Economy Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Which of the following countries is NOT a member of the European Free Trade Association (EFTA), India's partner in TEPA?
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Correct answer: B — Denmark
EFTA's four members are Switzerland, Norway, Liechtenstein and Iceland; Denmark is an EU member.
What legally binding investment commitment does the India–EFTA TEPA contain, as highlighted by Piyush Goyal on 13 March 2026?
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Correct answer: C — $100 billion and 1 million jobs
TEPA carries a $100-billion investment commitment with the potential to create 1 million jobs in India.
Consider the following statements about the India–EFTA TEPA: 1. It was signed in New Delhi on 10 March 2024. 2. It came into force on 1 April 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: TEPA came into force on 1 October 2025, as per PIB.
Which company became India's first mining company to produce 50 million tonnes of iron ore in a single financial year (announced 13 March 2026)?
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Correct answer: B — NMDC Limited
NMDC Limited, a Navratna CPSE under the Ministry of Steel, crossed 50 MT in FY 2025–26.
NMDC's mechanised iron ore mines, mentioned in the 13 March 2026 release, are located in which two States?
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Correct answer: C — Chhattisgarh and Karnataka
The release says NMDC has highly mechanised operations in the mineral-rich regions of Chhattisgarh and Karnataka.
Consider the following statements about NMDC Limited: 1. It was established in 1958 to develop India's iron ore resources. 2. It is a Maharatna company under the Ministry of Mines. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: NMDC is a Navratna CPSE under the Ministry of Steel.
What was India's all-India CPI (combined) inflation for February 2026, as released on 12 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 3.21%
February 2026 CPI inflation was 3.21% (provisional), up from 2.74% in January; 3.47% was food inflation.
Which item recorded the highest year-on-year inflation in the February 2026 CPI?
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Correct answer: A — Silver jewellery
Silver jewellery led at 160.84%, followed by gold/diamond/platinum jewellery at 48.16% and copra at 46.16%.
Consider the following statements about India's new CPI series (base 2024=100): 1. Its item basket and weights are based on the Household Consumption Expenditure Survey 2023–24. 2. It retains the earlier structure of six broad groups instead of adopting COICOP 2018. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the new series adopts the UN's COICOP 2018, with 12 divisions and 358 items, replacing the earlier six broad groups.
Which items saw the steepest price falls in the February 2026 CPI?
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Correct answer: D — Garlic, onion and potato
Garlic (−31.09%), onion (−28.20%) and potato (−18.46%) had the lowest inflation; tomato was among the highest at 45.29%.
In which city did Netflix open its Eyeline Studios VFX and virtual production hub on 12 March 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Hyderabad
Eyeline Studios opened at HITEC City in Hyderabad, inaugurated by Telangana CM A. Revanth Reddy.
In the term 'AVGC' sector, used for the Eyeline Studios launch, what does 'G' stand for?
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Correct answer: D — Gaming
AVGC stands for Animation, Visual Effects, Gaming and Comics.
The upgraded Super Rapid Gun Mount flagged off at BHEL on 12 March 2026 is meant for which service?
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Correct answer: C — Indian Navy
The upgraded SRGM, a naval gun for anti-aircraft and anti-surface roles, was flagged off for the Indian Navy.
Where is the BHEL plant at which the upgraded Super Rapid Gun Mount was flagged off on 12 March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Haridwar
The flag-off took place at BHEL's Haridwar facility in Uttarakhand, which houses the Heavy Electrical Equipment Plant and the Central Foundry and Forge Plant.
What are the stated rate of fire and range of the upgraded Super Rapid Gun Mount flagged off by BHEL?
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Correct answer: B — 120 rounds a minute, up to 35 km
BHEL said the weapon can fire up to 120 rounds per minute with a range of up to 35 km.
Which State topped the 18 major States in NITI Aayog's Fiscal Health Index 2026, released on 11 March 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Odisha
Odisha retained the top rank with a score of 73.1, ahead of Goa (54.7) and Jharkhand (50.5).
Which State ranked first among the North-Eastern and Himalayan States in the Fiscal Health Index 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Arunachal Pradesh
Arunachal Pradesh ranked first, followed by Uttarakhand and Tripura; Himachal Pradesh and Manipur were at the bottom.
Which major State was ranked last, with a score of 12.4, in the Fiscal Health Index 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Punjab
Punjab scored 12.4, the lowest among the 18 major States; Andhra Pradesh, West Bengal and Kerala were also in the bottom 'aspirational' group.
The Fiscal Health Index 2026 assesses the fiscal performance of States for which year?
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Correct answer: B — 2023–24
The second edition, released in March 2026, ranks States on their finances for 2023–24; the first edition covered 2022–23.
Consider the following statements about NITI Aayog's Fiscal Health Index 2026: 1. It ranks all 28 States together in a single list. 2. NITI Aayog noted that States account for nearly one-third of India's general government debt. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: the 18 major States and the 10 North-Eastern and Himalayan States are ranked separately because of structural differences. Statement 2 is correct.
Where and when will Bharat Tex 2026, launched on 11 March 2026, be held?
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Correct answer: D — Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi, 14–17 July 2026
Bharat Tex 2026, the third edition, will be held at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi, from 14 to 17 July 2026.
Up to what level of non-controlling beneficial ownership from land-border countries will be allowed under the automatic route after the Cabinet decision of 10 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 10%
Investors with non-controlling beneficial ownership from land-border countries of up to 10% will be permitted under the automatic route, with reporting to DPIIT.
Within how many days will proposals from land-border countries in specified sectors such as electronic components and polysilicon be decided, under the changes approved on 10 March 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 60 days
Proposals in capital goods, electronic capital goods, electronic components, polysilicon and ingot-wafer will be processed and decided within 60 days.
The definition of 'Beneficial Owner' adopted in the amended FDI policy for land-border countries is drawn from which rules?
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Correct answer: D — Prevention of Money Laundering Rules, 2005
The amendment uses the definition and criteria of Beneficial Ownership under the Prevention of Money Laundering Rules, 2005, applied at the investor-entity level.
Consider the following statements about Press Note 3 (2020): 1. It was issued on 17 April 2020 to curb opportunistic takeovers of Indian companies during the COVID-19 pandemic. 2. Under it, an entity of a country sharing a land border with India can invest only under the government route. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: PN3 (2020), dated 17 April 2020, was issued to curb opportunistic takeovers during COVID-19, and it put all investment from land-border-country entities, or where the beneficial owner is from such a country, under the government route.
Under the 10 March 2026 changes, who may revise the list of specified sectors eligible for 60-day decisions on land-border-country investment?
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Correct answer: A — A Committee of Secretaries under the Cabinet Secretary
The Committee of Secretaries under the Cabinet Secretary may revise the list of specified sectors.
What is the estimated wheat production for 2025–26 according to the Second Advance Estimates released on 10 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 1,202.10 lakh tonnes
Wheat is estimated at 1,202.10 LMT, up 22.65 LMT from 1,179.45 LMT last year; 1,239.28 LMT is Kharif rice.
Which crop recorded record production in both the Kharif and Rabi seasons in the Second Advance Estimates for 2025–26?
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Correct answer: A — Maize
Kharif maize is a record 302.47 LMT and Rabi maize a record 159.03 LMT.
Which pulse has the largest estimated output in the Second Advance Estimates for 2025–26?
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Correct answer: D — Gram
Gram is estimated at 117.92 LMT, far above tur (34.55 LMT) and lentil (17.33 LMT).
Consider the following statements about the Second Advance Estimates of crop production for 2025–26: 1. They cover the Kharif, Rabi and summer seasons. 2. Yield estimates are based on Crop Cutting Experiments, previous trends and other factors. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: the Second Advance Estimates cover only Kharif and Rabi; the summer season will be included in the Third Advance Estimates. Statement 2 is correct.
According to Piyush Goyal at the National IP Awards on 9 March 2026, India's Global Innovation Index ranking has improved from 81 to what?
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Correct answer: B — 38
Goyal said India's GII ranking improved from 81 to 38.
By how much did Piyush Goyal say patent filings in India have grown in a decade?
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Correct answer: C — 215%
He said India registered 215% growth in patent filings in a decade.
How many new innovation labs in schools, announced in the Union Budget, did Piyush Goyal refer to at the National IP Awards 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 50,000
Goyal referred to the government's initiative to establish 50,000 new innovation labs in schools, announced in the Union Budget.
What is the name of the campaign launched by the Income Tax Department in March 2026 to guide restaurants to correct their returns?
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Correct answer: B — SAKSHAM NUDGE
The department started the SAKSHAM NUDGE campaign; in phase one, messages go to 63,000 identified restaurants.
The Income Tax Department's survey of restaurants on 8 March 2026 revealed preliminary sales suppression of about how much?
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Correct answer: C — ₹408 crore
The survey of 62 restaurants in 46 cities across 22 states revealed suppression of sales of about ₹408 crore.
Under which provision of the Income Tax Act were restaurants encouraged to file updated returns in the SAKSHAM NUDGE campaign?
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Correct answer: D — Section 139(8A)
Taxpayers were encouraged to file updated returns under Section 139(8A) of the Income Tax Act before 31 March 2026.
Who presented the Maharashtra Budget 2026-27 on 6 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Devendra Fadnavis
Chief Minister Devendra Fadnavis, who also holds the Finance portfolio, presented the budget.
What is the approximate total outlay of the Maharashtra Budget 2026-27?
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Correct answer: D — ₹7.69 lakh crore
The budget has an outlay of about ₹7.69 lakh crore; ₹11.02 lakh crore is the projected debt.
The farm loan waiver announced in the Maharashtra Budget 2026-27 is named after whom?
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Correct answer: A — Punyashlok Ahilyadevi Holkar
The scheme is the Punyashlok Ahilyadevi Holkar Shetkari Karjmafi Yojana.
Consider the following statements about the Punyashlok Ahilyadevi Holkar Shetkari Karjmafi Yojana: 1. It waives crop loans of up to ₹2 lakh for farmers with arrears as of 30 September 2025. 2. Farmers who repaid their loans regularly will receive an incentive of ₹50,000. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the waiver covers crop loans up to ₹2 lakh in arrears as of 30 September 2025, and regular repayers get ₹50,000.
Karnataka Chief Minister Siddaramaiah presented which number State Budget of his career on 6 March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 17th
The 2026-27 budget was Siddaramaiah's record 17th State Budget.
What is the total outlay of the Karnataka Budget 2026-27?
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Correct answer: D — ₹4,48,004 crore
Total expenditure is ₹4,48,004 crore, 13.3% above the 2025-26 revised estimate of ₹3,95,307 crore.
Consider the following statements about the Karnataka Budget 2026-27: 1. The fiscal deficit is estimated at 2.95% of GSDP. 2. The budget shows a revenue surplus. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct: the fiscal deficit is ₹97,449 crore (2.95% of GSDP), and the budget shows a revenue deficit of ₹22,957 crore, not a surplus.
A State Budget, such as Karnataka's for 2026-27, is constitutionally called the 'annual financial statement'. Which Article of the Constitution provides for it?
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Correct answer: A — Article 202
Article 202 requires the Governor to cause the annual financial statement of a State to be laid before the Legislature. Article 112 is the Union equivalent.
What wheat procurement estimate was fixed for Rabi Marketing Season 2026-27 at the State Food Secretaries' meeting on 6 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 303 LMT
The estimate for wheat procurement for RMS 2026-27 was fixed at 303 lakh metric tonnes.
In which state was a pilot to add QR code tags on foodgrain packaging bags successfully completed, as reported on 6 March 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Andhra Pradesh
The Department of Food and Public Distribution said the QR-code pilot was completed in Andhra Pradesh, with more pilots planned.
According to the Commerce Ministry on 6 March 2026, India's FTA network now consists of how many FTAs spanning how many countries?
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Correct answer: B — 9 FTAs, 38 countries
The ministry said India's network has reached nine FTAs spanning 38 countries.
Consider the following statements about the India–EFTA Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA): 1. It was signed on 10 March 2024. 2. It entered into force on 1 October 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the Commerce Ministry said the EFTA TEPA was signed on 10 March 2024 and entered into force on 1 October 2025.
Under DGFT Public Notice No. 51/2025-26 of 6 March 2026, the export obligation period for eligible Advance and EPCG Authorisations has been extended up to which date?
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Correct answer: C — 31 August 2026
EO periods expiring between 1 March and 31 May 2026 are automatically extended to 31 August 2026, with no composition fee.
By what date must memorandums be submitted to the 8th Central Pay Commission, as announced on 5 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 30 April 2026
Submissions will be received up to 30 April 2026, only through the online portals.
Who chairs the 8th Central Pay Commission?
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Correct answer: D — Justice Ranjana Prakash Desai
Justice Ranjana Prakash Desai is the Chairperson, with Prof. Pulak Ghosh as part-time member and Pankaj Jain as member-secretary.
Consider the following statements about the 8th Central Pay Commission: 1. It was constituted by a Government resolution dated 3 November 2025. 2. It is required to make its recommendations within 18 months of its constitution. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the Commission was constituted by a resolution dated 3 November 2025 and must report within 18 months.
What was the HSBC India Services PMI for February 2026, released on 4 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 58.1
The services PMI was 58.1 in February, compared with 58.5 in January.
Which agency compiles the HSBC India Services PMI?
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Correct answer: B — S&P Global
The HSBC India PMI series is compiled by S&P Global; data for February 2026 were collected from 9 to 25 February.
Consider the following statements about India's PMI data for February 2026: 1. New orders in the services sector rose at the slowest pace since January 2025. 2. The composite PMI fell from January's level. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. New services orders grew at a 13-month low, but the composite PMI rose to 58.9 from 58.4, the fastest private-sector growth in three months.
What was the theme of the post-Budget webinar addressed by PM Modi on 3 March 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Sustaining and Strengthening Economic Growth
The second webinar of the post-Budget series was on 'Sustaining and Strengthening Economic Growth'.
According to J.P. Nadda at the 3 March 2026 webinar, how much has been allocated over five years for the BioPharma mission?
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Correct answer: B — ₹10,000 crore
₹10,000 crore over five years is for the BioPharma mission, within a total ₹13,000 crore provision for BioPharma SHAKTI and three chemical parks.
According to TRAI's report released on 3 March 2026, how many internet subscribers did India have at the end of December 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 1,028.61 million
Internet subscribers rose to 1,028.61 million, of which 1,007.35 million were broadband.
Consider the following statements based on TRAI's report for October–December 2025: 1. Broadband subscribers crossed 1,000 million. 2. Narrowband internet subscribers increased during the quarter. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct: broadband reached 1,007.35 million. Narrowband subscribers fell 4.18% to 21.25 million.
What interest rate on EPF deposits for 2025-26 did EPFO's Central Board of Trustees recommend on 2 March 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 8.25%
The CBT recommended 8.25%, the same rate as declared for 2024-25.
Who chairs the Central Board of Trustees of the EPF, as at its 239th meeting on 2 March 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Union Labour and Employment Minister
The Union Labour and Employment Minister, Mansukh Mandaviya, chaired the meeting; the Central Provident Fund Commissioner is the Member Secretary.
The new EPF, EPS and EDLI Schemes, 2026, approved by the CBT on 2 March 2026, are aligned with which law?
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Correct answer: B — Code on Social Security, 2020
The new schemes were approved for notification under the Code on Social Security, 2020, to replace the current schemes.
Consider the following statements about decisions of the 239th CBT meeting of EPF (2 March 2026): 1. A one-time Amnesty Scheme was approved for exempted establishments under the EPF & MP Act, 1952. 2. A pilot was approved for auto-settlement of inoperative accounts with balances of ₹10,000 or less. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The auto-settlement pilot covers inoperative accounts with unclaimed balances of ₹1,000 or less (over 1.33 lakh accounts), not ₹10,000.
What was India's IIP growth rate for January 2026 according to the quick estimate released on 2 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 4.8%
IIP grew 4.8% year-on-year in January 2026.
Which of the three IIP sectors recorded the highest growth in January 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Electricity
Electricity grew 5.1%, ahead of manufacturing (4.8%) and mining (4.3%).
Which industry group was the top positive contributor to manufacturing growth in January 2026, growing 13.2%?
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Correct answer: D — Manufacture of basic metals
Manufacture of basic metals (13.2%) was the top contributor, followed by motor vehicles (10.9%) and other non-metallic mineral products (9.9%).
Where was the 7th Joint Committee meeting under the India–Japan CEPA held on 2 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Tokyo
The 7th Joint Committee meeting under the India–Japan CEPA was held in Tokyo on 2 March 2026.
Who co-chaired the 7th India–Japan CEPA Joint Committee meeting from the Indian side?
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Correct answer: D — Commerce Secretary Rajesh Agrawal
Commerce Secretary Rajesh Agrawal co-chaired the meeting with the Senior Deputy Minister of Japan's Ministry of Foreign Affairs.
Consider the following statements about the India–Japan Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement: 1. It was signed on 16 February 2011. 2. It entered into force on 1 August 2011. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The India–Japan CEPA was signed on 16 February 2011 and came into force on 1 August 2011, according to the Department of Commerce.
What is the total outlay of Haryana's budget for 2026-27, presented on 2 March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — About ₹2.23 lakh crore
The 2026-27 budget outlay is ₹2,23,658.17 crore, about ₹2.23 lakh crore.
Haryana's 2026-27 budget proposed a new 'Haryana Agri DISCOM'. What will it serve?
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Correct answer: A — All agricultural feeders and farm consumers
The Haryana Agri DISCOM, the state's third distribution company, will serve all 5,084 agricultural feeders and 7.12 lakh agricultural consumers.
Consider the following statements about Haryana's budget 2026-27: 1. The fiscal deficit is estimated at 2.65% of the state's GDP. 2. Under the FRBM Act, 2003, a state's fiscal deficit should stay below 3% of its GDP, as cited in the budget speech. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The speech puts the fiscal deficit at ₹40,293.17 crore (2.65% of GDP) and cites the FRBM Act, 2003 ceiling of 3%.
Who signed the Terms of Reference for the India–Canada CEPA on behalf of India on 2 March 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Piyush Goyal
Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal signed the ToR with Canada's Trade Minister Maninder Sidhu.
What bilateral trade target by 2030 did India and Canada set while launching CEPA negotiations?
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Correct answer: D — US$50 billion
PM Modi said the goal is to take bilateral trade to US$50 billion by 2030.
According to the Commerce Ministry, what was India–Canada bilateral trade in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: A — US$8.66 billion
Bilateral trade was US$8.66 billion in 2024-25, with exports of US$4.22 billion and imports of US$4.44 billion (DGCI&S).
Which body introduced the deferred customs duty payment facility for Eligible Manufacturer Importers on 1 March 2026?
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Correct answer: A — CBIC
The Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) introduced the facility.
For what period will the Eligible Manufacturer Importer (EMI) deferred duty facility be in force?
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Correct answer: B — 1 April 2026 – 31 March 2028
The EMI facility is available from 1 April 2026 and remains in force until 31 March 2028.
Consider the following statements about the Eligible Manufacturer Importer (EMI) Scheme: 1. Duty under the scheme is paid monthly as prescribed in the Deferred Payment of Import Duty Rules, 2016. 2. Only entities already holding AEO-T3 status are eligible to apply. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. Existing AEO-T1 entities, including MSMEs, can also apply if they meet the criteria; EMIs are expected to progress to AEO-T2 or AEO-T3 during the scheme.
Where is the Micron Technology ATMP facility inaugurated by PM Modi on 28 February 2026 located?
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Correct answer: D — Sanand, Gujarat
The Micron ATMP facility is in Sanand, Gujarat.
In the context of the Micron facility in Sanand, what does 'ATMP' stand for?
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Correct answer: A — Assembly, Test, Marking and Packaging
ATMP stands for Assembly, Test, Marking and Packaging.
To which company did Micron present its first shipment of made-in-India memory modules from Sanand?
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Correct answer: B — Dell Technologies
Micron said it presented its first shipment of made-in-India memory modules to Dell Technologies.
Consider the following statements about the Micron ATMP project in Sanand: 1. It was the first proposal approved under the India Semiconductor Mission. 2. It fabricates DRAM and NAND wafers from raw silicon at Sanand. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The Sanand facility is an assembly and test plant: it converts DRAM and NAND wafers from Micron's global network into finished memory and storage products; it does not fabricate wafers.
What is the base year of the new GDP series released by MoSPI on 27 February 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 2022-23
The new series uses base year 2022-23, replacing the 2011-12 series.
What real GDP growth rate for 2025-26 was estimated in the Second Advance Estimates released on 27 February 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 7.6%
Real GDP growth for 2025-26 is estimated at 7.6%, against 7.1% in 2024-25; 8.6% is the nominal growth.
According to the new series, India's real GDP grew by how much in Q3 (October–December) of 2025-26?
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Correct answer: C — 7.8%
Real GDP grew 7.8% in Q3 of 2025-26; 8.9% was the nominal growth in that quarter.
Which of the following data sources is NOT mentioned by PIB among the new sources integrated in the 2022-23 GDP series?
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Correct answer: B — Census 2011
PIB lists ASUSE, PLFS, GST and PFMS as new, improved data sources in the revised series.
Consider the following statements about the new GDP series released in February 2026: 1. 2022-23 was chosen as base year because it is a recent normal year after the COVID-19 disruptions, with robust data across sectors. 2. In an annual revision, unlike a base year revision, the conceptual framework and data sources are changed. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. MoSPI says annual revisions only use updated data without changing the conceptual framework or adding new data sources; base year revisions change methodology, data sources and coverage.
In which district of Tamil Nadu is the PM MITRA Park where 190.44 acres were allotted to investors on 27 February 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Virudhnagar
The land was allotted in the PM MITRA Park at Virudhnagar, Tamil Nadu.
How much committed investment was unlocked by the land allotment at PM MITRA Park Virudhnagar on 27 February 2026?
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Correct answer: A — About ₹2,192 crore
The allotment to 23 investors unlocked about ₹2,192.21 crore; ₹1,894 crore is the park's cost and ₹4,445 crore the scheme outlay.
Consider the following statements about the PM MITRA scheme: 1. It provides for seven Mega Integrated Textile Region and Apparel Parks with an outlay of ₹4,445 crore over five years. 2. The scheme was announced in the Union Budget 2021-22. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB (October 2021) says the Government approved 7 PM MITRA parks with a total outlay of ₹4,445 crore over 5 years, as announced in the Union Budget 2021-22.
Who launched the Government Bank Dashboard and the Government Bank Manual on 27 February 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Controller General of Accounts
Controller General of Accounts T.C.A. Kalyani launched both initiatives in New Delhi.