UPSC Civil Services Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
How many medicinal substances will the CCRAS DRAVYA portal catalogue in its first phase?
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Correct answer: C — 100
PIB: in its first phase, the DRAVYA portal aims to catalogue information on 100 key medicinal substances.
NITI Aayog's October 2025 roadmap 'AI for Inclusive Societal Development' proposes which national mission for informal workers?
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Correct answer: D — Mission Digital ShramSetu
PIB: NITI Aayog called for Mission Digital ShramSetu, a proposed national mission to make AI accessible, affordable and impactful for every worker.
Consider the following statements about NITI Aayog's roadmap 'AI for Inclusive Societal Development' (October 2025): 1. It focuses on India's 490 million informal workers. 2. It warns that on the current trajectory, informal workers' average annual income will stagnate at $6,000 by 2047, against a $14,500 target. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: the study explores how AI can transform the lives of India's 490 million informal workers and warns that at the current trajectory their average annual income will stagnate at $6,000 by 2047, far below the $14,500 target.
At the first meeting of the upgraded India–Qatar Joint Commission (October 2025), the two sides set a goal of doubling bilateral trade by:
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Correct answer: B — 2030
PIB: the sides set a shared goal of doubling bilateral trade by 2030.
Consider the following statements about Piyush Goyal's October 2025 visit to Qatar: 1. The upgraded Joint Commission replaced the earlier Joint Working Group on Trade and Commerce. 2. India–Qatar bilateral trade in 2024–25 was over USD 24 billion. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: it was the first meeting of the upgraded Joint Commission, elevated from the earlier Joint Working Group on Trade and Commerce; trade was valued at over USD 14 billion in 2024–25.
The draft Shram Shakti Niti 2025 is described as rooted in which civilisational ethos?
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Correct answer: B — Śrama dharma
PIB: the policy is rooted in India's civilisational ethos of śrama dharma — the dignity and moral value of work.
Under the draft National Labour & Employment Policy – Shram Shakti Niti 2025, which platform is to serve as India's Digital Public Infrastructure for Employment?
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Correct answer: D — National Career Service (NCS)
PIB: the National Career Service (NCS) platform will serve as India's Digital Public Infrastructure for Employment, enabling job matching, credential verification and skill alignment.
Which country received the ISSA award for outstanding achievement in social security immediately before India (in 2022)?
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Correct answer: D — Iceland
PIB: previous recipients include Brazil (2013), China (2016), Rwanda (2019) and Iceland (2022).
Consider the following statements: 1. According to the ILO, India's social protection coverage rose from 19% in 2015 to 64.3% in 2025. 2. The ISSA award for outstanding achievement in social security is presented every year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: coverage expanded from 19% in 2015 to 64.3% in 2025, as highlighted by the ILO; the ISSA Award is presented once every three years at the World Social Security Forum.
India's vote share in the ISSA General Assembly has been raised to which number, the maximum permissible for any member country?
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Correct answer: C — 30
PIB: Dr Mandaviya stressed the rise in India's vote share in the ISSA General Assembly to 30, the maximum permissible limit for any member country.
After the vesting orders issued on 8 October 2025, how many coal blocks had been vested or allocated under commercial coal auctions in total?
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Correct answer: C — 125
PIB (Ministry of Coal): with these vesting orders, a total of 125 coal blocks have been vested or allocated under commercial coal auctions.
Consider the following statements about the five coal blocks for which vesting orders were issued on 8 October 2025: 1. All five blocks are fully explored. 2. Their Coal Mine Development and Production Agreements were signed on 21 August 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. PIB: four of the blocks are partially explored and one is fully explored; the CMDPAs were signed on August 21, 2025.
As of September 2025, public sector banks had sanctioned loans under PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana amounting to about:
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Correct answer: D — ₹10,907 crore
PIB: as of September 2025, PSBs had sanctioned over 5.79 lakh loan applications amounting to ₹10,907 crore.
Consider the following statements about the model loan scheme under PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana: 1. It offers collateral-free loans of up to ₹2 lakh. 2. It provides a 12-month moratorium from disbursement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the model loan scheme offers loans up to ₹2 lakh without collateral and a 6-month moratorium period from disbursement.
During PM Modi's July 2025 State visit to Brazil, India and Brazil set a target of raising bilateral trade within five years to:
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Correct answer: B — USD 20 billion
PIB: the leaders set a target to increase bilateral trade to USD 20 billion over the next five years.
Consider the following statements: 1. Brazil is India's largest trading partner in the Latin American and Caribbean region. 2. India–Brazil bilateral merchandise trade in FY 2024-25 was about USD 20 billion. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: Brazil is the largest trading partner of India in the LAC region; bilateral merchandise trade in FY 2024-25 stood at USD 12.19 billion (USD 20 billion is the five-year target).
What was the theme of the World Cotton Day 2025 event organised by the Ministry of Textiles and CITI in New Delhi?
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Correct answer: D — Cotton 2040: Technology, Climate & Competitiveness
PIB: the event, jointly organised by the Ministry of Textiles and CITI, focused on the theme 'Cotton 2040: Technology, Climate & Competitiveness'.
Consider the following statements made at World Cotton Day 2025 (New Delhi): 1. India accounts for 40% of the world's cotton area. 2. India's cotton sector supports six million farmers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: Giriraj Singh said India accounts for 40% of the world's cotton area (productivity ~450 kg/ha); Secretary Neelam Shami Rao said the sector supports six million farmers and over 45 million jobs.
Which section of the IT Act, 2000 empowers the Government, in its executive capacity, to block online content that threatens national security, public order or friendly relations with foreign States?
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Correct answer: C — Section 69A
PIB: MeitY Secretary S. Krishnan explained that Section 69A empowers the Government, in its executive capacity, to block online content in such cases; Section 79(3)(b) deals with notices to intermediaries.
Consider the following statements: 1. Section 79(3)(b) of the IT Act, read with Rule 3(1)(d) of the IT Rules, 2021, empowers ministries, departments and States/UTs to send notices to intermediaries. 2. Under Section 79, final adjudication of an intermediary's liability rests with the executive. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: Section 79(3)(b) read with Rule 3(1)(d) empowers ministries, departments and States/UTs to send notices to intermediaries; Section 79 places intermediaries on notice, while final adjudication rests with the judiciary.
What symbol sits at the centre of the India-AI Impact Summit 2026 logo?
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Correct answer: B — Ashoka Chakra
PIB: at the centre of the winning design is the Ashoka Chakra, symbolising ethical governance, justice and constitutional values.
Consider the following statements about the India-AI Impact Summit 2026 logo: 1. It was selected through a Logo Design Contest on MyGov that received 599 entries. 2. The Summit is scheduled for 19–20 February 2026 at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: MyGov received 599 entries in the contest held from 28 May to 12 June 2025; the Summit is set for 19–20 February 2026 at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
Who designed the winning logo of the India-AI Impact Summit 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Ajith P. Suresh
PIB: MyGov received 599 entries, and the winning design was submitted by Shri Ajith P. Suresh.
The fourth edition of NITI Aayog's Trade Watch Quarterly (Q4 FY25) carries a special focus on which sector?
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Correct answer: C — Leather and footwear
PIB: this edition examines the leather and footwear sector, highlighting its employment potential and export opportunities.
According to NITI Aayog's Trade Watch Quarterly (October 2025), India's share in the $296 billion global leather and footwear market is about:
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Correct answer: D — 1.8%
PIB: India's overall share in the $296 billion global market is modest at 1.8%; the sector employs 4.4 million people.
The Competition Commission of India's 'Market Study on Artificial Intelligence and Competition' (October 2025) was conducted through which institution?
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Correct answer: D — Management Development Institute Society (MDIS)
PIB: CCI released its report Market Study on Artificial Intelligence and Competition, conducted through the Management Development Institute Society (MDIS).
What is the motto of the National Service Scheme (NSS)?
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Correct answer: B — Not Me, But You
PIB: inspired by the ideals of Mahatma Gandhi, the motto of NSS is 'NOT ME, BUT YOU' ('स्वयं से पहले आप').
Consider the following statements: 1. The National Service Scheme is a Central Sector Scheme launched in 1969. 2. The MY Bharat–NSS Awards for 2022-23 were given to 30 NSS volunteers, besides ten units and their Programme Officers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: NSS is a Central Sector Scheme launched in 1969; awards for 2022-23 went to ten NSS units, their ten Programme Officers and 30 NSS volunteers.
In which year did India achieve leprosy elimination status at the national level (prevalence rate below 1 per 10,000 population)?
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Correct answer: B — 2005
PIB (MoHFW explainer): India achieved elimination status in March 2005 at the national level, meaning a prevalence rate below 1 per 10,000 population, and has sustained it.
Nikusth 2.0, the revamped web portal for leprosy data and monitoring, was launched on which occasion?
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Correct answer: D — National Anti-Leprosy Day, 30 January 2023
PIB: Nikusth 2.0, a revamped web-based ICT portal for recording, reporting and monitoring leprosy activities, was launched on 30 January 2023 (National Anti-Leprosy Day) by the Union Health Minister.
Consider the following statements about leprosy in India: 1. As of March 2025, 31 States and 638 districts had a prevalence rate below 1 per 10,000 population. 2. The new case detection rate rose from 7.0 per 100,000 in 2014–15 to 9.73 per 100,000 in 2024–25. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: as of March 2025, 31 States and 638 districts had achieved a prevalence rate below 1 per 10,000. The new case detection rate fell (not rose) from 9.73 per 100,000 in 2014–15 to 7.0 in 2024–25.
Which Article of the Constitution entrusts Panchayats with preparing plans for economic development and social justice, the basis of the People's Plan Campaign?
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Correct answer: D — Article 243G
PIB (MoPR): Article 243G recognises Panchayats as institutions of local self-government and entrusts them with the preparation of plans for economic development and social justice; PDPs cover the 29 subjects of the Eleventh Schedule.
Consider the following statements about the People's Plan Campaign (PPC): 1. Panchayat Development Plans cover the 29 subjects listed in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution. 2. PPC 2025–26, launched on 2 October 2025, prepares Panchayat Development Plans for the financial year 2025–26. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB (MoPR): PDPs cover the 29 subjects of the Eleventh Schedule. PPC 2025–26 was launched on 2 October 2025 to prepare PDPs for the financial year 2026–27, not 2025–26.
Exercise Konkan, which began on 5 October 2025, is a bilateral exercise between the Indian Navy and which navy?
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Correct answer: C — Royal Navy (United Kingdom)
PIB (Indian Navy): Exercise KONKAN-25 is a bilateral exercise between the Indian Navy and the Royal Navy of the UK, held off India's western coast from 5 to 12 October 2025.
Consider the following statements about Exercise Konkan 2025: 1. It was conducted off the eastern coast of India in the Bay of Bengal. 2. The Indian side was represented by the carrier battle group of INS Vikrant. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. PIB: the exercise was held off the western coast of India (western seaboard), and the Indian side was represented by the carrier battle group of the indigenous aircraft carrier INS Vikrant; the UK CSG 25 was led by HMS Prince of Wales.
Which airline told DGCA in October 2025 that it would deploy about 730 additional flights across 42 sectors for the festive season?
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Correct answer: D — IndiGo
PIB (MoCA): IndiGo — about 730 additional flights across 42 sectors; Air India & Air India Express — about 486 across 20 sectors; SpiceJet — about 546 across 38 sectors.
The DGCA watches airfares, especially during festive seasons, under a mandate from which ministry?
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Correct answer: B — Ministry of Civil Aviation
PIB: the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) is mandated by the Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA) to keep a watch on airfares, especially during the festive season.
INS Sahyadri, which visited Kemaman in October 2025, is the third ship of which class of Indian Navy frigates?
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Correct answer: B — Shivalik class
PIB (Indian Navy): INS Sahyadri, indigenously designed, built and commissioned in 2012, is the third ship of the Shivalik-class guided-missile stealth frigates.
Kemaman port, where INS Sahyadri made a port call from 2 October 2025, is in which country?
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Correct answer: C — Malaysia
PIB: INS Sahyadri made a port call at Kemaman port in Malaysia on 2 October 2025; it was the ship's third visit to Malaysia.
Consider the following statements about the ₹1,500 crore Critical Mineral Recycling Incentive Scheme: 1. Its eligible feedstock includes e-waste, spent lithium-ion batteries and other scrap. 2. Its incentives are meant for units engaged only in black mass production. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB (Ministry of Mines): eligible feedstock is e-waste, spent LiBs and other scrap. Incentives are for the value chain engaged in actual extraction of critical minerals, not the value chain involved only in black mass production.
Applications under the Critical Mineral Recycling Incentive Scheme, opened on 2 October 2025, can be made up to which date?
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Correct answer: B — 1 April 2026
PIB: the scheme is open for applications from 2 October 2025 for six months, i.e. up to 1 April 2026.
According to the government explainer of October 2025, what was India's unemployment rate in 2023–24?
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Correct answer: D — 3.2%
PIB explainer: the unemployment rate fell sharply from 6.0% in 2017–18 to 3.2% in 2023–24.
Consider the following statements based on the government's October 2025 employment explainer: 1. EPFO added fewer than 1 crore net subscribers in 2024–25. 2. The share of self-employment fell from 58.4% in 2017–18 to 52.2% in 2023–24. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct. PIB: EPFO added over 1.29 crore net subscribers in 2024–25 (up from 61.12 lakh in 2018–19). Self-employment rose (not fell) from 52.2% in 2017–18 to 58.4% in 2023–24, while casual labour fell from 24.9% to 19.8%.
Before UIDAI's October 2025 waiver, what fee was charged per Mandatory Biometric Update (MBU) for a child outside the free age windows?
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Correct answer: C — ₹125
PIB (MeitY/UIDAI): the first and second MBUs were free if done at ages 5–7 and 15–17; thereafter a prescribed fee of ₹125 per MBU was charged. The waiver makes MBU effectively free for all children aged 5–17.
Consider the following statements about Aadhaar for children: 1. Fingerprints and iris biometrics are not captured for Aadhaar enrolment of children below five years of age. 2. UIDAI's waiver of MBU charges, effective 1 October 2025, will remain in force for two years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: fingerprints and iris are not captured below age five because they are not mature. The MBU charge waiver took effect on 1 October 2025 and is in force for one year, not two.
Under the amended National Highways fee rules notified in October 2025, a vehicle without a valid FASTag that pays via UPI will be charged how much of the applicable user fee?
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Correct answer: C — 1.25 times
PIB (MoRTH): non-FASTag users paying in cash will be charged twice the applicable fee, while those paying via UPI will be charged only 1.25 times (e.g. ₹100 → ₹125 by UPI, ₹200 in cash).
From which date did the National Highways Fee (Determination of Rates and Collection) (Third Amendment) Rules, 2025 come into effect?
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Correct answer: D — 15 November 2025
PIB (MoRTH): the National Highways Fee (Determination of Rates and Collection) (Third Amendment) Rules, 2025 come into effect from 15 November 2025.
During his visit to Singapore for 'India-Singapore @60' in October 2025, Piyush Goyal met which President of Singapore at the Istana?
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Correct answer: C — Tharman Shanmugaratnam
PIB (Ministry of Commerce): a highlight of the three-day visit was a meeting with H.E. Tharman Shanmugaratnam, President of the Republic of Singapore, at the Istana.
Consider the following statements about the 'India-Singapore @60' business session of 4 October 2025: 1. It marked the 60th anniversary of diplomatic relations and was co-organised by FICCI, CII and ASSOCHAM. 2. Singapore was represented at the session by its Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the session marked the 60th anniversary of India–Singapore diplomatic relations and was co-organised by FICCI, CII and ASSOCHAM. Singapore was represented by Ms Gan Siow Huang, Minister of State, Ministry of Trade & Industry — not the Prime Minister.
According to MoSPI, the free foodgrain distribution scheme launched on 1 January 2023 covers what share of the population?
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Correct answer: B — 75% rural and 50% urban
PIB (MoSPI): the free food grain distribution scheme launched by the Government of India from 1 January 2023 covers 75% of the rural and 50% of the urban population.
Which body released the Discussion Paper 2.0 on 'The Treatment of Free PDS Items in CPI Compilation' in October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
PIB: the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), which is conducting the CPI base revision, released Discussion Paper 2.0 and invited comments.
According to the Ministry of Textiles (October 2025), what was the size of India's textiles and clothing market in 2024?
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Correct answer: B — $179 billion
PIB (Ministry of Textiles): India's textiles and clothing market was $179 billion in 2024, growing at an average annual rate of over 7%; domestic demand is expected to reach $250 billion by 2030.
With the Swadeshi Campaign and other initiatives, the Ministry of Textiles expects India's total domestic textile demand to reach what level by 2030?
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Correct answer: C — $250 billion
PIB: the Ministry expects domestic demand to grow at a CAGR of 9–10% a year to reach a total domestic textile demand of $250 billion by 2030.
What period of authorisation has TRAI recommended for digital radio broadcasting by private broadcasters (October 2025)?
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Correct answer: B — 15 years
PIB (TRAI): the period of authorisation for digital radio broadcasting should be 15 years.
Consider the following statements about TRAI's October 2025 recommendations on digital radio: 1. New broadcasters should start digital radio in simulcast mode, allowing one analog, three digital and one data channel on the assigned frequency. 2. Frequencies for new channels should be assigned by auction under Section 4(4) of the Telecommunications Act, 2023. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB (TRAI): digital radio should commence in simulcast mode (one analog, three digital and one data channel on the assigned spot frequency), and frequencies for new channels should be assigned by auction in accordance with Section 4(4) of the Telecommunications Act, 2023.
TRAI has recommended an authorisation fee of what share of Adjusted Gross Revenue (AGR) for digital radio in 'A+' and 'A' category cities?
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Correct answer: A — 4%
PIB (TRAI): authorisation fee is 4% of AGR for cities of category 'A+', 'A', 'B', 'C' and 'D'; for 'Others' (border/hilly areas of NE, J&K, Ladakh and island territories) and 'E' category, 2% of AGR for the first 3 years.
What penalty did the CCPA impose on Drishti IAS in October 2025 for misleading UPSC CSE 2022 results advertisements?
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Correct answer: C — ₹5 lakh
PIB (Department of Consumer Affairs): CCPA imposed a penalty of ₹5 lakh on Drishti IAS (VDK Eduventures Pvt. Ltd.) for misleading ads claiming '216+ selections in UPSC CSE 2022'.
Under which section of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 is 'misleading advertisement' defined, as cited by the CCPA in the Drishti IAS case?
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Correct answer: B — Section 2(28)
PIB: concealing the courses taken by successful candidates was held to be a misleading advertisement under Section 2(28) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019; Section 2(9) (consumer rights) was cited for the right to make an informed choice.
The first paper in NITI Aayog's Tax Policy Working Paper Series–I (October 2025) deals with which issue?
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Correct answer: C — Permanent Establishment and profit attribution for foreign investors
PIB (NITI Aayog): the first working paper is titled 'Enhancing Tax Certainty in Permanent Establishment and Profit Attribution for Foreign Investors in India'.
NITI Aayog's October 2025 working paper on Permanent Establishment recommends introducing which of the following for foreign companies?
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Correct answer: D — An optional, industry-specific Presumptive Taxation Scheme
PIB (NITI Aayog): the paper recommends an optional, industry-specific Presumptive Taxation Scheme for foreign companies, with legislative clarity, administrative efficiency and robust dispute resolution; it was prepared under NITI's Consultative Group on Tax Policy.
The Adi Karmayogi Abhiyan, under which Tribal Village Vision 2030 declarations were passed, was formally inaugurated by the PM on 17 September 2025 at which place?
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Correct answer: B — Dhar
PIB (Ministry of Tribal Affairs): the Adi Karmayogi Abhiyan was formally inaugurated by the Prime Minister on 17 September 2025 at Dhar, Madhya Pradesh.
The Government has declared which period as 'Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh'?
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Correct answer: D — 15 November 2024 to 15 November 2025
PIB (Ministry of Tribal Affairs): the Government of India has declared 15 November 2024 to 15 November 2025 as Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh; the Adi Karmayogi Abhiyan was launched as part of it.
Consider the following statements about the Tribal Village Vision 2030 initiative: 1. The declarations were passed by tribal villages and tolas in Special Gram Sabhas on 2 October 2025. 2. Under 'Adi Sewa Samay', villagers contribute one hour per week of voluntary service at Adi Sewa Kendras. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: tribal villages and tolas passed the Tribal Village Vision 2030 Declaration in Special Gram Sabhas on 2 October 2025; Adi Sewa Kendras serve as single-window centres, with villagers contributing 1 hour per week of voluntary service (Adi Sewa Samay).