Film Awards?
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Correct answer: D — Hanu-Man
Hanu-Man was adjudged Best Film in AVGC (Animation, Visual Effects, Gaming and Comic) at the 71st National Film Awards.
What were India's gross GST collections for July 2025, as per data released on 1 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — About ₹1.96 lakh crore
Gross GST collections for July 2025 were ₹1,95,735 crore, about ₹1.96 lakh crore.
By what percentage did gross GST collections in July 2025 grow over July 2024?
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Correct answer: C — 7.5%
Gross GST collections grew 7.5%, from ₹1,82,075 crore in July 2024 to ₹1,95,735 crore in July 2025.
Consider the following statements about GST data for July 2025: 1. Refunds rose 66.8% to ₹27,147 crore. 2. Net GST revenue grew by more than 10% over July 2024. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: refunds rose 66.8% to ₹27,147 crore. Statement 2 is incorrect: because of the surge in refunds, net GST revenue was ₹1,68,588 crore, up only 1.7%.
What was the gross GST revenue from imports in July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹52,712 crore
Gross import revenue in July 2025 was ₹52,712 crore, up 9.7% from a year earlier.
During which period can claims and objections be filed on Bihar's draft electoral roll published on 1 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 1 August to 1 September 2025
Claims and objections can be filed before the Electoral Registration Officer from 1 August to 1 September 2025.
Booth-wise draft lists for how many polling booths in Bihar were shared with political parties on 1 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 90,712
Booth-wise draft lists of all 90,712 polling booths across 243 Assembly Constituencies were shared with all political parties by the 38 DEOs.
Which form should an eligible elector in Bihar whose name is missing from the draft roll submit, along with the Declaration Form?
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Correct answer: D — Form 6
Eligible electors whose names are missing from the draft list should submit Form 6 along with the Declaration Form.
Who assumed charge as Director General of the Railway Protection Force on 1 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Sonali Mishra
Sonali Mishra, a 1993-batch IPS officer of the Madhya Pradesh cadre, assumed charge as Director General of the RPF.
What is the motto of the Railway Protection Force, cited when its new Director General took charge in August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Yasho Labhasva
On assuming charge, the new DG reaffirmed the values of vigilance, courage and service that define the RPF's motto “Yasho Labhasva”.
Which of the following was NOT among the Centres of Excellence recognised under the National Critical Mineral Mission in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — IIT Madras
IIT Madras is not in the list. The four recognised IITs are those at Bombay, Hyderabad, Roorkee and the ISM campus in Dhanbad, along with CSIR-IMMT, CSIR-NML and NFTDC.
On which model will each Centre of Excellence under the National Critical Mineral Mission operate as a consortium?
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Correct answer: A — Hub & Spoke model
Each CoE will operate as a consortium on a Hub & Spoke model, with the hub institute bringing in industry and R&D or academic partners.
At how many identified stations did the Railways announce permanent holding areas and complete access control in August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 73
Permanent waiting areas and complete access control will be introduced at 73 identified stations that periodically face heavy crowds.
Consider the following statements about the Railways' crowd-management plan announced on 1 August 2025: 1. Only passengers with confirmed reserved tickets will get direct access to platforms at the identified stations. 2. Pilot projects for holding areas have started at stations including New Delhi, Varanasi and Ayodhya. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. Confirmed reserved ticket holders get direct platform access, and pilots are under way at New Delhi, Anand Vihar, Varanasi, Ayodhya and Ghaziabad.
How many coal blocks were successfully auctioned in the 12th round of commercial coal auctions, as announced on 1 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Seven
Seven coal blocks were successfully auctioned in the forward auctions held from 28 to 31 July 2025.
Consider the following statements about the 12th round of commercial coal auctions: 1. The auctioned blocks are located in Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh. 2. Since commercial coal mining began in 2020, a total of 131 coal blocks have been auctioned. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The seven blocks lie in Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh, and 131 coal blocks with 277.31 MTPA capacity have been auctioned since 2020.
What was the HSBC India Manufacturing PMI for July 2025, released on 1 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 59.1
The HSBC India Manufacturing PMI stood at 59.1 in July 2025, a 16-month high.
Consider the following statements about India's manufacturing PMI for July 2025: 1. It signalled the strongest improvement in the sector since March 2024. 2. Business confidence rose to its highest level in three years. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the July reading was the strongest improvement since March 2024. Statement 2 is incorrect: business confidence fell to its lowest level in three years.
What total outlay did the Union Cabinet approve on 31 July 2025 for the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana for 2021-22 to 2025-26?
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Correct answer: C — ₹6,520 crore
The Cabinet approved a total outlay of ₹6,520 crore, including an additional ₹1,920 crore.
How many multi-product food irradiation units are to be supported under PMKSY as per the Cabinet decision of 31 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 50
₹1,000 crore will support 50 multi-product food irradiation units and 100 NABL-accredited food testing labs.
Consider the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana (PMKSY): 1. The food irradiation units will be supported under its Integrated Cold Chain and Value Addition Infrastructure (ICCVAI) component. 2. The NABL-accredited food testing labs will be supported under its Food Safety and Quality Assurance Infrastructure (FSQAI) component. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Cabinet release; both components are demand-driven.
What reciprocal tariff rate did the US executive order of 31 July 2025 set for India?
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Correct answer: A — 25%
Annex I of Executive Order 14326 lists India at 25%.
From which date did the 25% US reciprocal tariff on Indian goods under the executive order of 31 July 2025 take effect?
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Correct answer: D — 7 August 2025
The order applies from 12:01 a.m. EDT seven days after 31 July 2025, i.e. 7 August 2025; Business Standard reported it took effect on 7 August.
Consider the following statements about Annex I of US Executive Order 14326 (31 July 2025): 1. Bangladesh is listed at 20%. 2. Japan is listed at 15%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per Annex I of the order.
As per Article 66(1), cited by the ECI on 31 July 2025, the Electoral College for the Vice-Presidential election consists of:
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Correct answer: A — Elected and nominated members of the Rajya Sabha and elected members of the Lok Sabha
The ECI release quotes Article 66(1): elected members of the Rajya Sabha, nominated members of the Rajya Sabha and elected members of the Lok Sabha.
Under which Article of the Constitution is the Election Commission mandated to conduct the election to the office of Vice-President, as stated by the ECI on 31 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Article 324
The ECI release says it is mandated under Article 324 to conduct the Vice-Presidential election.
Consider the following statements about the Vice-Presidential election: 1. Rule 40 of the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Rules, 1974 requires the ECI to prepare and maintain an updated list of members of the Electoral College. 2. Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha are excluded from the Electoral College. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: Article 66(1) includes nominated members of the Rajya Sabha.
The four railway multitracking projects approved by the CCEA on 31 July 2025 will increase the Indian Railways network by about:
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Correct answer: D — 574 km
The projects will add about 574 km to the existing network.
Which of the following was NOT among the four railway projects approved by the CCEA on 31 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Wardha–Ballarshah 4th line
The four projects were Itarsi–Nagpur 4th line, Aurangabad–Parbhani doubling, Aluabari Road–New Jalpaiguri 3rd and 4th lines, and Dangoaposi–Jaroli 3rd and 4th lines.
The Central Sector Scheme 'Grant in aid to NCDC' approved by the Cabinet on 31 July 2025 has what outlay and period?
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Correct answer: B — ₹2,000 crore over four years, 2025-26 to 2028-29
The scheme has ₹2,000 crore for four years from 2025-26 to 2028-29, at ₹500 crore a year.
On the basis of the ₹2,000-crore grant approved on 31 July 2025, how much will NCDC be able to raise from the open market over four years?
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Correct answer: C — ₹20,000 crore
The Cabinet release says NCDC will be able to raise ₹20,000 crore from the open market.