Government Schemes Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
On NAMASTE Day, 16 July 2025, which helpline number was launched for waste pickers in Lucknow?
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Correct answer: A — 14473
PIB (MoSJE): MoS B L Verma inaugurated the helpline (14473) for waste pickers in Lucknow.
The NAMASTE scheme, whose day was observed on 16 July 2025, is implemented by which body and for what period?
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Correct answer: A — NSKFDC; FY 2023-24 to 2025-26
PIB (MoSJE): the scheme is being implemented by the National Safai Karamcharis Finance and Development Corporation (NSKFDC) for three years from FY 2023-24 to 2025-26 with a budget of Rs 349.73 crore.
The ADEETIE scheme for energy efficiency in MSMEs was launched on 15 July 2025 at which place?
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Correct answer: A — Panipat, Haryana
PIB (Ministry of Power): the ADEETIE scheme was launched at a national roll-out event at Arya (P.G.) College, Panipat, Haryana.
The ADEETIE scheme, with an outlay of ₹1,000 crore, is being implemented by which body?
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Correct answer: C — Bureau of Energy Efficiency
PIB (Ministry of Power): the ADEETIE scheme, with a budgetary outlay of ₹1,000 crore, is an initiative of the Ministry of Power and is being implemented by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE).
Under the ADEETIE scheme, what interest subvention is provided on loans for energy-efficiency projects?
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Correct answer: D — 5% for micro and small enterprises; 3% for medium enterprises
PIB (Ministry of Power): the scheme envisages interest subvention of 5% for Micro and Small Enterprises and 3% for Medium Enterprises on loans.
Union Sports Minister Mansukh Mandaviya led the 31st edition of Fit India Sundays on Cycle on 13 July 2025 from which city?
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Correct answer: D — Gandhinagar
MoYAS: Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya led a group of over 500 participants in Gandhinagar, Gujarat.
What was the message of the Fit India Sundays on Cycle drive held on 13 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Fitness Ki Dose, Aadha Ghanta Roz
MoYAS: the pan-India cycling drive reinforced the message of 'Fitness Ki Dose, Aadha Ghanta Roz'.
How many appointment letters did PM Narendra Modi distribute at the Rozgar Mela on 12 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — More than 51,000
PMO: the Prime Minister distributed more than 51,000 appointment letters to newly appointed youth via videoconferencing.
Which edition of the Rozgar Mela was held on 12 July 2025, and at how many locations?
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Correct answer: C — 16th; 47 locations
PMO background: the 16th Rozgar Mela will be held at 47 locations across the country.
At the Rozgar Mela on 12 July 2025, the PM said approximately what budget has been allocated for the Employment Linked Incentive Scheme?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1 lakh crore
PMO: 'Recently, the government has approved a new scheme called the Employment Linked Incentive Scheme. For this, the government has allocated a budget of approximately ₹1 lakh crore.'
From which date will beneficiary registration under Poshan 2.0 use biometric authentication, as announced at the Kevadia zonal meeting on 12 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 1 August
Ministry of WCD: from 1st August the beneficiary registration will be done using biometric authentication.
Which of the following States did NOT take part in the WCD Ministry's zonal meeting at Kevadia on 12 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Karnataka
Ministry of WCD: Gujarat, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Goa participated; Karnataka was not listed.
What is the maximum incentive per vehicle under the e-truck scheme launched under PM E-DRIVE on 11 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — ₹9.6 lakh
Ministry of Heavy Industries: the incentive depends on GVW, with the maximum set at ₹9.6 lakh per vehicle.
Approximately how many electric trucks is the PM E-DRIVE e-truck scheme expected to support?
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Correct answer: A — 5,600
Ministry of Heavy Industries: the scheme is expected to support the deployment of approximately 5,600 e-trucks across the country.
Consider the following statements about the e-truck incentive scheme (July 2025): 1. N2 category covers trucks with GVW above 3.5 tonnes and up to 12 tonnes. 2. N3 category covers trucks with GVW above 12 tonnes and up to 55 tonnes. 3. The battery must carry a warranty of three years or 3 lakh km. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct as per the CMVR categories cited by the Ministry. Statement 3 is wrong: the battery warranty must be five years or 5 lakh km, whichever is earlier.
The Aadi Karmayogi mission of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs aims to build a cadre of how many tribal change leaders?
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Correct answer: C — 20 lakh
Ministry of Tribal Affairs: the initiative aims to build a dynamic cadre of 20 lakh tribal grassroots functionaries and village-level change leaders.
Where was the first Regional Process Lab of the Aadi Karmayogi mission launched on 10 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Bengaluru
Ministry of Tribal Affairs: the first RPL was hosted in Bengaluru.
Consider the following about the first Aadi Karmayogi Regional Process Lab (July 2025): 1. It was launched on Guru Purnima. 2. It trains State Master Trainers from Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. 3. It is run by the Ministry of Rural Development. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: Aadi Karmayogi is a mission of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
Under SBM-Urban, about how much land was reclaimed at Agra's Kuberpur legacy dumpsite, as highlighted in July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — About 47 acres
MoHUA: about 1.9 million metric tonnes of waste were removed, reclaiming about 47 acres of land at an estimated cost of ₹320 crore.
The 'Aspirational DMF Programme' launched by the Ministry of Mines on 9 July 2025 converges District Mineral Foundation initiatives with which programmes?
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Correct answer: D — Aspirational District Programme and Aspirational Block Programme
Ministry of Mines: the guidelines are for the convergence of DMF initiatives with the Aspirational District Programme (ADP) and Aspirational Block Programme (ABP).
Consider the following statements about District Mineral Foundations (DMFs): 1. Their establishment in mining-affected districts was mandated by the 2015 amendment of the MMDR Act. 2. Mining companies contribute between 10 and 30 percent of their royalty to DMFs. 3. DMFs have so far been set up in all 36 States and UTs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct per the Ministry of Mines. Statement 3 is wrong: DMFs have been set up in 646 districts across 23 mining states.
Under which scheme did the Centre announce funds for fencing against crop damage by wild animals in Uttarakhand (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: A — Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH)
Agriculture Ministry: the Central Government will provide funds under MIDH to support fencing efforts in the state.
Which two traditional millets of Uttarakhand will get support under NFSM, as decided at the meeting of 7 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Mandua and Jhingora
Agriculture Ministry: Uttarakhand sought support for 'Mandua' (finger millet) and 'Jhingora' (barnyard millet); the Centre decided to allocate funds under NFSM.
According to MSME Minister Jitan Ram Manjhi (4 July 2025), what share of India's GDP does the MSME sector account for?
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Correct answer: A — 30.1%
MSME Ministry: MSME accounts for 30.1% of India's GDP, 35.4% of manufacturing and 45.73% of exports.
The Udyam portal for MSME registration, which had over 3.80 crore units by July 2025, was launched on which date?
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Correct answer: C — 1 July 2020
MSME Ministry: the Udyam portal, launched on July 1, 2020, offers a free, paperless and self-declared registration process and has more than 3.80 crore units.
With effect from which date was the Unified Pension Scheme introduced as an option under NPS for Central Government civil service recruits?
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Correct answer: D — 1 April 2025
Ministry of Finance: DFS Notification dated 24.01.2025 introduced UPS as an option under NPS with effect from 1 April 2025 (01.04.2025).
Which body notified the regulations for operationalising the Unified Pension Scheme under NPS in March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority
Ministry of Finance: the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) notified the PFRDA (Operationalisation of the Unified Pension Scheme under NPS) Regulations, 2025 on 19 March 2025.
Why did the Government say NPS tax benefits apply mutatis mutandis to UPS (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: A — Because UPS is an option under NPS
Ministry of Finance: the Government decided that tax benefits as available under NPS shall apply mutatis mutandis to UPS as it is an option under NPS.
Under which mission will the ₹150-crore Clean Plant Centre in Srinagar, announced on 3 July 2025, be set up?
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Correct answer: C — Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture
Agriculture Ministry: a ₹150-crore Clean Plant Center will be established in Srinagar under the Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH).
Which J&K initiative, a one-stop centre giving farmers access to all agricultural services, did Shivraj Chouhan praise on 3 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Kisan Khidmat Ghar
Agriculture Ministry: he praised the state's initiative 'Kisan Khidmat Ghar' — a one-stop center providing farmers access to all agricultural services under one roof.
Where did the Karnataka cabinet hold its meeting on 2 July 2025, approving projects worth ₹3,400 crore?
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Correct answer: A — Nandi Hills
PTI/Hindustan Times: the Karnataka cabinet, in a meeting held atop the Nandi Hills, approved development projects worth ₹3,400 crore.
The Karnataka cabinet decided on 2 July 2025 to rename Bengaluru Rural district as what?
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Correct answer: D — Bengaluru North
Economic Times/Deccan Herald: CM Siddaramaiah said the cabinet decided to rename Bengaluru Rural district as Bengaluru North.
Under which scheme is the Centre considering a ₹100-crore Integrated Aqua Park for Jammu and Kashmir (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: C — PMMSY Phase-II
Fisheries Ministry: the Government of India is considering a ₹100-crore proposal for an Integrated Aqua Park in J&K under PMMSY Phase-II.
From which country were genetically improved eyed ova of rainbow and brown trout imported for J&K?
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Correct answer: B — Denmark
Fisheries Ministry: the Government of India facilitated import of 13.40 lakh genetically improved eyed ova of rainbow and brown trout from Denmark for J&K.
What is the corpus of the Research Development and Innovation (RDI) Scheme approved on 1 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — ₹1 lakh crore
Cabinet: the Cabinet approved the RDI Scheme with a corpus of ₹1 lakh crore.
Which department will serve as the nodal department for implementing the RDI Scheme?
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Correct answer: A — Department of Science and Technology
Cabinet: the Department of Science and Technology (DST) will serve as the nodal department for implementation of the RDI Scheme.
Who chairs the Governing Board of the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF), which gives strategic direction to the RDI Scheme?
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Correct answer: C — Prime Minister
Cabinet: the Governing Board of ANRF, chaired by the Prime Minister, will provide overarching strategic direction to the RDI Scheme.
What is the outlay of the Employment Linked Incentive (ELI) Scheme approved by the Cabinet on 1 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹99,446 crore
Cabinet: with an outlay of ₹99,446 crore, the ELI Scheme aims to incentivize the creation of more than 3.5 crore jobs over 2 years.
Under Part A of the ELI Scheme, first-time employees get one month's EPF wage up to what amount?
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Correct answer: C — ₹15,000
Cabinet: Part A offers first-time employees registered with EPFO one-month EPF wage up to ₹15,000 in two instalments.
ELI Scheme benefits apply to jobs created during which period?
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Correct answer: D — 1 August 2025 – 31 July 2027
Cabinet: the benefits of the Scheme would be applicable to jobs created between 1 August 2025 and 31 July 2027.
Consider the following about the ELI Scheme (July 2025): 1. It was announced in the Union Budget 2024-25 as part of the PM's package of five schemes. 2. For the manufacturing sector, employer incentives extend to the third and fourth years. 3. Employers get up to ₹15,000 per month for each additional employee. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct (Cabinet). Statement 3 is wrong: employers get up to ₹3,000 per month per additional employee; ₹15,000 is the cap on the one-month EPF wage for first-time employees.
The National Sports Policy 2025, approved on 1 July 2025, supersedes the National Sports Policy of which year?
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Correct answer: B — 2001
Cabinet: the new policy supersedes the existing National Sports Policy, 2001.
How many key pillars is the National Sports Policy 2025 anchored on?
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Correct answer: D — Five
Cabinet: the policy is anchored on five key pillars.
Which Olympic Games does the National Sports Policy 2025 specifically mention as a target for excellence?
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Correct answer: A — 2036 Olympic Games
Cabinet: NSP 2025 lays out a roadmap to make India a strong contender at international events, including the 2036 Olympic Games.
Which of the following is NOT one of the five pillars of the National Sports Policy 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Sports for Defence Preparedness
Cabinet: the five pillars are Excellence on the Global Stage, Sports for Economic Development, Sports for Social Development, Sports as a People's Movement, and Integration with Education (NEP 2020); Sports for Defence Preparedness is not a pillar.
On which date was the Digital India programme launched, completing ten years on 1 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 1 July 2015
MyGov/Indian Express: Digital India was launched by PM Narendra Modi on 1 July 2015 and turned 10 on 1 July 2025.
Digital India's stated vision, as recalled on its tenth anniversary, is to transform India into what?
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Correct answer: D — A digitally empowered society and knowledge economy
Indian Express: Digital India was launched with the vision to transform India into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy.
Who chaired the 8th National Level Steering Committee meeting of the Atal Bhujal Yojana on 30 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Debashree Mukherjee
PIB: the meeting was held at New Delhi under the chairpersonship of Ms. Debashree Mukherjee, Secretary, DoWR, RD & GR.
Which of the following states is NOT among the seven states where the Atal Bhujal Yojana was implemented?
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Correct answer: D — Chhattisgarh
Lok Sabha reply (PIB): the scheme was implemented in Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh, so Chhattisgarh is not among them.
According to the Health Ministry (28 June 2025), the percentage of zero-dose children in India's total population fell from 0.11% in 2023 to what in 2024?
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Correct answer: C — 0.06%
MoHFW: the share of zero-dose children declined from 0.11% in 2023 to 0.06% in 2024.
The Zero Dose Implementation Plan 2024 was rolled out in how many districts?
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Correct answer: A — 143 districts in 11 states
MoHFW: the Zero Dose Implementation Plan 2024 was rolled out across 143 districts in 11 states with a high burden of unvaccinated children.
Consider the following statements about India's Universal Immunization Programme (UIP): 1. The UIP currently covers 12 vaccine-preventable diseases. 2. Till 2013, only six vaccines were available in the programme. 3. Mission Indradhanush was first launched in 2017. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
MoHFW: statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: Mission Indradhanush runs since 2014 and was intensified in 2017.
Under MNRE's revised Waste-to-Energy guidelines (June 2025), what share of the total Central Financial Assistance can be released after the plant obtains Consent to Operate from the State Pollution Control Board?
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Correct answer: D — 50%
MNRE: 50% of total CFA will be released after obtaining the Consent to Operate certificate from the SPCB, against a bank guarantee.
The Biomass Programme whose guidelines MNRE revised in June 2025 is part of which programme?
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Correct answer: A — Phase-I of the National Bioenergy Programme
MNRE: the revised guidelines are for the Biomass Programme under Phase-I of the National Bioenergy Programme (FY 2021-22 to 2025-26).
Consider the following statements about MNRE's revised bioenergy guidelines of June 2025: 1. Under Waste-to-Energy, the balance CFA is released on achieving 80% of rated capacity or the maximum CFA-eligible capacity, whichever is lesser. 2. Under the Biomass Programme, the two-year briquette or pellet sale contract has been replaced with a general sale agreement. 3. Under the Biomass Programme, SCADA-based monitoring has been made mandatory for all plants. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
MNRE: statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: IoT-based monitoring or quarterly data submission is allowed instead of expensive systems like SCADA.
Where was the 196th meeting of the Employees' State Insurance Corporation (ESIC), chaired by Mansukh Mandaviya, held on 27 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Shimla
PIB: Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya chaired the 196th meeting of ESIC at Shimla, Himachal Pradesh.
ESIC's SPREE (Scheme to Promote Registration of Employers/Employees), approved for re-launch in June 2025, was originally introduced in which year?
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Correct answer: B — 2016
PIB: SPREE was originally introduced in 2016 and facilitated registration of over 88,000 employers and 1.02 crore employees.
The 'Adi Karmayogi' programme, whose Beta version was launched on 27 June 2025, belongs to which ministry?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Tribal Affairs
PIB: Union Tribal Affairs Minister Jual Oram launched the Ministry's flagship programme Adi Karmayogi Beta version.
The Adi Karmayogi Beta version aims at capacity building of nearly how many stakeholders?
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Correct answer: B — 20 lakh
PIB: the Adi Karmayogi Beta version will enable capacity building of nearly 20 lakh stakeholders.
Consider the following statements about the Adi Karmayogi Beta version: 1. It targets reaching 1 lakh tribal villages and habitations. 2. It was launched at the national conference 'Adi Anveshan' held at Vanijya Bhawan, New Delhi. 3. Its training framework includes about 3,000 State Master Trainers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB: statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the framework has more than 180 State Master Trainers; 3,000 is the number of District Trainers.
Which day is observed every year on 26 June?
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Correct answer: C — International Day against Drug Abuse and Illicit Trafficking
PIB: each year, 26 June is observed as the 'International Day against Drug Abuse and Illicit Trafficking'.
Which ministry is the nodal ministry for drug demand reduction in India and runs the Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan?
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Correct answer: B — Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
PIB: the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment is the nodal ministry for drug demand reduction and has initiated the Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan.
Where was the 21st Steering Committee Meeting of Project Elephant held on 26 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Indira Gandhi National Forest Academy, Dehradun
PIB: the 21st Steering Committee Meeting of Project Elephant was held at the Indira Gandhi National Forest Academy (IGNFA), Dehradun.
Project Elephant, a centrally sponsored scheme, was launched in which year?
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Correct answer: C — 1992
PIB backgrounder: Project Elephant, a centrally sponsored scheme, was launched in February 1992.
As discussed at the 21st Steering Committee of Project Elephant, where will World Elephant Day 2025 be celebrated, along with the Gaj Gaurav Awards?
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Correct answer: D — Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu
PIB: the Committee discussed preparations for World Elephant Day on 12 August 2025 in Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu, where the Gaj Gaurav Awards will also be presented.
What is the total financial outlay of the revised Jharia Master Plan approved on 25 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — ₹5,940.47 crore
PIB: the total financial outlay for the implementation of the revised plan is ₹5,940.47 crore.
Which body approved the revised Jharia Master Plan on 25 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
PIB: the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs, chaired by PM Narendra Modi, approved the revised Jharia Master Plan.
Consider the following statements about the revised Jharia Master Plan: 1. A livelihood grant of ₹1 lakh will be given to affected families. 2. Credit support of up to ₹3 lakh will be available to both Legal Title Holder and Non-Legal Title Holder families. 3. The livelihood grant is limited to Legal Title Holder families only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB: statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the grant and credit support extend to both Legal Title Holder and Non-Legal Title Holder families.
The MoU signed on 25 June 2025 between DAY-NRLM and MSDE aims to support the goal of how many Lakhpati Didis, as stated by Shivraj Singh Chouhan?
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Correct answer: B — Three crore
PIB: Shivraj Singh Chouhan said the collaboration is a step towards realising the vision of three crore Lakhpati Didis across rural India.
DAY-NRLM, which signed an MoU with MSDE on 25 June 2025 to skill SHG women, functions under which ministry?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Rural Development
PIB: Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana–National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM) is under the aegis of the Ministry of Rural Development.
What is the minimum investment required from approved applicants under SPMEPCI?
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Correct answer: B — ₹4,150 crore
PIB: approved applicants would be required to make a minimum investment of Rs. 4,150 crore (₹4,150 crore).
Under SPMEPCI, approved applicants may import completely built-up electric four-wheelers with a minimum CIF value of USD 35,000 at what reduced customs duty?
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Correct answer: C — 15%
PIB: approved applicants can import CBUs of e-4W with a minimum CIF value of USD 35,000 at a reduced customs duty of 15% for 5 years.
Consider the following statements about SPMEPCI: 1. The scheme was notified on 15 March 2024. 2. Its detailed guidelines were issued through Notification S.O. 2450(E) dated 2 June 2025. 3. The application portal opened on 24 June 2025 will remain open until 21 October 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB: the scheme was notified on 15 March 2024, guidelines were issued via S.O. 2450(E) dated 02.06.2025, and the portal is open from 24 June 2025 until 21 October 2025. All three are correct.
Where was the NAVYA vocational training initiative for adolescent girls launched on 24 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Sonbhadra
PIB: MWCD, in convergence with MSDE, launched NAVYA in Sonbhadra, Uttar Pradesh.
NAVYA aims to equip adolescent girls of which age group with vocational training?
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Correct answer: A — 16 to 18 years
PIB: the NAVYA programme aims to equip adolescent girls aged 16 to 18 years with vocational training, mainly in non-traditional and emerging job roles.