Economy Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What is the MSP of wheat for Rabi Marketing Season 2026-27, approved in October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹2,585 per quintal
Wheat MSP was raised by ₹160 to ₹2,585 per quintal.
Which Rabi crop received the highest absolute increase in MSP for marketing season 2026-27?
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Correct answer: A — Safflower
Safflower got the highest increase of ₹600 per quintal, followed by lentil at ₹300.
For Rabi Marketing Season 2026-27, which crop has the highest margin of MSP over its cost of production?
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Correct answer: B — Wheat
Wheat has the highest margin at 109%, followed by rapeseed and mustard (93%) and lentil (89%).
Consider the following statements about Rabi MSPs for marketing season 2026-27: 1. The MSP of lentil (masur) has been fixed at ₹7,000 per quintal. 2. The MSP of barley has been raised by ₹170 per quintal. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: lentil MSP is ₹7,000 and barley MSP rose by ₹170 to ₹2,150.
After the hike approved on 1 October 2025, what is the Dearness Allowance rate for Central Government employees?
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Correct answer: C — 58%
The 3% increase takes DA from 55% to 58% of basic pay.
From which date is the DA/DR increase approved by the Cabinet on 1 October 2025 effective?
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Correct answer: B — 1 July 2025
The additional instalment of DA and DR is effective from 1 July 2025.
Consider the following statements about the DA hike approved in October 2025: 1. It will benefit about 68.72 lakh Central Government employees. 2. The increase follows a formula based on the recommendations of the 8th Central Pay Commission. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: 68.72 lakh is the number of pensioners (employees are 49.19 lakh), and the formula is based on the 7th Central Pay Commission.
At what level did the RBI's Monetary Policy Committee keep the policy repo rate on 1 October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 5.50%
The MPC unanimously kept the repo rate unchanged at 5.50%.
In its October 2025 policy, what real GDP growth did the RBI project for 2025-26?
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Correct answer: C — 6.8%
The RBI raised its 2025-26 real GDP growth projection to 6.8% from 6.5%.
After the RBI's October 2025 policy, what is the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) rate?
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Correct answer: D — 5.25%
With the repo rate at 5.50%, the SDF rate remains at 5.25% and the MSF rate and Bank Rate at 5.75%.
Consider the following statements about the RBI's monetary policy of 1 October 2025: 1. The MPC cut the repo rate by 25 basis points. 2. The CPI inflation projection for 2025-26 was lowered to 2.6%. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: the repo rate was kept unchanged at 5.50%. Statement 2 is correct: the inflation projection was cut to 2.6% from 3.1%.
What investment objective is included in the India–EFTA TEPA, which came into force on 1 October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — USD 100 billion over 15 years
TEPA includes an investment objective of USD 100 billion over 15 years and one million direct jobs in India.
Which of the following countries is NOT a member of the European Free Trade Association (EFTA)?
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Correct answer: C — Denmark
EFTA comprises Switzerland, Norway, Iceland and Liechtenstein; Denmark is an EU member.
Consider the following statements about the India–EFTA TEPA: 1. Austria is one of the four EFTA countries party to the agreement. 2. The agreement entered into force on 1 January 2026. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: the four EFTA countries are Switzerland, Norway, Iceland and Liechtenstein, and TEPA entered into force on 1 October 2025.
How much additional tax devolution did the Union Government release to States on 1 October 2025 as an advance instalment?
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Correct answer: C — ₹1,01,603 crore
The Centre released ₹1,01,603 crore on 1 October 2025, in addition to the regular instalment due on 10 October.
Which State received the largest share of the advance tax devolution released on 1 October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Uttar Pradesh
Uttar Pradesh received the largest share at ₹18,227 crore.
Under which legal provision did FIU-IND issue notices to offshore Virtual Digital Asset service providers in October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Section 13 of the PMLA, 2002
The notices were issued under Section 13 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002.
How many offshore Virtual Digital Asset service providers received non-compliance notices from FIU-IND, as announced on 1 October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 25
FIU-IND issued notices to 25 offshore VDA service providers.
On which date is NPS Diwas observed every year?
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Correct answer: D — 1 October
NPS Diwas is observed annually on 1 October.
At NPS Diwas 2025, PFRDA exchanged an MoU with which institution to reach farmers through Farmer Producer Organisations?
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Correct answer: B — NABARD
PFRDA exchanged an MoU with NABARD to strengthen outreach to the agriculture and rural sectors through FPOs.
Which company's acquisition of Jaiprakash Associates Limited was approved by the CCI on 30 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Jindal Power Limited
The CCI approved the acquisition of JAL by Jindal Power Limited.
Consider the following statements about the Jindal Power–Jaiprakash Associates combination approved in September 2025: 1. The acquisition is pursuant to a corporate insolvency resolution process under the IBC, 2016. 2. Jaiprakash Associates is primarily engaged in the power sector. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: it is the acquirer, Jindal Power, that is primarily in the power sector; JAL is in real estate, cement, hospitality and EPC.
According to Dr Jitendra Singh in September 2025, India's pharma exports were valued at nearly how much?
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Correct answer: B — $27.8 billion
He said pharma exports were nearly $27.8 billion and expected to cross $30 billion by year-end.
Up to August 2025, the Government of India's total receipts were what share of the 2025-26 Budget Estimate?
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Correct answer: A — 36.7%
Total receipts of ₹12,82,709 crore were 36.7% of the BE; expenditure was 37.1% of BE.
Consider the following statements about the Government of India's accounts up to August 2025: 1. Total expenditure was 37.1% of the 2025-26 Budget Estimate. 2. Tax devolution to States was ₹5,30,148 crore, higher than in the same period a year earlier. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: expenditure was 37.1% of BE, and devolution of ₹5,30,148 crore was ₹74,431 crore higher than a year earlier.
By how much did India's Index of Industrial Production (IIP) grow year-on-year in August 2025 as per the Quick Estimate?
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Correct answer: A — 4.0%
IIP grew 4.0% in August 2025; the July 2025 Quick Estimate was 3.5% and mining grew 6.0%.
Which manufacturing industry group grew the fastest among the top three contributors to IIP growth in August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Basic metals
Basic metals grew 12.2%, motor vehicles 9.8% and coke and refined petroleum products 5.4%.
Under the revised calendar announced with the August 2025 data, on which day of every month is the Quick Estimate of IIP released?
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Correct answer: B — 28th
The Quick Estimate of IIP is now released on the 28th of every month, or the next working day if the 28th is a holiday.
Consider the following statements about India's IIP for August 2025: 1. Consumer non-durables recorded positive growth under the use-based classification. 2. The index is compiled on the base year 2011-12. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: consumer non-durables fell 6.3%. Statement 2 is correct: the base is 2011-12=100.
Under the use-based classification, which category recorded the highest year-on-year growth in India's IIP for August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Infrastructure/construction goods
Infrastructure/construction goods grew 10.6%, against 5.2% for primary goods, 4.4% for capital goods and 3.5% for consumer durables.
The AURIC–Samruddhi Connector opened in September 2025 gives AURIC Industrial Smart City direct access to which expressway?
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Correct answer: C — Mumbai–Nagpur Expressway (Samruddhi Mahamarg)
The connector links AURIC directly to the Samruddhi Mahamarg, the Mumbai–Nagpur Expressway.
Which ministry organised World Food India 2025, which concluded on 28 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Ministry of Food Processing Industries
World Food India 2025 was organised by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries (MoFPI).
What was the total value of MoUs signed at World Food India 2025?
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Correct answer: B — About ₹1.02 lakh crore
26 companies signed MoUs worth ₹1,02,046.89 crore, expected to create 64,000+ direct jobs.
Consider the following statements about the MoUs signed at World Food India 2025: 1. Twenty-six domestic and global companies signed the MoUs. 2. The MoUs are expected to generate direct employment for over 10 lakh people. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the MoUs are expected to create over 64,000 direct jobs; 10 lakh+ is the indirect figure.
The 40-hour mediation training run by the Department of Financial Services and the Supreme Court's mediation committee in September 2025 was for presiding officers of which tribunals?
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Correct answer: D — Debts Recovery Tribunals
The programme (24–28 September 2025) trained presiding officers of Debts Recovery Tribunals and senior public sector bank executives.
In which city did 'MSME Seva Parv-2025: Virasat se Vikas' begin on 28 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Varanasi
The event was inaugurated at the Rudraksh International Cooperation and Convention Centre, Varanasi.
What was the theme of World Tourism Day 2025, observed on 27 September?
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Correct answer: D — Tourism and Sustainable Transformation
The 2025 theme was 'Tourism and Sustainable Transformation'.
Who was the chief guest at the Ministry of Tourism's World Tourism Day event on 27 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Suman Bery
NITI Aayog Vice Chairperson Suman Bery was chief guest; MoS Suresh Gopi presided.
How much does the Government of India plan to borrow through dated securities in the second half of FY 2025-26, as announced on 26 September 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹6.77 lakh crore
The H2 FY 2025-26 borrowing plan is ₹6.77 lakh crore, including ₹10,000 crore of Sovereign Green Bonds.
What Ways and Means Advances (WMA) limit did the RBI fix for the second half of FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: B — ₹50,000 crore
The RBI fixed the WMA limit for H2 FY 2025-26 at ₹50,000 crore.
Consider the following statements about the government's borrowing plan for H2 FY 2025-26: 1. It includes ₹10,000 crore through Sovereign Green Bonds. 2. The 30-year security has the largest share of the borrowing. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the 10-year security has the largest share (28.4%); the 30-year share is 9.2%.
Under which law did the CCPA penalise FirstCry ₹2 lakh in September 2025 for misleading price representation?
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Correct answer: D — Consumer Protection Act, 2019
The order was passed under Sections 10, 20 and 21 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
How many new employees were enrolled under the ESI scheme in July 2025, as per ESIC's provisional payroll data?
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Correct answer: B — 20.36 lakh
20.36 lakh new employees were added in July 2025, against 19.37 lakh in June.
What Performance Linked Reward did coal PSUs announce for each non-executive worker in September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1,03,000
Coal PSUs announced a PLR of ₹1,03,000, benefiting about 2.1 lakh CIL and 38,000 SCCL non-executive employees.
According to MoSPI's 'Children in India 2025', what was India's infant mortality rate in 2023?
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Correct answer: A — 25
The infant mortality rate fell from 44 in 2011 to 25 in 2023.
Where was MoSPI's 'Children in India 2025' released, during the 29th Conference of Central and State Statistical Organisations?
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Correct answer: D — Chandigarh
It was released at the 29th CoCSSO in Chandigarh on 25 September 2025.
Under the XV Finance Commission, untied grants to rural local bodies can be used for subjects listed in which Schedule of the Constitution?
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Correct answer: C — Eleventh Schedule
Untied grants can be used for location-specific needs under the 29 subjects in the Eleventh Schedule, except salaries and establishment costs.
Which state received the largest share of the XV Finance Commission untied grants released on 25 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Uttar Pradesh
Uttar Pradesh received ₹1,548.38 crore, Bihar ₹801.01 crore and Himachal Pradesh ₹67.96 crore.
Which country was the country partner of the Uttar Pradesh International Trade Show 2025 inaugurated on 25 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Russia
Russia was the country partner of UPITS 2025, held in Greater Noida with over 2,200 exhibitors.
Where was the Uttar Pradesh International Trade Show 2025 held?
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Correct answer: B — Greater Noida
PM Narendra Modi inaugurated UPITS 2025 in Greater Noida on 25 September 2025.
MoSPI's 'Environmental Accounting on Forest – 2025' is compiled under which international framework, adopted by MoSPI in 2018?
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Correct answer: B — UN System of Environmental Economic Accounts (SEEA)
MoSPI adopted the UN SEEA framework in 2018; the forest accounts follow it.
What is the total size of the shipbuilding and maritime package approved by the Union Cabinet on 24 September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹69,725 crore
The Cabinet approved a ₹69,725 crore four-pillar package for the shipbuilding and maritime sector.
Until when has the Shipbuilding Financial Assistance Scheme been extended under the September 2025 package?
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Correct answer: C — 31 March 2036
SBFAS is extended until 31 March 2036 with a total corpus of ₹24,736 crore.
The Shipbuilding Development Scheme approved in September 2025 aims to expand domestic shipbuilding capacity to what level?
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Correct answer: D — 4.5 million GT
The ₹19,989 crore Shipbuilding Development Scheme aims to expand capacity to 4.5 million Gross Tonnage.
Consider the following statements about the Maritime Development Fund approved in September 2025: 1. It has a corpus of ₹25,000 crore. 2. Its Maritime Investment Fund has 49% participation from the Government of India. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the ₹25,000 crore fund includes a ₹20,000 crore Maritime Investment Fund with 49% GoI participation and a ₹5,000 crore Interest Incentivisation Fund.
Which Indian body is the implementing agency for the India–Australia Mutual Recognition Arrangement on organic products signed in September 2025?
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Correct answer: A — APEDA
APEDA (India) and DAFF (Australia) are the implementing agencies.
The India–Australia organic products MRA of September 2025 was signed in the spirit of which trade agreement?
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Correct answer: D — India–Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement
The MRA reflects the shared commitment of the India–Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA).
Who is the President of the GST Appellate Tribunal (GSTAT), launched on 24 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Justice Sanjaya Kumar Mishra
Justice Sanjaya Kumar Mishra is the President of GSTAT.
Apart from the Principal Bench in New Delhi, how many State Benches will the GSTAT have?
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Correct answer: C — 31
GSTAT will function through a Principal Bench in New Delhi and 31 State Benches across 45 locations.
Consider the following statements about the composition of each GSTAT bench: 1. Each bench has two Judicial Members. 2. Each bench has only one Technical Member, drawn from the Centre. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: each bench has two Technical Members – one from the Centre and one from the State.
What is the maximum Productivity Linked Bonus payable per eligible railway employee under the Cabinet decision of 24 September 2025?
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Correct answer: C — ₹17,951
The maximum PLB equivalent to 78 days' wages is ₹17,951 per eligible employee.
How much cargo did Indian Railways load in 2024-25, as cited in the Cabinet's bonus decision?
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Correct answer: B — 1,614.90 million tonnes
The Railways loaded a record 1,614.90 million tonnes of cargo and carried nearly 7.3 billion passengers in 2024-25.
Whom did India's Commerce and Industry Minister meet as US Trade Representative during the delegation's US visit of 22–24 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Jamieson Greer
The minister met US Trade Representative Ambassador Jamieson Greer and US Ambassador-designate to India Sergio Gor.
What net addition of members did EPFO record in July 2025, as per data released on 23 September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 21.04 lakh
EPFO recorded a net addition of 21.04 lakh members; 9.79 lakh were new subscribers.
What share of EPFO's new subscribers in July 2025 were aged 18–25?
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Correct answer: A — 61.06%
5.98 lakh of the 9.79 lakh new subscribers – 61.06% – were aged 18–25.
Consider the following statements about EPFO's payroll data for July 2025: 1. The net addition of 21.04 lakh members was 5.55% higher than in July 2024. 2. About 16.43 lakh members who had exited earlier rejoined EPFO. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the net addition of 21.04 lakh was up 5.55% year-on-year, and about 16.43 lakh members who had exited earlier rejoined.