Government Schemes Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
During which period is the month-long Dharti Aaba Janbhagidari Abhiyan (DAJA) being conducted?
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Correct answer: D — 15 June – 15 July 2025
PIB: from 15 June to 15 July 2025, the month-long national movement is reaching over 5.5 crore tribal citizens.
Tripura, declared fully literate on 23 June 2025, became which state in India to achieve full literacy under ULLAS?
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Correct answer: C — Third
PIB: Tripura has become the third state in the country, after Mizoram and Goa, to achieve full literacy.
What literacy rate did Tripura record when it was declared fully literate in June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 95.6%
PIB: Tripura's literacy rate soared to 95.6%, from just 20.24% in 1961.
Consider the following statements about ULLAS – Nav Bharat Saaksharta Karyakram: 1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme implemented from 2022 to 2027. 2. It targets adults aged 15 years and above who could not go to school. 3. A state is recognised as fully literate when literacy among those aged 15 and above reaches 90%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB: ULLAS is a centrally sponsored scheme implemented from 2022 to 2027 and targets adults aged 15 years and above; the nationally prescribed benchmark for full literacy is 95%, not 90%. So 1 and 2 only.
At which venue in Agartala was Tripura officially declared fully literate on 23 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Rabindra Satabarshiki Bhawan, Agartala
PIB: the official declaration was made at Rabindra Satabarshiki Bhawan, Agartala.
To which date was the cut-off for exercising the option under the Unified Pension Scheme extended in June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 30 September 2025
PIB: the Government decided to extend the cut-off date for exercising the option for UPS by three months, i.e., up to 30th September 2025 (30 September 2025).
Consider the following statements about the Unified Pension Scheme (UPS): 1. UPS was notified by the Ministry of Finance on 24 January 2025. 2. PFRDA notified the regulations operationalising UPS under NPS on 1 April 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB: UPS was notified by the Ministry of Finance on 24 January 2025, but PFRDA notified the operationalisation regulations on 19 March 2025, not 1 April 2025. So 1 only.
With which institution did the Ministry of Panchayati Raj organise the Training of Trainers on 'Generation of Own Source Revenue by Gram Panchayats' in June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — IIM Ahmedabad
PIB: the three-day training was organised under the Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan in collaboration with IIM Ahmedabad.
What is the name of the scheme approved by the Assam Cabinet on 22 June 2025 to bring back bodies of Assam domiciles who die outside the state?
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Correct answer: B — Shradhanjali
The Hills Times / India Today NE: the Assam Cabinet approved the 'Shradhanjali' scheme to facilitate dignified transportation of bodies of Assam domiciles who die outside the state.
From which date will Assam's 'Shradhanjali' scheme be implemented?
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Correct answer: C — 1 October 2025
The Hills Times: the scheme is set to be implemented from October 1, 2025 (1 October 2025); India Today NE also reported the Cabinet approval on 22 June.
Consider the following statements about Assam's 'Shradhanjali' scheme: 1. The Special Branch of Assam Police is the nodal agency. 2. The scheme covers deaths that occur during medical treatment outside Assam. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The Hills Times / India Today NE: the Special Branch of Assam Police is the nodal agency; the scheme does not apply to deaths during medical treatment outside Assam. So 1 only.
On 22 June 2025, the Assam government declared transgender persons a Socially and Educationally Backward Class (SEBC). This move is rooted in which 2014 Supreme Court verdict?
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Correct answer: D — NALSA vs Union of India
India Today NE: the decision is rooted in the Supreme Court's landmark 2014 verdict in the NALSA vs Union of India case, which mandated treating transgender persons as the third gender.
On how much quantity of mangoes did the Centre and Karnataka agree on 21 June 2025 to compensate farmers for the price difference?
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Correct answer: C — 2.5 lakh metric tonnes
PIB (Agriculture): Both ministers agreed to compensate farmers for the price difference on 2.5 lakh metric tonnes of mangoes, out of an estimated production of 10 lakh metric tonnes.
The fall in prices that led to the Centre-Karnataka relief decision of June 2025 particularly affected which mango variety?
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Correct answer: B — Totapuri
PIB (Agriculture): Karnataka had said prices for mangoes, particularly the Totapuri variety, had been falling steadily.
Consider the following statements about the mango price relief for Karnataka announced on 21 June 2025: 1. The price difference will be borne equally by the Central and State governments. 2. Compensation for tomato farmers was also approved at the same meeting. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (Agriculture): The price difference will be borne equally by the Central and State governments. Tomato prices had stabilised, so no immediate action was needed for tomatoes. So the answer is 1 only.
The State-level function chaired by the Prime Minister in Bhubaneswar on 20 June 2025 marked which occasion?
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Correct answer: A — Completion of one year of the Government of Odisha
PIB (PMO): The PM chaired the State-level function to commemorate the completion of one year of the Government of Odisha at Bhubaneswar.
Which district of Odisha got rail connectivity for the first time through new train services flagged off by the Prime Minister on 20 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Boudh
PIB (PMO): The PM flagged off new train services extending rail connectivity to Boudh district for the first time.
The Odisha Vision Document released on 20 June 2025 is anchored around 2036 and 2047. What does 2036 mark for Odisha?
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Correct answer: C — Odisha completes 100 years as India's first linguistic State
PIB (PMO): The Vision is anchored around 2036, when Odisha completes 100 years as India's first linguistic State, and 2047.
What is the aim of the 'Baraputra Aitihya Gram Yojana' launched by the Prime Minister in Bhubaneswar on 20 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Turning birthplaces of eminent Odias into living memorials
PIB (PMO): Turning birthplaces of eminent Odias into living memorials is the aim. The Baraputra Aitihya Gram Yojana aims to transform birthplaces of eminent Odias into living memorials through museums, interpretation centres, statues, libraries and public spaces.
In its first phase, the City Accelerator Program launched by MNRE on 20 June 2025 will be rolled out in how many cities?
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Correct answer: B — 30 cities across 10 states
PIB (MNRE): In its first phase, the program will be rolled out in 30 cities across 10 states, with later expansion to 100 cities.
The City Accelerator Program launched in June 2025 is a key initiative under which scheme?
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Correct answer: D — PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana
PIB (MNRE): The City Accelerator Program is a key initiative under the PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana (PMSGMBY), the world's largest domestic rooftop solar scheme.
Where was the three-day TTDF Symposium 2025, inaugurated on 19 June 2025, held?
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Correct answer: B — IIT Madras Research Park, Chennai
PIB (DoT): Dr. Neeraj Mittal inaugurated the three-day TTDF Symposium-2025 at the IIT Madras Research Park, Chennai.
About how many sanctioned TTDF projects made presentations at the TTDF Symposium 2025?
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Correct answer: C — About 120
PIB (DoT): About 120: presentations were made by almost 120 sanctioned TTDF projects, covering domains such as 6G, quantum communication and non-terrestrial networks.
The readiness of which facility, now open to academia and industry, was showcased at the TTDF Symposium 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Multi-Core Fiber (MCF) Testing Facility
PIB (DoT): The readiness of the Multi-Core Fiber (MCF) Testing Facility, now available for academia and industry, was showcased.
How many houses were approved under PMAY-Urban 2.0 at the third CSMC meeting held on 18 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 2.35 lakh
PIB (MoHUA): 2.35 lakh houses (2,34,864) were approved in nine states during the third CSMC meeting on 18 June 2025.
Consider the following statements about the PMAY-U 2.0 CSMC meeting of 18 June 2025: 1. The houses approved at the meeting are under the BLC and AHP verticals. 2. The meeting was chaired by the Union Minister of Housing and Urban Affairs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (MoHUA): The approved houses are under the BLC and AHP verticals; the meeting was chaired by MoHUA Secretary Srinivas Katikithala, not the Minister. So the answer is 1 only.
Through how many verticals is PMAY-Urban 2.0 being implemented?
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Correct answer: C — Four
PIB (MoHUA): PMAY-U 2.0 is being implemented through Four verticals – BLC, AHP, Affordable Rental Housing (ARH) and Interest Subsidy Scheme (ISS).
Under which rules will Central Government employees opting for the Unified Pension Scheme get retirement and death gratuity, as clarified on 18 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — CCS (Payment of Gratuity under National Pension System) Rules, 2021
PIB (DoPPW OM): UPS employees shall be eligible for retirement and death gratuity under the CCS (Payment of Gratuity under National Pension System) Rules, 2021.
Who announced on 18 June 2025 that employees under the Unified Pension Scheme would get gratuity benefits?
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Correct answer: D — Dr Jitendra Singh
PIB (DoPPW): Union Minister Dr Jitendra Singh made the announcement that UPS employees will be eligible for retirement and death gratuity.
From which date was the Unified Pension Scheme made effective as an option under NPS for Central Government civil service recruits?
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Correct answer: A — 1 April 2025
PIB (DoPPW): DFS Notification dated 24.01.2025 introduced the UPS as an option under NPS w.e.f. 01.04.2025, that is 1 April 2025.
How much margin money subsidy did KVIC disburse to 11,480 service-sector beneficiaries on 17 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹300 crore
PIB (MSME): KVIC disbursed margin money subsidy of ₹300 crore (Rs 300 crore) to 11,480 Service Sector beneficiaries on 17 June 2025.
Under which scheme did KVIC disburse margin money subsidy on 17 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Prime Minister's Employment Generation Programme
PIB (MSME): The subsidy was disbursed under the Prime Minister's Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP).
According to KVIC, how many micro enterprises had been set up under PMEGP since its inception up to 2024-25?
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Correct answer: C — 10,18,185
PIB (MSME): A total of 10,18,185 micro enterprises have been set up under the scheme so far; 90,04,541 is the number of people connected to employment.
Where did Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman address a Credit Outreach Programme on 15 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Leh
PIB (Finance): Sitharaman addressed a Credit Outreach Programme in Leh, Ladakh.
Consider the following statements about the Credit Outreach Programme in Leh on 15 June 2025: 1. Over 64,000 MUDRA loans have been sanctioned in Ladakh. 2. Ladakh has fewer than 100 banking touchpoints. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (Finance): over 64,000 MUDRA loans have been sanctioned in Ladakh, so 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong because Ladakh has over 500 banking touchpoints. So the answer is 1 only.
Where was the Inland Fisheries and Aquaculture Meet 2025 held on 13 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Indore
PIB (Fisheries): the Inland Fisheries and Aquaculture Meet 2025 was organised in Indore, Madhya Pradesh on 13 June 2025.
As stated at the Inland Fisheries Meet on 13 June 2025, India's inland fish output has risen by what percentage since 2013-14?
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Correct answer: B — 142%
PIB (Fisheries): inland output has risen 142% since 2013–14 to 147 lakh tonnes.
As per the Fisheries Minister on 13 June 2025, what is India's rank among the world's fish producers?
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Correct answer: A — Second
PIB (Fisheries): the minister said these efforts have made India the world's second-largest fish producer.
The Assam cabinet decision of 10 June 2025 raised the fixed monthly honorarium of ASHA workers to what amount from 1 October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹4,000
PTI (ThePrint) and Assam Tribune: ASHA workers will get a fixed monthly honorarium of ₹4,000 instead of ₹3,000 from 1 October.
Consider the following statements about the Assam cabinet decision of 10 June 2025 on ASHA honorarium: 1. The Centre's share in an ASHA worker's honorarium rises to ₹2,500. 2. The revised honorarium takes effect from 1 April 2026. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PTI (ThePrint) and Assam Tribune: the Centre's share rises from ₹2,000 to ₹2,500; the revision takes effect from 1 October (2025), not 1 April 2026. So 1 only.
Under which mission did the Assam cabinet on 10 June 2025 approve land allotment in favour of 1,011 educational, religious and socio-cultural entities?
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Correct answer: D — Mission Basundhara
PTI (ThePrint) and Assam Tribune: land was allotted under Mission Basundhara to 1,011 entities in Sonitpur, Golaghat, Majuli and Kamrup.
MoHUA's Advisory No. 27 of 10 June 2025 on repurposing SPVs and continuing ICCCs relates to which mission?
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Correct answer: C — Smart Cities Mission
PIB (MoHUA): the advisory concerns the SPVs and ICCCs set up under the Smart Cities Mission.
Consider the following statements about the Smart Cities Mission, as stated by MoHUA on 10 June 2025: 1. As of March 2025, over 93% of the 8,000+ projects under the Mission had been completed. 2. The Mission was completed on 31 March 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (MoHUA): over 93% of the 8,000+ projects were completed as of March 2025, and the Mission was completed on 31.03.2025. So both 1 and 2 are correct.
Consider the following statements about the SPVs of the Smart Cities Mission (launched in 2015): 1. The SPVs were established under the Companies Act, 2013. 2. The equity in each SPV is shared 50:50 between the Central Government and the State Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (MoHUA) (static): the SPVs were set up under the Companies Act, 2013, with 50:50 equity between the State/UT government and the respective Urban Local Body, not the Centre. So 1 only.
What is the total amount of the loan waiver for SC and Divyangjan borrowers whose certificates Punjab handed over on 8 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹67.84 crore
The waiver totals ₹67.84 crore and benefits 4,727 loanees, with the full amount reimbursed by the state government.
Loans given by which institution are covered by the Punjab loan waiver whose certificates were handed over in June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Punjab Scheduled Castes Land Development and Finance Corporation
The waiver covers all loans disbursed up to 31 March 2020 by the Punjab Scheduled Castes Land Development and Finance Corporation to SC and Divyangjan borrowers.
Punjab's ₹67.84 crore PSCFC loan waiver covers loans disbursed up to which date?
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Correct answer: D — 31 March 2020
The waiver covers all loans disbursed by the PSCFC to Scheduled Caste and Divyangjan borrowers up to 31 March 2020.
Odisha's new Government Medical College and Hospital in Kandhamal district, inaugurated on 7 June 2025, is located at
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Correct answer: D — Phulbani
Chief Minister Mohan Charan Majhi inaugurated the 100-seat medical college and 650-bed hospital at Phulbani in Kandhamal district.
Which cooperative bodies does the world's largest cooperative food grain storage scheme, reviewed by Amit Shah on 2 June 2025, aim to benefit by raising their income?
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Correct answer: C — Primary Agricultural Credit Societies
The scheme aims to increase the income of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) and create rural employment.
From which date did the Jan Aushadhi Kendra Experiential Learning Programme under 'Seva Se Seekhen' begin?
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Correct answer: D — 1 June 2025
The Youth Affairs Ministry said the programme would be launched from 1 June 2025.
What is the duration of the Jan Aushadhi Kendra Experiential Learning Programme for youth volunteers?
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Correct answer: B — 15 days
It is a 15-day experiential initiative placing five volunteers in five Jan Aushadhi Kendras per district.
What minimum qualifying service must a retired Central Government NPS subscriber have to claim additional UPS benefits, as per the Finance Ministry's May 2025 notice?
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Correct answer: A — 10 years
Subscribers who retired on or before 31 March 2025 with a minimum of 10 years of qualifying service are eligible.
What was the last date for retired Central Government NPS subscribers to claim additional UPS benefits, as per the notice of 30 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 30 June 2025
The Finance Ministry gave 30 June 2025 as the last date to claim the benefits.
How many villages will be covered under Swachh Survekshan Grameen 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 21,000
The Jal Shakti Ministry said SSG 2025 will cover 21,000 villages across 761 districts.
Swachh Survekshan Grameen 2025 is conducted by which department?
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Correct answer: C — Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation
SSG 2025 is a survey by the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation (DDWS), Ministry of Jal Shakti.
At what rate is interest subvention provided to lending institutions under the Modified Interest Subvention Scheme continued for 2025-26?
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Correct answer: C — 1.5%
The Cabinet continued MISS with the existing 1.5% interest subvention; 3% is the Prompt Repayment Incentive.
Under MISS, what is the effective interest rate on KCC loans for farmers who repay promptly?
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Correct answer: A — 4%
Loans are at 7%; a Prompt Repayment Incentive of up to 3% brings the effective rate to 4%.
Consider the following statements about the Modified Interest Subvention Scheme: 1. Farmers can get short-term loans of up to ₹3 lakh through KCC at a subsidised rate. 2. For loans taken exclusively for animal husbandry or fisheries, the interest benefit applies up to ₹2 lakh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Cabinet release.
What does NAMASTE stand for in the scheme for sanitation workers run by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment?
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Correct answer: C — National Action Plan for Mechanized Sanitation Ecosystem
NAMASTE stands for National Action Plan for Mechanized Sanitation Ecosystem.
Where was the special programme on the NAMASTE scheme presided over by Dr Virendra Kumar held on 25 May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Chhatarpur, Madhya Pradesh
The programme was held in Chhatarpur, Madhya Pradesh.
Under the North East Apprenticeship Pilot Scheme launched in May 2025, what additional support will apprentices from the region receive?
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Correct answer: A — ₹1,500 per month for one year over the NAPS stipend
Over 26,000 youth will get an additional ₹1,500 per month for one year, over and above the regular NAPS stipend.
Consider the following statements about the North East Apprenticeship Pilot Scheme (May 2025): 1. The additional support applies only to apprentices training within the North Eastern Region. 2. An MoU between NSDC and Welspun Living Limited was exchanged for a textile-sector pilot. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: the support applies to apprentices from the NE training both within and outside the region. Statement 2 is correct.
'Depot Darpan', launched by the Department of Food and Public Distribution in May 2025, is:
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Correct answer: C — A self-assessment and monitoring portal for food grain depots
Depot Darpan is a digital self-assessment and monitoring portal for food grain depots; Anna Mitra is the app and Anna Sahayata the grievance system.
Under Depot Darpan, food grain depots are graded on what ratio of operational performance to infrastructure standards?
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Correct answer: D — 60:40
Depots are assessed on a 60:40 ratio of operational performance and infrastructure standards.
'Lakhimi Mistri', launched in Assam in May 2025, is an initiative under PMAY-G for what purpose?
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Correct answer: A — Training women as masons
Lakhimi Mistri is a women mason initiative under PMAY-G to equip women with masonry skills.
How many additional PMAY-G houses were sanctioned for Assam for the current financial year in May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 3.76 lakh
Union Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan announced the sanction of 3.76 lakh more PMAY-G houses for Assam; 55,000 houses were handed over and the State has completed 20 lakh.
As of May 2025, Assam has completed how many houses under PMAY-G?
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Correct answer: A — 20 lakh
The Union Minister praised Assam for completing 20 lakh houses under PMAY-G.
On which date were PMJJBY, PMSBY and Atal Pension Yojana launched?
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Correct answer: A — 9 May 2015
The three Jan Suraksha schemes were launched by PM Narendra Modi on 9 May 2015.
Which Jan Suraksha scheme had over 51 crore cumulative enrolments as on 23 April 2025?
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Correct answer: C — PMSBY
PMSBY had over 51.06 crore enrolments; PMJJBY had over 23.63 crore and APY over 7.66 crore.
Consider the following statements (data as on 23 April 2025): 1. More than 7.66 crore individuals had subscribed to the Atal Pension Yojana. 2. ₹3,121.02 crore had been paid under PMJJBY. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. ₹3,121.02 crore was paid under PMSBY; PMJJBY payouts were ₹18,397.92 crore.
After the expansion notified in May 2025, what is the ceiling on guarantee cover per borrower under the Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups?
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Correct answer: C — ₹20 crore
The ceiling was raised from ₹10 crore to ₹20 crore.
Consider the following statements about the expanded CGSS: 1. Guarantee cover is 85% of the amount in default for loans up to ₹10 crore. 2. The Annual Guarantee Fee for startups in Champion Sectors was raised to 2% per annum. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The Annual Guarantee Fee for Champion Sectors was reduced from 2% to 1% per annum.
The reduced Annual Guarantee Fee under the expanded CGSS applies to startups in how many Champion Sectors?
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Correct answer: D — 27
The fee was cut to 1% for startups in 27 Champion Sectors identified under 'Make in India'.
How many Anganwadi centres in PVTG areas did the Jharkhand cabinet approve under PM-JANMAN on 8 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 275
The cabinet approved 275 Anganwadi centres; 103 and 168 were the posts created for the eye institute and medical colleges.
Consider the following decisions of the Jharkhand cabinet on 8 May 2025: 1. Dearness allowance for state employees was raised to 60%. 2. 103 posts were created for the proposed Regional Eye Institute at RIMS, Ranchi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. Dearness allowance was raised to 55%.