Infrastructure & Energy Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Which body will determine the exact cause of the helicopter accident near Gaurikund on 15 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Aircraft Accident Investigation Bureau
PIB (Civil Aviation): the exact cause will be determined through a detailed investigation by the Aircraft Accident Investigation Bureau (AAIB).
Consider the following statements about the Kedarnath sector helicopter accident of 15 June 2025: 1. The preliminary indication of probable cause was Controlled Flight into Terrain (CFIT). 2. All charter and shuttle helicopter operations in the region were suspended on 15 and 16 June 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (Civil Aviation): preliminary indications suggest CFIT as the probable cause, and all charter and shuttle helicopter operations in the region were suspended on 15 and 16 June 2025. So both 1 and 2 are correct.
Whose operations for the Char Dham Yatra were suspended with immediate effect after the Kedarnath sector helicopter accident of 15 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Aryan Aviation
PIB (Civil Aviation): operations of Aryan Aviation, whose Bell 407 (VT-BKA) crashed, were suspended for the Char Dham Yatra with immediate effect.
The High-Level Committee constituted after the Air India AI171 crash, announced on 14 June 2025, is chaired by whom?
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Correct answer: C — Union Home Secretary
PIB (Civil Aviation): a High-Level Committee has been constituted under the Chairmanship of the Union Home Secretary.
Within what period is the High-Level Committee on the AI171 crash to submit its consolidated report?
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Correct answer: A — Three months
PIB (Civil Aviation): the committee is to submit a consolidated report within three months.
Consider the following statements about the government's AI171 briefing of 14 June 2025: 1. The aircraft's black box was recovered on 13 June 2025. 2. DGCA directed Air India to inspect all Boeing 787-8 and 787-9 aircraft fitted with GEnx engines. 3. All 33 Dreamliners in service with Indian carriers had already been inspected. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Civil Aviation): the black box was recovered on 13 June around 5 PM, and DGCA ordered inspections of 787-8/787-9 aircraft with GEnx engines, so 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: only 8 of the 33 Dreamliners had been inspected. So the answer is 1 and 2 only.
On which date was the High-Level Committee on the AI171 crash scheduled to begin its deliberations?
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Correct answer: D — 16 June 2025
PIB (Civil Aviation): the committee is scheduled to begin its deliberations on Monday, 16 June 2025.
What reactor configuration is planned at the Gorakhpur Haryana Anu Vidyut Pariyojana reviewed on 14 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 4 × 700 MWe PHWRs
PIB (Power): the project involves setting up 4 × 700 MWe PHWRs (Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors).
What share of the electricity from GHAVP will be allocated to Haryana once completed?
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Correct answer: B — 50%
PIB (Power): once completed, 50% of the electricity generated will be allocated to the state of Haryana.
Consider the following statements about GHAVP as reviewed on 14 June 2025: 1. It is being implemented by NPCIL under the Department of Atomic Energy. 2. First criticality of Unit-1 is targeted by June 2030. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (Power): the project is implemented by NPCIL under DAE, and Unit-1 first criticality is targeted by June 2030. So both 1 and 2 are correct.
Where did PM Modi chair a review meeting on relief and recovery efforts after the Ahmedabad plane crash on 13 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Ahmedabad Airport
PIB (PMO): PM chaired a review meeting at Ahmedabad Airport with top authorities to assess the ongoing relief and recovery efforts.
Which former Chief Minister of Gujarat lost his life in the Ahmedabad air disaster, as condoled by PM Modi on 13 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Vijay Rupani
PIB (PMO): PM Modi condoled the passing of former Gujarat Chief Minister Vijay Rupani, who lost his life in the Ahmedabad air disaster.
Air India flight AI171, which crashed after take-off from Ahmedabad on 12 June 2025, was operated with which aircraft type?
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Correct answer: B — Boeing 787-8
Air India statement (also ThePrint/PTI, Aviation Week): AI171 was a 12-year-old Boeing 787-8 that departed Ahmedabad at 1338 hrs.
What was the destination of Air India flight AI171 that crashed after take-off from Ahmedabad on 12 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — London Gatwick
Air India statement (also ThePrint/PTI, Aviation Week): flight AI171 was operating from Ahmedabad to London Gatwick.
Consider the following statements about those on board Air India flight AI171 on 12 June 2025: 1. The aircraft was carrying 230 passengers and 12 crew. 2. Portuguese nationals formed the largest group of foreign passengers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Air India statement and Amit Shah (PIB): 230 passengers and 12 crew, so 1 is correct. Air India: passengers were 169 Indian, 53 British, 7 Portuguese and 1 Canadian, so British nationals (53), not Portuguese (7), were the largest foreign group and 2 is wrong. So the answer is 1 only.
Which body began the investigation into the Air India AI171 crash on 12 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Aircraft Accident Investigation Bureau (AAIB)
PIB (Ministry of Civil Aviation briefing, 14 June 2025): the Aircraft Accident Investigation Bureau (AAIB) began its investigation on 12 June 2025, the day of the crash.
Which organisation chaired the 137th meeting of the Offshore Security Coordination Committee (OSCC) in New Delhi on 12 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Indian Coast Guard
PIB (Defence): the Indian Coast Guard (ICG) chaired the 137th OSCC meeting in New Delhi on 12 June 2025.
Who, as Director General of the Indian Coast Guard, addressed the 137th OSCC meeting on 12 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Paramesh Sivamani
PIB (Defence): Director General ICG Paramesh Sivamani addressed the committee and underlined the importance of energy security.
In which year was the Offshore Security Coordination Committee (OSCC) constituted to ensure effective functioning of offshore security arrangements?
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Correct answer: D — 1978
PIB (Defence) (static): the OSCC was constituted in 1978 to ensure the effective functioning of offshore security arrangements.
Which organisation is implementing the DGT–Shell India Green Skills and EV training programme launched on 12 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Edunet Foundation
PIB (MSDE): the initiative is implemented by Edunet Foundation, the training partner of Shell.
Consider the following statements about the first phase of the DGT–Shell India EV training programme: 1. A 240-hour advanced EV Technician course will run at 4 NSTIs. 2. A 90-hour job-oriented EV skills course will run at 12 ITIs with Shell-supported labs. 3. The 50-hour foundational green skills module is limited to ITIs that have physical labs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (MSDE): 240-hour course at 4 NSTIs and 90-hour course at 12 ITIs with Shell-supported labs are correct. The 50-hour module is for additional ITIs without physical labs, so 3 is wrong. So the answer is 1 and 2 only.
The DGT–Shell India EV training programme launched on 12 June 2025 covers ITIs and NSTIs in Delhi-NCR, Maharashtra and three other states. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
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Correct answer: D — Kerala
PIB (MSDE): the programme covers Delhi-NCR, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka. Kerala is not among them.
On 12 June 2025, NHAI restricted consultancy firms to a maximum of how many National Highway projects per designated 'Engineer'?
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Correct answer: C — 10
PIB (MoRTH): NHAI restricted the maximum number to 10 projects per 'Engineer' for consultancy firms supervising construction or maintenance of National Highway projects.
The Ahmedabad Metro Rail Project Phase-2A evaluated at the 95th Network Planning Group meeting on 12 June 2025 is meant to provide direct connectivity to which destination?
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Correct answer: A — Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel International Airport
PIB (Commerce): Phase-2A extends the Ahmedabad Metro by 6.032 km from Koteshwar Metro Station to provide direct connectivity to Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel International Airport.
The Koderma–Barkakana rail doubling project approved by the Cabinet on 11 June 2025 lies in which state?
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Correct answer: B — Jharkhand
PIB (CCEA): the Koderma–Barkakana doubling (133 km) passes through a major coal-producing area of Jharkhand.
Consider the following statements about the railway projects approved by the CCEA on 11 June 2025: 1. The Ballari–Chikjajur doubling traverses districts of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. 2. The total cost of the two projects is ₹6,405 crore. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (CCEA): the Ballari–Chikjajur line traverses Ballari and Chitradurga (Karnataka) and Anantapur (Andhra Pradesh), and the two projects cost ₹6,405 crore in total. So both 1 and 2 are correct.
According to the Cabinet decision of 11 June 2025, the Koderma–Barkakana section serves as the shortest rail link between which two cities?
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Correct answer: D — Patna and Ranchi
PIB (CCEA): the Koderma–Barkakana section serves as the shortest and more efficient rail link between Patna and Ranchi.
Under the Tatkal rules announced on 11 June 2025, authorised agents cannot book opening-day Tatkal tickets for AC classes during which window?
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Correct answer: A — 10:00 AM to 10:30 AM
PIB (Railways): agents cannot book in the first 30 minutes; for AC classes this is 10:00 AM to 10:30 AM, and for non-AC classes 11:00 AM to 11:30 AM.
Consider the following statements about the Tatkal changes announced on 11 June 2025: 1. Aadhaar-based OTP authentication becomes mandatory for online Tatkal bookings from 15 July 2025. 2. OTP authentication for Tatkal tickets booked at PRS counters takes effect from 1 July 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (Railways): Aadhaar-based OTP for online Tatkal is mandatory from 15 July 2025, so 1 is correct. OTP at PRS counters and for agents also comes into effect from 15 July 2025, not 1 July, so 2 is wrong. So the answer is 1 only.
Through which route did IREDA raise ₹2,005.90 crore, as announced on 11 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Qualified Institutions Placement (QIP)
PIB (MNRE): IREDA raised ₹2,005.90 crore through a Qualified Institutions Placement (QIP), oversubscribed 1.34 times against a base issue of ₹1,500 crore.
According to Power Minister Manohar Lal on 10 June 2025, India met what peak power demand on 9 June 2025 with zero peak shortage?
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Correct answer: A — 241 GW
PIB (Power): India successfully met a peak power demand of 241 GW on 9 June 2025 with zero peak shortage.
The ₹5,400 crore Viability Gap Funding scheme announced by the Ministry of Power on 10 June 2025 covers how much Battery Energy Storage capacity?
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Correct answer: B — 30 GWh
PIB (Power): the VGF scheme is for 30 GWh of BESS, in addition to the 13.2 GWh already under way.
Consider the following statements based on the Power Ministry's press conference of 10 June 2025: 1. India's total installed generation capacity stands at 249 GW. 2. India's national energy shortage was 4.2% as of April 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
PIB (Power): installed capacity is now 472.5 GW (249 GW was the 2014 figure), and energy shortage fell to 0.1% as of April 2025 (4.2% was in 2013-14). So neither statement is correct.
MoHUA's Advisory No. 27 of 10 June 2025 on repurposing SPVs and continuing ICCCs relates to which mission?
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Correct answer: C — Smart Cities Mission
PIB (MoHUA): the advisory concerns the SPVs and ICCCs set up under the Smart Cities Mission.
Consider the following statements about the Smart Cities Mission, as stated by MoHUA on 10 June 2025: 1. As of March 2025, over 93% of the 8,000+ projects under the Mission had been completed. 2. The Mission was completed on 31 March 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (MoHUA): over 93% of the 8,000+ projects were completed as of March 2025, and the Mission was completed on 31.03.2025. So both 1 and 2 are correct.
Consider the following statements about the SPVs of the Smart Cities Mission (launched in 2015): 1. The SPVs were established under the Companies Act, 2013. 2. The equity in each SPV is shared 50:50 between the Central Government and the State Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (MoHUA) (static): the SPVs were set up under the Companies Act, 2013, with 50:50 equity between the State/UT government and the respective Urban Local Body, not the Centre. So 1 only.
On 10 June 2025, CAQM signed a tripartite MoU to curb road dust in NCR with CSIR-CRRI and which other institution?
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Correct answer: D — School of Planning and Architecture, New Delhi
PIB (MoEFCC): CAQM signed the tripartite MoU with CSIR-CRRI and the School of Planning and Architecture, New Delhi.
Consider the following statements about the first phase of road redevelopment under the CAQM MoU of 10 June 2025: 1. Bhiwadi and Neemrana are among the nine NCR cities taken up. 2. Meerut is among the nine NCR cities taken up. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (MoEFCC): the nine cities are Delhi, Faridabad, Gurugram, Sonipat, Ghaziabad, Noida, Greater Noida, Bhiwadi and Neemrana; Meerut is not listed. So 1 only.
The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) in NCR and Adjoining Areas is constituted under which law?
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Correct answer: C — Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021
CAQM Act text (static): the Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021 (No. 29 of 2021) provides for the constitution of the Commission.
Who was the NHAI Chairman when NHAI released its first Asset Monetisation Strategy for the road sector on 9 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Santosh Kumar Yadav
PIB (MoRTH): NHAI Chairman Santosh Kumar Yadav commented on the release of the strategy document.
According to NHAI on 9 June 2025, monetisation instruments have helped it raise over ₹1.4 lakh crore across more than how many km of National Highways?
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Correct answer: C — 6,100 km
PIB (MoRTH): the instruments helped NHAI raise over ₹1.4 lakh crore across more than 6,100 km of National Highways under the National Monetisation Pipeline.
Consider the following statements about NHAI's Asset Monetisation Strategy released on 9 June 2025: 1. The strategy relies solely on Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs). 2. The strategy is anchored on five core pillars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
PIB (MoRTH): the strategy uses Toll-Operate-Transfer, InvITs and securitisation, and is anchored on three core pillars. So neither statement is correct.
At the 6th NIIF Governing Council meeting on 9 June 2025, NIIF's Assets Under Management were noted to have increased to more than what amount?
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Correct answer: C — ₹30,000 crore
PIB (Finance): the GC took note of the expansion in NIIF's Assets Under Management, which has increased to more than ₹30,000 crore.
What is the target corpus of NIIF's upcoming Private Markets Fund II, as noted at the Governing Council meeting of 9 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — $1 billion
PIB (Finance): NIIF's upcoming Private Markets Fund II has a target corpus of $1 billion.
Under the BHASHINI–CRIS MoU of 9 June 2025, BHASHINI's language technology will be integrated into which CRIS-managed systems, among others?
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Correct answer: D — NTES and RailMadad
PIB (MeitY): BHASHINI's stack will be integrated into CRIS-managed systems such as the National Train Enquiry System (NTES) and RailMadad.
The BHASHINI–CRIS partnership of 9 June 2025 aims to let citizens access critical railway services in how many Indian languages?
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Correct answer: C — 22
PIB (MeitY): the integration will enable citizens to access critical railway services in 22 Indian languages.
In what capacity did India participate in the 2nd Session of the IALA Council held in Nice from 9 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Vice President
PIB (Ports, Shipping and Waterways): India participated in the 2nd Session of the IALA Council as the Vice President of IALA.
Consider the following statements about India's participation in the 2nd IALA Council session (Nice, 9–13 June 2025): 1. The Indian delegation was led by T.K. Ramachandran, Secretary, Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways. 2. India invited member states to the 21st IALA Conference in 2027 in Mumbai. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (Ports, Shipping and Waterways): the delegation was led by Secretary T.K. Ramachandran, who invited member states to the 21st IALA Conference in 2027 in Mumbai. So both 1 and 2 are correct.
At what height above the river is the Chenab Rail Bridge, inaugurated on 6 June 2025, situated?
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Correct answer: D — 359 metres
The Chenab Rail Bridge is situated at a height of 359 metres above the river, making it the world's highest railway arch bridge.
Which bridge inaugurated by the Prime Minister on 6 June 2025 is India's first cable-stayed rail bridge?
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Correct answer: B — Anji Bridge
The Anji Bridge is India's first cable-stayed rail bridge, built to serve the nation in challenging terrain.
What is the length of the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) dedicated to the nation on 6 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 272 km
The USBRL project is 272 km long and was built at about ₹43,780 crore.
Consider the following statements about the projects inaugurated in Jammu & Kashmir on 6 June 2025: 1. The USBRL project includes 36 tunnels and 943 bridges. 2. The Chenab Rail Bridge is a 1,315-metre-long steel arch bridge. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The USBRL has 36 tunnels spanning 119 km and 943 bridges, and the Chenab Rail Bridge is a 1,315-metre-long steel arch bridge.
Between which stations did the Prime Minister flag off two Vande Bharat Express trains on 6 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Shri Mata Vaishno Devi Katra and Srinagar
The Prime Minister flagged off two Vande Bharat Express trains running between Shri Mata Vaishno Devi Katra and Srinagar, which take about 3 hours for the journey.
The Shri Mata Vaishno Devi Institute of Medical Excellence, whose foundation stone was laid in Katra on 6 June 2025, will be the first medical college in which district?
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Correct answer: B — Reasi
The institute in Katra, worth over ₹350 crore, will be the first medical college in Reasi district.
What is the total length of the Samruddhi Mahamarg (Mumbai–Nagpur expressway), which became fully operational on 5 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 701 km
With the final 76 km stretch opened, the 701 km Mumbai–Nagpur corridor became fully operational.
The final stretch of the Samruddhi Mahamarg inaugurated on 5 June 2025 lies between which two places?
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Correct answer: B — Igatpuri and Amane
The final 76 km stretch lies between Igatpuri and Amane, in Nashik and Thane districts respectively.
What is the official name of the Mumbai–Nagpur Samruddhi Expressway, which became fully operational on 5 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Hindu Hridaysamrat Balasaheb Thackeray Maharashtra Samruddhi Mahamarg
The Samruddhi Expressway is officially called the Hindu Hridaysamrat Balasaheb Thackeray Maharashtra Samruddhi Mahamarg.
Under the Scheme to Promote Manufacturing of Electric Passenger Cars in India, at what reduced customs duty can approved applicants import e-4W CBUs?
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Correct answer: D — 15%
Approved applicants can import CBUs of e-4W with a minimum CIF value of USD 35,000 at a reduced customs duty of 15% for five years from the Application Approval Date.
What is the minimum investment commitment required from approved applicants under SPMEPCI?
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Correct answer: A — ₹4,150 crore
Approved applicants must make a minimum investment of ₹4,150 crore (about USD 500 million) within a three-year window.
What is the annual cap on the number of e-4Ws that an approved applicant can import at the reduced duty under SPMEPCI?
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Correct answer: C — 8,000
The maximum number of e-4W allowed to be imported at the reduced duty rate is capped at 8,000 per year, with carryover of unutilised limits permitted.
Consider the following statements about the Scheme to Promote Manufacturing of Electric Passenger Cars in India (SPMEPCI): 1. Only e-4W CBUs with a minimum CIF value of USD 35,000 qualify for the reduced customs duty. 2. Approved applicants must commence manufacturing operations within five years of approval. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the reduced duty applies to e-4W CBUs with a minimum CIF value of USD 35,000. Statement 2 is incorrect: applicants must set up the facility and commence manufacturing of e-4W within three years.
Which edition of IATA's Annual General Meeting did PM Modi address at Bharat Mandapam on 2 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 81st
PM Modi addressed IATA's 81st Annual General Meeting and the plenary session of the World Air Transport Summit at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
According to PM Modi's address at the IATA AGM in June 2025, where does India rank among the world's domestic aviation markets?
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Correct answer: B — Third-largest
PM Modi said India today is the world's third-largest domestic aviation market.
Which two airports in Madhya Pradesh did the Prime Minister virtually inaugurate on 31 May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Satna and Datia
The Civil Aviation Ministry said the PM inaugurated the new Satna Airport and the upgraded Datia Airport.
Who attended the inauguration ceremony at Datia Airport on 31 May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Civil Aviation Minister Ram Mohan Naidu
The Datia event was attended by Civil Aviation Minister Ram Mohan Naidu; MoS Murlidhar Mohol attended at Satna.
The Ghatampur Thermal Power Project is developed by Neyveli Uttar Pradesh Power Ltd, a joint venture of:
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Correct answer: B — NLC India and UPRVUNL
NUPPL is a collaboration of NLC India Ltd (51%) and UPRVUNL (49%).
What is the total installed capacity of the Ghatampur Thermal Power Project when all units are complete?
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Correct answer: D — 1,980 MW
The project has three 660 MW supercritical units, totalling 1,980 MW.
Consider the following statements about the Ghatampur Thermal Power Project: 1. A power purchase agreement covers 24.88% of its output with Assam. 2. Unit-1, dedicated on 30 May 2025, has a capacity of 800 MW. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct: Assam's PPA is for 492.72 MW (24.88%); Unit-1 is 660 MW.
Patna airport, where a new terminal was inaugurated on 29 May 2025, is named after:
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Correct answer: C — Jay Prakash Narayan
The new terminal is at Jay Prakash Narayan International Airport, Patna.
Along with the Patna terminal, the PM laid the foundation stone for a civil enclave at which place in Bihar?
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Correct answer: A — Bihta
The PM laid the foundation stone for the upcoming civil enclave at Bihta.
At what cost was the new terminal at Patna airport developed?
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Correct answer: D — ₹1,200 crore
The Civil Aviation Ministry said the terminal was developed at a cost of ₹1,200 crore.
The City Gas Distribution project whose foundation stone was laid on 29 May 2025 covers which districts of West Bengal?
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Correct answer: B — Alipurduar and Cooch Behar
The PM announced the CGD project for Alipurduar and Cooch Behar.
How many households will get piped gas under the Alipurduar–Cooch Behar City Gas Distribution project?
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Correct answer: C — Over 2.5 lakh
The PMO said the project will provide piped gas to over 2.5 lakh households.
In which mode will the Badvel–Nellore four-lane corridor approved on 28 May 2025 be developed?
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Correct answer: A — DBFOT
The CCEA approved the corridor on Design-Build-Finance-Operate-Transfer (DBFOT) mode.
What is the length of the approved Badvel–Nellore corridor?
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Correct answer: C — 108.134 km
The corridor is 108.134 km long; it cuts the distance to Krishnapatnam Port from 142 km by 33.9 km.
The Badvel–Nellore corridor will provide strategic connectivity to which port in Andhra Pradesh?
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Correct answer: B — Krishnapatnam Port
It terminates at the Krishnapatnam Port junction on NH-16 and connects to Krishnapatnam Port, a priority node on the CBIC.
What was the total value of port development projects launched at Deendayal Port, Kandla, on 28 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — ₹42.42 crore
The Ports Ministry said projects worth ₹42.42 crore were inaugurated and their foundation stones laid.
Who launched the ₹42.42 crore projects including a Seafarer Centre at Deendayal Port on 28 May 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Shantanu Thakur
Minister of State for Ports, Shipping and Waterways Shantanu Thakur launched the projects.
Which two railway multitracking projects did the Cabinet approve on 28 May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Ratlam–Nagda 3rd & 4th line and Wardha–Balharshah 4th line
The CCEA approved the Ratlam–Nagda 3rd and 4th line and the Wardha–Balharshah 4th line.
By about how many kilometres will the Ratlam–Nagda and Wardha–Balharshah projects increase the Indian Railways network?
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Correct answer: D — 176 km
The two projects will increase the network by about 176 km; 784 is the number of villages that gain connectivity.