UP Police Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
The FELUDA-based point-of-care test highlighted by the Ministry of Science and Technology on 27 December 2024 detects which bacterium?
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Correct answer: B — Helicobacter pylori
PIB (Science and Technology): researchers developed FELUDA as a point-of-care test to detect Helicobacter pylori and its mutations in dyspeptic patients.
Resistance of H. pylori to which antibiotic, primarily due to point mutations in its 23S ribosomal RNA gene, can be identified by the FELUDA test reported in December 2024?
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Correct answer: C — Clarithromycin
PIB (Science and Technology): resistance to clarithromycin is primarily attributed to point mutations in the 23S ribosomal RNA coding gene of H. pylori, and en31-FnCas9 identified the 23S rDNA mutation status in biopsy samples.
Which CSIR laboratory's researchers developed the FELUDA-based H. pylori test reported in December 2024?
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Correct answer: D — CSIR-IGIB
PIB (Science and Technology): Dr Shraddha Chakraborty and colleagues at CSIR-IGIB used en31-FnCas9 in the FELUDA test for H. pylori.
INS Sarvekshak arrived at Port Louis on 26 December 2024 for a Joint Hydrographic Survey. Port Louis is in which country?
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Correct answer: C — Mauritius
PIB (Ministry of Defence): INS Sarvekshak arrived at Port Louis, Mauritius, on 26 December 2024 to undertake a Joint Hydrographic Survey.
What was the purpose of INS Sarvekshak's visit to Port Louis in December 2024?
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Correct answer: D — A Joint Hydrographic Survey
PIB (Ministry of Defence): INS Sarvekshak arrived at Port Louis to undertake a Joint Hydrographic Survey, which will help Mauritius plan maritime infrastructure, resource management and coastal development.
Who, as High Commissioner of India to Mauritius, received INS Sarvekshak at Port Louis on 26 December 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Anurag Srivastava
PIB (Ministry of Defence): the ship was received by Anurag Srivastava, High Commissioner of India to Mauritius, along with Capt C.G. Binoop, Commandant of the Mauritius National Coast Guard.
Former Prime Minister Dr Manmohan Singh, who died on 26 December 2024, was born in which village?
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Correct answer: A — Gah, West Punjab
PIB (Cabinet resolution): Dr Manmohan Singh was born on 26 September 1932 in village Gah, West Punjab, in the Punjab province of undivided India.
During which period did Dr Manmohan Singh serve as Governor of the Reserve Bank of India?
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Correct answer: C — September 1982 to January 1985
PIB (Cabinet resolution): Dr Manmohan Singh was Governor of the Reserve Bank of India from September 1982 to January 1985; November 1976 to April 1980 was his tenure as DEA Secretary and April 1980 to September 1982 as Member Secretary, Planning Commission.
In which year was Dr Manmohan Singh conferred the Padma Vibhushan?
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Correct answer: D — 1987
PIB (Cabinet resolution): Dr Manmohan Singh received the Padma Vibhushan in 1987; 1956 was the Adam Smith Prize, 1993 the Euromoney Finance Minister of the Year award and 1995 the Jawaharlal Nehru Birth Centenary Award of the Indian Science Congress.
Consider the following statements about Dr Manmohan Singh: 1. He served as India's Finance Minister from 1991 to 1996. 2. He was Chief Economic Adviser in the Ministry of Finance from 1972 to 1976. 3. He received his D.Phil from the University of Cambridge in 1962. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Cabinet resolution): he was Finance Minister from 1991 to 1996 and CEA from 1972 to 1976. Statement 3 is wrong: his D.Phil (1962) was from the University of Oxford; from Cambridge he received the Economics Tripos in 1957.
Which edition of the PRAGATI interaction did Prime Minister Narendra Modi chair on 26 December 2024?
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Correct answer: C — 45th
PIB (PMO): the Prime Minister chaired the meeting of the 45th edition of PRAGATI on 26 December 2024.
Of the eight projects reviewed at the 45th PRAGATI meeting in December 2024, how many were metro projects?
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Correct answer: B — Six
PIB (PMO): the eight projects reviewed included six metro projects of urban transport and one project each in road connectivity and thermal power, with a combined cost of more than ₹1 lakh crore.
Dr Arunish Chawla took charge on 26 December 2024 as Secretary of which department of the Ministry of Finance?
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Correct answer: A — Department of Revenue
PIB (Ministry of Finance): Dr Arunish Chawla took charge as Secretary, Department of Revenue, on 26 December 2024.
Before becoming Revenue Secretary in December 2024, Dr Arunish Chawla was Secretary of which department since 1 November 2023?
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Correct answer: D — Department of Pharmaceuticals
PIB (Ministry of Finance): Dr Chawla had served as Secretary, Department of Pharmaceuticals, Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilisers, since 1 November 2023.
Which edition of Veer Baal Diwas was observed at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi, on 26 December 2024?
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Correct answer: C — 3rd
PIB (PMO): the Prime Minister addressed the gathering on the occasion of the 3rd Veer Baal Diwas at Bharat Mandapam on 26 December 2024.
Which campaign did the Prime Minister launch at the Veer Baal Diwas programme on 26 December 2024?
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Correct answer: C — Suposhit Gram Panchayat Abhiyan
PIB (PMO): the Prime Minister launched the 'Suposhit Gram Panchayat Abhiyan' at the Veer Baal Diwas programme at Bharat Mandapam.
In his Veer Baal Diwas 2024 address, the Prime Minister said the Sahibzadas chose to embrace the death sentence ordered by whom?
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Correct answer: D — Wazir Khan
PIB (PMO): the Prime Minister said the Sahibzadas rejected the temptations of the Mughal Sultanate and chose to embrace the death sentence ordered by Wazir Khan.
Under the Post Office Regulations, 2024, the limit for remittance through money order was raised to what amount?
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Correct answer: A — ₹10,000
PIB (Ministry of Communications): the money order remittance limit was raised from ₹5,000 to ₹10,000 to help disburse social welfare scheme payments.
From which date did the Post Office Rules, 2024 and Post Office Regulations, 2024 come into force?
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Correct answer: C — 16 December 2024
PIB (Ministry of Communications): the Rules and Regulations came into force w.e.f. 16 December 2024; 24 December 2023 is when the Post Office Act, 2023 was enacted and 18 June 2024 when the Act took effect.
How many rules and regulations together make up the new subordinate legislation under the Post Office Act, 2023?
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Correct answer: B — 19 rules and 180 regulations
PIB (Ministry of Communications): the new Rules and Regulations contain 19 rules and 180 regulations, framed with the motto 'Dak Sewa Jan Sewa'.
What penalty did the CCPA impose on each of Vajirao & Reddy Institute and StudyIQ IAS in December 2024 for misleading UPSC result advertisements?
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Correct answer: D — ₹7 lakh
PIB (Consumer Affairs): the CCPA imposed a penalty of ₹7 lakh each on Vajirao & Reddy Institute and StudyIQ IAS, and ₹1 lakh on Edge IAS.
Who headed the Central Consumer Protection Authority as Chief Commissioner when it penalised UPSC coaching institutes in December 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Nidhi Khare
PIB (Consumer Affairs): the CCPA is headed by Chief Commissioner Nidhi Khare; Anupam Mishra is a Commissioner.
The CCPA found that all 617 successful candidates claimed by Vajirao & Reddy Institute for UPSC CSE 2022 had been enrolled in which course?
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Correct answer: C — Interview Guidance Programme
PIB (Consumer Affairs): the CCPA found that all the claimed 617 successful candidates were enrolled in the Interview Guidance Programme, which the advertisement did not disclose.
According to data released by the ECI on 26 December 2024, which parliamentary constituency recorded the highest voter turnout in the 2024 Lok Sabha elections?
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Correct answer: D — Dhubri
PIB (ECI): the PC with the highest turnout was Dhubri (Assam) at 92.3%.
Which parliamentary constituency recorded the lowest turnout (38.7%) in the 2024 Lok Sabha elections, as per ECI data released in December 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Srinagar
PIB (ECI): the PC with the lowest turnout was Srinagar (J&K) at 38.7%, compared to 14.4% in 2019.
Which parliamentary constituency received the highest number of nominations (114) in the 2024 Lok Sabha elections?
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Correct answer: C — Malkajgiri
PIB (ECI): the PC with the highest number of nominations was Malkajgiri (Telangana) with 114.
Consider the following statements based on ECI data on the 2024 Lok Sabha elections released on 26 December 2024: 1. The turnout of female electors (65.78%) was higher than that of male electors (65.55%). 2. NOTA's vote share rose compared to the 2019 elections. 3. Puducherry had the highest share of female electors among States/UTs. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 3 only
PIB (ECI): 65.78% of female electors voted against 65.55% of male electors, and Puducherry had the highest female elector share (53.03%). Statement 2 is wrong: NOTA got 0.99% in 2024, down from 1.06% in 2019.
How many children received the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar from the President on 26 December 2024?
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Correct answer: A — 17
PIB (President's Secretariat): the President conferred the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar on 17 children in seven categories on 26 December 2024.
Where was the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar ceremony held on 26 December 2024?
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Correct answer: D — Rashtrapati Bhavan Cultural Centre
PIB (President's Secretariat): the awards were conferred at a ceremony held at the Rashtrapati Bhavan Cultural Centre on 26 December 2024; Bharat Mandapam hosted the Veer Baal Diwas programme the same day.
Consider the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar conferred on 26 December 2024: 1. The awardees were 7 boys and 10 girls from 14 States/UTs. 2. Environment was one of the seven award categories. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
PIB (MWCD): 17 children (7 boys and 10 girls) from 14 States/UTs were selected, and the seven categories are Art & Culture, Bravery, Innovation, Science & Technology, Social Service, Sports and Environment. Both statements are correct.
With which body did the Department of Science and Technology announce an undergraduate curriculum in quantum technologies on 25 December 2024?
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Correct answer: A — AICTE
PIB (Science and Technology): DST, in collaboration with the All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE), announced a dedicated undergraduate curriculum for quantum.
From which semester can engineering students take the UG minor in quantum technologies announced in December 2024?
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Correct answer: C — Third or fourth semester
PIB (Science and Technology): DST Secretary Abhay Karandikar said all engineering students, irrespective of discipline, can undertake the UG minor in quantum technologies from their third or fourth semester.
The undergraduate quantum curriculum announced by DST and AICTE in December 2024 is part of which mission?
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Correct answer: D — National Quantum Mission
PIB (Science and Technology): the curriculum was announced to create a quantum-trained ecosystem in India as part of the National Quantum Mission.
Osamu Suzuki, who died on 25 December 2024, was instrumental in the formation of Maruti Udyog Limited in which year?
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Correct answer: C — 1981
Maruti Suzuki India statement: Osamu Suzuki's foresight and leadership were instrumental in the formation of Maruti Udyog Limited in 1981.
In which year did India confer the Padma Bhushan on Osamu Suzuki?
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Correct answer: D — 2007
Suzuki Motor Corporation notice: among his awards, Osamu Suzuki received the Padma Bhushan from India in March 2007.
What position did Osamu Suzuki hold at Maruti Suzuki India Limited at the time of his death in December 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Director and Honorary Chairman
Maruti Suzuki India statement: Osamu Suzuki was Senior Advisor, Suzuki Motor Corporation, and Director & Honorary Chairman, Maruti Suzuki India Limited.
In how many districts were zero malaria cases reported in 2023, according to the Health Ministry's update of 25 December 2024?
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Correct answer: B — 122
PIB (Health Ministry): in 2023, zero malaria cases were reported in 122 districts across various States.
Which two States remained in the high-burden Category 3 for malaria in 2023, as per the Health Ministry's December 2024 update?
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Correct answer: A — Mizoram and Tripura
PIB (Health Ministry): of the 10 States/UTs in Category 3 in 2015, only Mizoram and Tripura remained in Category 3 in 2023; Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Meghalaya moved to Category 2.
What is the period of India's National Strategic Plan for Malaria Elimination cited in the Health Ministry's December 2024 update?
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Correct answer: C — 2023-2027
PIB (Health Ministry): the government is working through the National Framework for Malaria Elimination and the National Strategic Plan for Malaria Elimination (2023-2027), aiming for malaria-free status by 2030.
How many newly established M-PACS did Amit Shah inaugurate in New Delhi on 25 December 2024?
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Correct answer: B — 10,000
PIB (Ministry of Cooperation): Amit Shah inaugurated 10,000 newly established M-PACS, along with dairy and fisheries cooperative societies; 2 lakh is the five-year target for new PACS.
Within how many days of the SOP issued on 19 September 2024 was the registration of 10,000 PACS completed?
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Correct answer: D — 86 days
PIB (Ministry of Cooperation): an SOP was established on 19 September 2024, and within 86 days the registration of 10,000 PACS was completed.
Which three new national-level cooperatives will PACS join to work on organic products, seed production and exports, as stated on 25 December 2024?
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Correct answer: C — NCOL, BBSSL and NCEL
PIB (Ministry of Cooperation): the three new national-level cooperatives NCOL, BBSSL and NCEL will open opportunities for farmers in organic products, seeds and exports; NDDB, NFDB and NABARD helped register the PACS.
The 'Viksit Panchayat Karmayogi' initiative launched on Good Governance Day 2024 is part of which broader campaign?
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Correct answer: D — Prashasan Gaon Ki Aur
PIB (DoPT): the 'Viksit Panchayat Karmayogi' initiative is part of the broader 'Prashasan Gaon Ki Aur' campaign.
In which States was the 'Viksit Panchayat Karmayogi' initiative piloted, as stated on 25 December 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Odisha, Assam, Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh
PIB (DoPT): the initiative was piloted in Odisha, Assam, Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh.
Which milestone e-learning course was introduced on the iGOT Karmayogi platform on Good Governance Day 2024?
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Correct answer: A — 1,600th
PIB (DoPT): Dr Jitendra Singh launched a new dashboard on the iGOT Karmayogi platform along with the milestone introduction of the 1,600th e-learning course.
Who was appointed Governor of Manipur by the President of India on 24 December 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Ajay Kumar Bhalla
PIB (President's Secretariat): Ajay Kumar Bhalla was appointed Governor of Manipur in the press communique of 24 December 2024.
General (Dr) Vijay Kumar Singh (Retd.) was appointed Governor of which State on 24 December 2024?
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Correct answer: D — Mizoram
PIB (President's Secretariat): General (Dr) Vijay Kumar Singh (Retd.) was appointed Governor of Mizoram.
Whose resignation as Governor of Odisha did the President of India accept on 24 December 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Raghubar Das
PIB (President's Secretariat): the President accepted the resignation of Raghubar Das as Governor of Odisha and appointed Dr Hari Babu Kambhampati in his place.
Consider the following statements about the gubernatorial changes announced on 24 December 2024: 1. Arif Mohammed Khan was moved from Kerala to Bihar. 2. Dr Hari Babu Kambhampati was Governor of Mizoram before being appointed to Odisha. 3. The appointments take effect from the dates the appointees assume charge. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (President's Secretariat): Arif Mohammed Khan, Governor of Kerala, was appointed Governor of Bihar; Hari Babu Kambhampati, Governor of Mizoram, was appointed to Odisha; and the appointments take effect from the dates of assuming charge. All three statements are correct.
What was the theme of National Consumer Day 2024, observed on 24 December 2024?
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Correct answer: C — Virtual Hearings & Digital Access to Consumer Justice
PIB (Consumer Affairs): the theme for National Consumer Day 2024 was 'Virtual Hearings & Digital Access to Consumer Justice'.
On National Consumer Day 2024, a voluntary Safety Pledge for consumer safety was signed by how many major e-commerce platforms?
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Correct answer: A — 13
PIB (Consumer Affairs): the Safety Pledge, a voluntary commitment for ensuring consumer safety, was signed by 13 major e-commerce platforms.
On National Consumer Day 2024, an Organic Food Testing Laboratory was inaugurated at the National Test House in which city?
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Correct answer: B — Guwahati
PIB (Consumer Affairs): the Minister inaugurated the Organic Food Testing Laboratory at National Test House, Guwahati, and a Low Voltage Switch Gear Testing Facility at National Test House, Mumbai.
How much was released to Uttar Pradesh as the second instalment of XV Finance Commission untied grants for rural local bodies (2024-25), as announced on 24 December 2024?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1,598.80 crore
PIB (Panchayati Raj): Uttar Pradesh received ₹1,598.80 crore as the second instalment of untied grants; ₹446.49 crore went to Andhra Pradesh.
XV Finance Commission untied grants to Panchayati Raj Institutions can be used for location-specific needs under the 29 subjects listed in which Schedule of the Constitution?
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Correct answer: C — Eleventh Schedule
PIB (Panchayati Raj): untied grants are used for location-specific felt needs under the 29 subjects enshrined in the Eleventh Schedule, except salaries and establishment costs.
Consider the following statements about XV Finance Commission grants to rural local bodies, as explained by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj in December 2024: 1. Tied grants can be used for sanitation and maintenance of ODF status. 2. Tied grants can be used for drinking water supply, rainwater harvesting and water recycling. 3. Untied grants can be used to pay salaries of panchayat staff. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Panchayati Raj): tied grants are for sanitation/ODF status and for drinking water, rainwater harvesting and water recycling; untied grants exclude salaries and other establishment costs, so statement 3 is wrong.
According to ASUSE 2023-24 released on 24 December 2024, how many unincorporated non-agricultural establishments were there in India?
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Correct answer: D — 7.34 crore
PIB (MoSPI): the number of establishments rose from 6.50 crore in 2022-23 to 7.34 crore in 2023-24.
As per ASUSE 2023-24, what was the Gross Value Added (GVA) per worker in the unincorporated sector at current prices?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1,49,742
PIB (MoSPI): GVA per worker rose to ₹1,49,742 in 2023-24 from ₹1,41,769 in 2022-23; ₹1,38,207 was the 2021-22 figure and ₹2,45,687 is GVA per establishment.
According to ASUSE 2023-24, what share of unincorporated establishments used the internet?
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Correct answer: A — 26.7%
PIB (MoSPI): the percentage of establishments using the internet grew from 21.1% in 2022-23 to 26.7% in ASUSE 2023-24.
Filmmaker Shyam Benegal, who died on 23 December 2024, is best known as a pioneer of which movement in Indian cinema?
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Correct answer: A — Parallel cinema
The New Indian Express and The Hindu: Shyam Benegal heralded the 'parallel movement' in Hindi cinema in the 1970s and 1980s with films such as Ankur, Mandi and Manthan.
Shyam Benegal's film Manthan, restored and screened at Cannes in 2024, was based on the milk cooperative movement of which place?
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Correct answer: C — Anand, Gujarat
The New Indian Express and The Hindu: Manthan was based on the milk cooperative movement in Anand, Gujarat, and its restored version was shown at the Cannes Film Festival in 2024.
Shyam Benegal's last film, released in 2023, was a biopic of which leader?
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Correct answer: D — Sheikh Mujibur Rahman
The New Indian Express and The Hindu: Benegal's most recent work was Mujib: The Making of a Nation (2023), a biopic of Sheikh Mujibur Rahman. A film on Noor Inayat Khan remained unmade.
The revised detention policy notified by the Centre in December 2024 under the RTE rules applies to students of which grades?
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Correct answer: B — Grades 5 and 8
PIB (Ministry of Education): the revised "Detention Policy" applies to students in Grades 5 and 8 of schools run by the Central Government or by UTs without a legislature.
Under the RTE (Amendment) Rules, 2024, within what period of the declaration of results must a student who fails the annual examination get a re-examination?
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Correct answer: C — Two months
PIB (Ministry of Education): a student who fails to meet the promotion criteria gets additional instruction and a re-examination within two months of the declaration of results.
Consider the following statements about the RTE (Amendment) Rules, 2024: 1. They apply to schools established, owned or controlled by the Central Government or by the administrator of a UT having no legislature. 2. They allow a child to be expelled from school before completing elementary education. 3. They were notified through G.S.R. 777(E) dated 21 December 2024. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 3 only
PIB (Ministry of Education): statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong because the amendment reinforces that no child shall be expelled from school until the completion of elementary education.
According to TRAI data released in December 2024, what was India's overall tele-density at the end of October 2024?
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Correct answer: B — 84.46%
PIB (TRAI): overall tele-density was 84.46% as on 31 October 2024.
As per TRAI's subscription data as on 31 October 2024, how many broadband subscribers did India have?
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Correct answer: D — 941.47 million
PIB (TRAI): total broadband subscribers decreased from 944.40 million at the end of September 2024 to 941.47 million at the end of October 2024.
Under TRAI's Telecom Consumers Protection (Twelfth Amendment) Regulations, 2024, the validity cap for Special Tariff Vouchers and Combo Vouchers was raised to how many days?
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Correct answer: C — 365 days
PIB (TRAI): the cap on validity period for STVs and Combo Vouchers was increased from 90 days to 365 days.
Which of the following did TRAI mandate through its December 2024 amendment to the Telecom Consumers Protection Regulations?
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Correct answer: A — A separate Special Tariff Voucher for voice and SMS
PIB (TRAI): the regulations mandate a separate STV for voice and SMS. Colour coding was done away with, and the reservation of ₹10 and its multiples for top-up vouchers was removed.
Consider the following statements about TRAI's December 2024 changes to voucher rules: 1. Colour coding of vouchers was done away with. 2. Telecom operators no longer need to offer any ₹10 top-up voucher. 3. The changes followed a consultation paper released on 26 July 2024. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 3 only
PIB (TRAI): statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong because the mandate of at least one ₹10 top-up voucher is retained.
What is the theme for tableaux at the Republic Day Celebrations 2025, as announced by the Ministry of Defence?
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Correct answer: B — Swarnim Bharat: Virasat aur Vikas
PIB (Ministry of Defence): the theme for tableaux at RDC-2025 has been decided as 'Swarnim Bharat: Virasat aur Vikas'.
How many States/UTs were selected to showcase their tableaux on Kartavya Path for the Republic Day Celebrations 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 15
PIB (Ministry of Defence): 15 States/UTs were selected for Kartavya Path for RDC-2025, along with 11 central ministries/departments.
Consider the following statements about the Republic Day Celebrations 2025 tableaux announced on 23 December 2024: 1. Karnataka, Tripura and West Bengal were among the States selected for Kartavya Path. 2. Only the States selected for Kartavya Path were invited to Bharat Parv at the Red Fort. 3. The tableaux theme was decided on the basis of suggestions from States/UTs. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 3 only
PIB (Ministry of Defence): statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong because all States/UTs, irrespective of their selection for Kartavya Path, were invited to Bharat Parv at the Red Fort (26–31 January 2025).
What was the size of the loan signed by India and the Asian Development Bank in December 2024 for green and sustainable infrastructure through IIFCL?
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Correct answer: C — $500 million
PIB (Ministry of Finance): India and ADB signed a $500 million loan to support green and sustainable infrastructure projects, to be extended to IIFCL.
The ADB loan signed on 20 December 2024 under the Financing Environmentally Sustainable Growth in Infrastructure Project will be extended to which entity?
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Correct answer: B — India Infrastructure Finance Company Limited
PIB (Ministry of Finance): the ADB loan, with a sovereign guarantee, will be extended to India Infrastructure Finance Company Limited (IIFCL).
Consider the following statements about the India–ADB loan to IIFCL announced on 23 December 2024: 1. The loan carries a sovereign guarantee. 2. A sustainability unit and a sustainability scoring method for projects will be set up at IIFCL. 3. The loan was signed for India by the Secretary, Department of Financial Services. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Ministry of Finance): statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong because Juhi Mukherjee, Joint Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs, signed for India.
How many appointment letters did Prime Minister Narendra Modi distribute at the Rozgar Mela on 23 December 2024?
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Correct answer: D — More than 71,000
PIB (PMO): the Prime Minister distributed more than 71,000 appointment letters to newly appointed recruits via video conferencing on 23 December 2024.
At how many locations across the country was the Rozgar Mela of 23 December 2024 held?
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Correct answer: A — 45
PIB (PMO): the Rozgar Mela was held at 45 locations across the country.
At the Rozgar Mela of 23 December 2024, the Prime Minister said that around how many permanent government jobs had been offered in the previous one and a half years?
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Correct answer: B — 10 lakh
PIB (PMO): the Prime Minister said that in the last one and a half years, around 10 lakh permanent government jobs had been offered.
To what level did India and Kuwait elevate their bilateral relations during PM Narendra Modi's visit in December 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Strategic Partnership
PIB (PMO) joint statement: the two leaders agreed to elevate the relations between India and Kuwait to a 'Strategic Partnership'.
Which international organisation did Kuwait join as one of the outcomes of PM Modi's visit in December 2024?
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Correct answer: D — International Solar Alliance
PIB (PMO) list of outcomes: Kuwait's membership of the International Solar Alliance (ISA) was one of the outcomes of the visit.
PM Narendra Modi attended the opening ceremony of which sporting event in Kuwait on 21 December 2024 as Guest of Honour of the Amir?
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Correct answer: A — 26th Arabian Gulf Cup
PIB (PMO) joint statement: Prime Minister Modi attended the opening ceremony of the 26th Arabian Gulf Cup in Kuwait on 21 December 2024 as Guest of Honour of the Amir.
Consider the following outcomes of PM Modi's visit to Kuwait in December 2024: 1. An MoU on cooperation in the field of defence. 2. A Cultural Exchange Programme for 2025–2029. 3. A Joint Commission on Cooperation headed by the National Security Advisers of both countries. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB (PMO): statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong because the Joint Commission on Cooperation will be headed by the Foreign Ministers of both countries.
Which award did the Amir of Kuwait confer on PM Narendra Modi on 22 December 2024?
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Correct answer: C — The Order of Mubarak Al-Kabeer
PIB (PMO): the Amir of Kuwait conferred The Order of Mubarak Al-Kabeer, the highest national award of Kuwait, on PM Modi.
In which year was Kuwait's Order of Mubarak Al-Kabeer instituted?
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Correct answer: A — 1974
PIB (PMO): The Order of Mubarak Al-Kabeer was instituted in 1974 and has since been conferred on select global leaders.
PM Modi's visit to Kuwait in December 2024 was the first by an Indian Prime Minister to that country in how many years?
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Correct answer: D — 43 years
PIB (PMO): the award was conferred during the historic visit of a Prime Minister of India to Kuwait after 43 years.
Which team did India beat in the final to win the inaugural Women's T20 U19 Asia Cup on 22 December 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Bangladesh
The Hindu and Sportstar: India beat Bangladesh by 41 runs in the final to win the inaugural Women's U19 T20 Asia Cup.
Who top-scored for India with 52 off 47 balls in the final of the inaugural Women's U19 T20 Asia Cup in December 2024?
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Correct answer: C — G. Trisha
The Hindu and Sportstar: opener G. Trisha scored 52 off 47 balls (five fours, two sixes) as India made 117 for 7.
At which venue was the final of the inaugural Women's U19 T20 Asia Cup played on 22 December 2024?
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Correct answer: D — Bayuemas Oval, Kuala Lumpur
Sportstar and The Hindu: India won the final at the Bayuemas Oval in Kuala Lumpur.
According to the India State of Forest Report 2023, what share of India's geographical area is under forest and tree cover?
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Correct answer: B — 25.17%
PIB (MoEFCC): ISFR 2023 puts India's total forest and tree cover at 8,27,357 sq km, which is 25.17% of the geographical area (forest cover 21.76%, tree cover 3.41%).
As per ISFR 2023, which State/UT has the highest forest cover as a percentage of its geographical area?
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Correct answer: A — Lakshadweep
PIB (MoEFCC): Lakshadweep (91.33%) has the highest forest cover in percentage terms, followed by Mizoram (85.34%) and Andaman & Nicobar Islands (81.62%).
Which State showed the maximum increase in forest cover (242 sq km) in ISFR 2023?
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Correct answer: D — Mizoram
PIB (MoEFCC): the top three States showing maximum increase in forest cover are Mizoram (242 sq km), Gujarat (180 sq km) and Odisha (152 sq km). Chhattisgarh led the increase in combined forest and tree cover (684 sq km).
Consider the following statements about the India State of Forest Report 2023: 1. It is brought out by the Forest Survey of India on a biennial basis since 1987. 2. It is the 18th report in the series. 3. It was released at the Indira Gandhi National Forest Academy, Dehradun. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB (MoEFCC): statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong because ISFR 2023 was released at the Forest Research Institute (FRI), Dehradun.