BSSC Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What was India's year-on-year CPI headline inflation for July 2025 (provisional), as released on 12 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 1.55%
MoSPI data showed headline CPI inflation of 1.55% (provisional) for July 2025, 55 basis points lower than June 2025.
The July 2025 headline CPI inflation was the lowest year-on-year inflation since which month?
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Correct answer: C — June 2017
The 1.55% headline inflation for July 2025 was the lowest year-on-year inflation since June 2017; January 2019 is the reference point for food inflation.
Consider the following statements about India's CPI data for July 2025: 1. Food inflation measured by the CFPI was negative. 2. Rural inflation was higher than urban inflation. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: CFPI-based food inflation was -1.76%, the lowest since January 2019. Statement 2 is incorrect: rural inflation was 1.18%, lower than urban inflation of 2.05%.
What is the base year of the Consumer Price Index series used for the July 2025 inflation data?
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Correct answer: D — 2012
The CPI numbers for rural, urban and combined released for July 2025 are on base 2012=100.
What was the combined outlay of the four semiconductor projects approved by the Union Cabinet on 12 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — About ₹4,600 crore
The Cabinet approved four semiconductor projects with a cumulative investment of about ₹4,600 crore, expected to create 2,034 skilled jobs.
India's first commercial compound fab for silicon carbide devices, approved in August 2025, will come up in which state?
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Correct answer: C — Odisha
SiCSem will set up India's first commercial compound fab for silicon carbide devices at Info Valley, Bhubaneswar, Odisha.
Consider the following statements about the semiconductor approvals of 12 August 2025: 1. With these approvals, the number of projects approved under the India Semiconductor Mission rose to 10. 2. The CDIL unit approved on this date is located in Andhra Pradesh. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: approved ISM projects reached 10, with cumulative investment of about ₹1.60 lakh crore across six states. Statement 2 is incorrect: the CDIL unit is located in Punjab; the ASIP unit is in Andhra Pradesh.
SiCSem's silicon carbide fab approved in August 2025 is to be set up in collaboration with Clas-SiC Wafer Fab Ltd. of which country?
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Correct answer: A — United Kingdom
SiCSem is setting up the compound semiconductor fab in collaboration with Clas-SiC Wafer Fab Ltd., UK.
Under the National Sports Governance Bill, 2025 passed by Parliament in August 2025, which body grants recognition to sports bodies?
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Correct answer: C — National Sports Board
The bill sets up a National Sports Board to grant recognition to sports bodies; the National Sports Tribunal is a separate institution created by the bill.
Consider the following statements about the National Sports Governance Bill, 2025: 1. Executive committees of sports bodies can have up to 15 members, including at least four women. 2. The Lok Sabha passed the bill before the Rajya Sabha did. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The bill provides for executive committees of up to 15 members with at least two outstanding sportspersons and four women, and the Lok Sabha passed it on 11 August before the Rajya Sabha approved it on 12 August 2025.
The National Anti-Doping (Amendment) Bill, 2025 passed alongside the sports governance bill reinforces the autonomy of which body?
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Correct answer: A — National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA)
The anti-doping amendment reinforces the autonomy of the National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA), as required by the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA).
Which of the following is NOT among the bodies provided for in the National Sports Governance Bill, 2025?
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Correct answer: D — National Sports Ombudsman Council
The bill provides for a National Olympic Committee, a National Paralympic Committee, national and regional federations, a National Sports Board and a National Sports Tribunal; it does not create a 'National Sports Ombudsman Council'.
On which date was the Public Service Commission, the predecessor of UPSC, first set up?
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Correct answer: D — 1 October 1926
The Public Service Commission was first set up on 1 October 1926; UPSC will mark its centenary from 1 October 2025 to 1 October 2026.
Consider the following statements about the history of the UPSC: 1. The first Public Service Commission was set up on the recommendations of the Lee Commission. 2. The commission was renamed the Union Public Service Commission on 26 January 1950. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The Public Service Commission was set up in 1926 under the Government of India Act, 1919 on the Lee Commission's recommendations, and it was renamed UPSC on 26 January 1950.
The SHRESTH index launched by the Union Health Ministry on 12 August 2025 is meant to benchmark which of the following?
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Correct answer: A — State drug regulatory systems
SHRESTH is a national initiative to benchmark and strengthen state drug regulatory systems through a transparent, data-driven framework.
Which organisation proposed the SHRESTH index launched in August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation
SHRESTH was proposed by the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) as a virtual gap-assessment tool for states.
Which company led the consortium selected by IN-SPACe in August 2025 to build India's first PPP-based Earth Observation constellation?
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Correct answer: B — Pixxel
IN-SPACe selected a consortium led by Pixxel, with Piersight Space, SatSure Analytics India and Dhruva Space, under its EO-PPP model.
How many satellites will the Earth Observation constellation awarded under IN-SPACe's EO-PPP model in August 2025 comprise?
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Correct answer: A — 12
The Pixxel-led consortium will deploy a constellation of 12 satellites carrying optical, hyperspectral and SAR sensors, investing over ₹1,200 crore.
Who headed the Select Committee whose recommendations were incorporated in the Income-Tax (No. 2) Bill, 2025 passed by the Lok Sabha on 11 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Baijayant Panda
The revised Income-Tax Bill incorporated most of the recommendations of the Select Committee headed by Baijayant Panda.
The Income-Tax (No. 2) Bill, 2025 passed by the Lok Sabha in August 2025 seeks to replace which law?
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Correct answer: B — Income-Tax Act, 1961
The revised Income-Tax Bill aims to replace the six-decade-old Income-Tax Act, 1961.
Consider the following statements about the tax bills passed by the Lok Sabha on 11 August 2025: 1. Both bills were passed by voice vote without debate. 2. The Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2025 extends tax exemptions to subscribers of the Old Pension Scheme. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: both bills were passed by voice vote without any debate amid Opposition protests. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill extends tax exemptions to subscribers of the Unified Pension Scheme.
The Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2025 passed by the Lok Sabha on 11 August 2025 provides tax exemptions to subscribers of which scheme?
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Correct answer: D — Unified Pension Scheme
The Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2025 aims to provide tax exemptions to subscribers of the Unified Pension Scheme and also changes block assessment for income tax search cases.
The Merchant Shipping Bill, 2025 passed by Parliament on 11 August 2025 replaces the Merchant Shipping Act of which year?
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Correct answer: B — 1958
The bill replaces the Merchant Shipping Act, 1958, which had 561 sections.
Consider the following statements about the Merchant Shipping Bill, 2025: 1. The Act it replaces had 561 sections. 2. The new Bill is structured into 16 parts and 325 clauses. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The Merchant Shipping Act, 1958 had 561 sections, and the new Bill offers a streamlined framework of 16 parts and 325 clauses.
The Merchant Shipping Bill, 2025 aligns India's domestic laws with the conventions of which international body?
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Correct answer: D — International Maritime Organisation
The bill aims to align domestic laws with international best practices and International Maritime Organisation (IMO) conventions.
The Cooperative Election Authority, which held its first consultative meeting with states on 11 August 2025, was notified under which Act?
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Correct answer: B — Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002
The CEA was notified on 11 March 2024 under Section 45 of the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002, as amended in 2023.
Who chaired the first consultative meeting of the Cooperative Election Authority with State Cooperative Election Authorities on 11 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Devendra Kumar Singh
The meeting was chaired by Devendra Kumar Singh, Chairperson of the Cooperative Election Authority.
Which edition of the High-Level Meeting between the Indian Coast Guard and the Sri Lanka Coast Guard was held in New Delhi on 11 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 8th
The 8th High-Level Meeting between the ICG and SLCG was held in New Delhi on 11 August 2025.
In which year was the Memorandum of Understanding between the Indian Coast Guard and the Sri Lanka Coast Guard signed, under which the August 2025 visit took place?
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Correct answer: C — 2018
The SLCG delegation visited India from 10 to 14 August 2025 under the framework of the MoU signed between the ICG and SLCG in 2018.
Political parties are registered with the Election Commission of India under which provision?
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Correct answer: C — Section 29A of the RP Act, 1951
Political parties, including RUPPs, are registered with the ECI under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
How many registered unrecognised political parties did the ECI delist in the first round on 9 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 334
In the first round, the ECI delisted 334 RUPPs on 9 August 2025, reducing listed RUPPs from 2,854 to 2,520; 476 more were identified in the second round.
Consider the following statements about the ECI's RUPP delisting exercise of August 2025: 1. Registration guidelines provide for delisting a party that does not contest elections continuously for six years. 2. After the first round, the number of listed RUPPs rose to 2,854. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: a party that does not contest elections continuously for six years is taken off the list. Statement 2 is incorrect: the first round reduced listed RUPPs from 2,854 to 2,520.
How many medals did India win at the U19 Asian Boxing Championships 2025 in Bangkok?
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Correct answer: C — 14
India's U19 boxers won 14 medals — three gold, seven silver and four bronze; 27 was India's combined tally across the U19 and U22 events.
Which of the following Indian boxers did NOT win a gold medal at the U19 Asian Boxing Championships 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Hemant
India's three U19 golds were won by Nisha (54 kg), Muskan (57 kg) and Rahul Kundu (75 kg); Hemant was not among the gold medallists.
What milestone did UIDAI mark for Aadhaar Face Authentication on 10 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 200 crore transactions
UIDAI celebrated 200 crore Aadhaar Face Authentication transactions on 10 August 2025.
Consider the following statements about Aadhaar Face Authentication: 1. It reached 100 crore transactions in January 2025. 2. The rise from 100 crore to 200 crore transactions took more than a year. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: Face Authentication transactions doubled to 100 crore in January 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect: the count doubled from 100 crore to 200 crore in less than six months.
Who was the CEO of the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) when Aadhaar Face Authentication crossed 200 crore transactions in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Bhuvnesh Kumar
Bhuvnesh Kumar.
What was India's annual defence production in FY 2024-25, as announced by the Raksha Mantri on 9 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1,50,590 crore
Annual defence production reached an all-time high of ₹1,50,590 crore in FY 2024-25.
By how much did India's defence production grow in FY 2024-25 over FY 2023-24?
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Correct answer: D — 18%
Production rose 18% over the ₹1.27 lakh crore recorded in FY 2023-24.
Consider the following statements about India's defence production in FY 2024-25: 1. The private sector's share of total production rose from 21% in FY 2023-24 to 23%. 2. Production by DPSUs grew faster than production by the private sector. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the private sector's share rose from 21% to 23%. Statement 2 is incorrect: DPSU production grew 16% while private-sector production grew 28%.
Consider the following statements about India's defence exports and production: 1. Defence exports reached a record ₹23,622 crore in FY 2024-25. 2. Defence production in FY 2019-20 was ₹79,071 crore. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. Exports hit a record ₹23,622 crore in FY 2024-25 (up 12.04% from ₹21,083 crore), and production has risen 90% from ₹79,071 crore in FY 2019-20.
How many Registered Unrecognised Political Parties (RUPPs) did the Election Commission delist on 9 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 334
The ECI delisted 334 RUPPs that were found non-compliant.
Before the August 2025 delisting, how many State Parties were registered with the Election Commission of India?
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Correct answer: B — 67
The ECI said there were 6 National Parties, 67 State Parties and 2,854 RUPPs registered with it.
Consider the following statements about the ECI's delisting of RUPPs in August 2025: 1. Delisted parties lose benefits under Sections 29B and 29C of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. 2. A party aggrieved by the order can appeal to the Commission within 30 days. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. Delisted parties cannot claim benefits under Sections 29B and 29C of the RP Act, 1951, and an aggrieved party may appeal to the Commission within 30 days of the order.
The Sanchar Saathi mobile app, which crossed 50 lakh downloads by August 2025, was launched by which department?
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Correct answer: B — Department of Telecommunications
The Sanchar Saathi app was introduced by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) on 17 January 2025.
Consider the following statements about the Sanchar Saathi initiative: 1. The Sanchar Saathi portal was launched before the mobile app, in May 2023. 2. Under the Financial Fraud Risk Indicator, mobile numbers are categorised by their association with financial fraud risk. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The portal was launched on 16 May 2023 and the app on 17 January 2025, and the FRI assesses and categorises mobile numbers by their association with financial fraud risk.
INS Tamal, which made a port call at Casablanca in August 2025, was commissioned on 1 July 2025 in which country?
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Correct answer: A — Russia
INS Tamal was commissioned in Russia on 1 July 2025 and was on its return voyage to India.
Consider the following statements about INS Tamal's visit to Casablanca in August 2025: 1. It was the first ever visit by an Indian Navy ship to Casablanca. 2. On departure, the ship held a Passage Exercise with Royal Moroccan Navy ship Mohammed VI. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: INS Tamal was the third Indian Navy ship in the last two years to visit Casablanca. Statement 2 is correct: it carried out a PASSEX with the Royal Moroccan Navy ship Mohammed VI.
Which department notified the scheme for the National Awards for e-Governance (NAeG) 2026 in August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances
The Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) issued the scheme guidelines for the 23rd NAeG 2026.
How many awards will be conferred under the National Awards for e-Governance 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 16
A total of 16 awards, 10 Gold and 6 Silver, will be conferred across seven categories under NAeG 2026.
How much compensation did the Union Cabinet approve in August 2025 for public sector OMCs' losses on domestic LPG?
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Correct answer: D — ₹30,000 crore
The Cabinet approved ₹30,000 crore as compensation to IOCL, BPCL and HPCL for under-recoveries on domestic LPG.
In how many tranches will the ₹30,000-crore LPG compensation to oil marketing companies be paid?
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Correct answer: B — 12
The compensation will be paid in 12 tranches, with distribution among the OMCs done by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
The MERITE scheme approved by the Union Cabinet in August 2025 relates to which sector?
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Correct answer: A — Technical education
MERITE stands for Multidisciplinary Education and Research Improvement in Technical Education and covers technical institutions.
Which international institution is providing a ₹2,100-crore loan for the MERITE scheme?
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Correct answer: C — World Bank
Of the ₹4,200-crore outlay of MERITE, ₹2,100 crore is a loan from the World Bank.
Consider the following statements about the MERITE scheme: 1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with cost-sharing between the Centre and States. 2. It is expected to support about 275 government and government-aided technical institutions. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: MERITE is a Central Sector Scheme, with funds transferred from the Centre to participating entities through a Central Nodal Agency. Statement 2 is correct: about 275 government and government-aided technical institutions are expected to be supported.
During his phone call with President Putin on 8 August 2025, PM Modi invited him to India for which edition of the India–Russia Annual Summit?
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Correct answer: D — 23rd
PM Modi invited President Putin to India later in the year for the 23rd India–Russia Annual Summit.
How is the India–Russia partnership officially described in the readout of the Modi–Putin call of 8 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Special and Privileged Strategic Partnership
The two leaders reaffirmed their commitment to further deepen the Special and Privileged Strategic Partnership between India and Russia.
What Gross Merchandise Value did the Government e Marketplace (GeM) record in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: A — ₹5.4 lakh crore
GeM recorded ₹5.4 lakh crore in Gross Merchandise Value in FY 2024-25.
Consider the following statements about GeM's 9th Foundation Day in August 2025: 1. The celebration was held on the theme 'Ease, Access and Inclusion'. 2. Caution money for sellers was doubled to curb non-performance. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the theme was 'Ease, Access and Inclusion'. Statement 2 is incorrect: caution money for sellers was eliminated, not doubled.
Till when has the PM E-DRIVE scheme been extended, as announced in August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 31 March 2028
The Ministry of Heavy Industries extended the PM E-DRIVE scheme by two years, from 31 March 2026 to 31 March 2028.
What is the total outlay of the PM E-DRIVE scheme, which was kept unchanged when the scheme was extended in August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹10,900 crore
The scheme was originally notified on 29 September 2024 with an outlay of ₹10,900 crore, and the extension is within the same outlay.
Consider the following statements about the extension of the PM E-DRIVE scheme in August 2025: 1. Support for registered electric two-wheelers will also continue till 31 March 2028. 2. The extension is meant for e-trucks, e-buses and testing agencies. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the terminal date for registered e-2Ws, e-rickshaws and e-carts, and e-3Ws (L5) remains 31 March 2026. Statement 2 is correct: the extension to 31 March 2028 is for e-trucks, e-buses and testing agencies.
What targeted subsidy per 14.2-kg LPG cylinder will PMUY beneficiaries get in 2025-26 under the Cabinet decision of 8 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹300
PMUY beneficiaries will get a targeted subsidy of ₹300 per 14.2-kg cylinder for up to 9 refills a year.
Up to how many refills a year are covered by the PMUY targeted subsidy for 2025-26?
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Correct answer: D — 9
The ₹300 subsidy applies to up to 9 refills per year (pro-rated for 5-kg cylinders).
Consider the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana as of 2025: 1. It was launched in May 2016 to give deposit-free LPG connections to adult women from poor households. 2. India imports about 60% of its LPG requirement. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. PMUY was launched in May 2016 to provide deposit-free LPG connections to adult women of poor households, and India imports about 60% of its LPG requirement.
The Coastal Shipping Bill, 2025, which cleared Parliament on 7 August 2025, replaces which part of the Merchant Shipping Act, 1958?
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Correct answer: D — Part XIV
The Bill replaces Part XIV of the Merchant Shipping Act, 1958 with new legislation aligned with global cabotage norms.
What coastal cargo target by 2030 did the Shipping Minister link to the Coastal Shipping Bill, 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 230 million metric tonnes
Sarbananda Sonowal said the legislation is central to increasing India's coastal cargo share to 230 million metric tonnes by 2030.
Consider the following statements about the Coastal Shipping Bill, 2025: 1. It mandates the formulation of a National Coastal and Inland Shipping Strategic Plan. 2. It provides for a National Database for Coastal Shipping. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The Bill mandates a National Coastal and Inland Shipping Strategic Plan and provides for a National Database for Coastal Shipping with real-time, regularly updated data.
Consider the following statements about the Coastal Shipping Bill, 2025: 1. It was passed by the Rajya Sabha before the Lok Sabha. 2. It comprises six chapters and 42 clauses. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the Lok Sabha passed the Bill first, on 3 April 2025, and the Rajya Sabha passed it on 7 August 2025. Statement 2 is correct: the Bill has six chapters and 42 clauses.
On which date was the poll, if necessary, scheduled for the Vice-Presidential Election, 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 9 September 2025
The ECI fixed 9 September 2025 as the date on which a poll shall, if necessary, be taken.
Who was appointed Returning Officer for the Vice-Presidential Election, 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Secretary-General, Rajya Sabha
Shri P.C. Mody, Secretary-General, Rajya Sabha, was appointed the Returning Officer for the Vice-Presidential Election, 2025.
What security deposit must each candidate make for the Vice-Presidential Election, 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹15,000
Every candidate has to deposit a sum of ₹15,000 (Rupees Fifteen Thousand only).
Consider the following statements about the Vice-Presidential Election, 2025 schedule: 1. The last date for withdrawal of candidatures was 25 August 2025. 2. Nomination papers had to be accompanied by a certified copy of the candidate's entry in the electoral roll of the Parliamentary constituency where the candidate is registered. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. 25 August 2025 was fixed as the last date for withdrawal, and each nomination paper had to be accompanied by a certified copy of the candidate's electoral roll entry for the Parliamentary constituency where the candidate is registered.
The first M.S. Swaminathan Award for Food and Peace, presented on 7 August 2025, went to a scientist from which country?
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Correct answer: C — Nigeria
The Prime Minister congratulated Professor Adenle of Nigeria, the first recipient of the award.
What was the theme of the M.S. Swaminathan Centenary International Conference held in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Evergreen Revolution, The Pathway to Biohappiness
The theme of the conference was 'Evergreen Revolution, The Pathway to Biohappiness', reflecting Professor Swaminathan's ideas.
Consider the following statements about the M.S. Swaminathan Award for Food and Peace: 1. It was launched by the M.S. Swaminathan Research Foundation and The World Academy of Sciences. 2. It is meant only for Indian agricultural scientists. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the award was launched by the MSSRF and The World Academy of Sciences (TWAS). Statement 2 is incorrect: it recognises individuals from developing countries who have contributed to food security, climate justice, equity and peace.
A chapter on which officer, India's first to be conferred the rank of Field Marshal, was added to the NCERT syllabus in 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Sam Manekshaw
A chapter on Field Marshal Sam Manekshaw, India's first officer to be conferred the rank of Field Marshal, was added in Class VIII (Urdu).
Consider the following statements about the new NCERT chapters announced in August 2025: 1. Brigadier Mohammad Usman was a posthumous recipient of the Param Vir Chakra. 2. The chapter on Major Somnath Sharma has been added in the Class VIII English textbook. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: Brigadier Mohammad Usman received the Maha Vir Chakra (posthumously), while Major Somnath Sharma received the Param Vir Chakra (posthumously). Statement 2 is correct: the chapter on Major Somnath Sharma is in Class VIII (English).
Declassified Joint Doctrines for which two areas were released by the CDS on 7 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Cyberspace Operations and Amphibious Operations
General Anil Chauhan released the declassified Joint Doctrines for Cyberspace Operations and Amphibious Operations.
Consider the following statements about the joint doctrines released in August 2025: 1. The Joint Doctrine for Cyberspace Operations integrates offensive and defensive cyber capabilities across the three Services. 2. The Joint Doctrine for Amphibious Operations deals only with naval forces. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the cyberspace doctrine integrates offensive and defensive cyber capabilities and enables synchronised operations across the three Services. Statement 2 is incorrect: the amphibious doctrine integrates maritime, air and land forces.
National Handloom Day is observed on 7 August to commemorate the launch of which movement in 1905?
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Correct answer: A — Swadeshi Movement
National Handloom Day is celebrated annually on 7 August to commemorate the launch of the Swadeshi Movement in 1905.
In which city was the first National Handloom Day inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in 2015?
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Correct answer: C — Chennai
The first National Handloom Day was inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in Chennai in 2015.
Consider the following statements made on the 11th National Handloom Day: 1. The handloom sector employs over 35 lakh people, more than 70% of them women. 2. The Sant Kabir and National Handloom Awards were conferred on 24 master weavers. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The handloom sector employs over 35 lakh people with more than 70% women, and the Sant Kabir and National Handloom Awards went to 24 master weavers, including six women and one Divyang artisan.