UKSSSC Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
The 'National Accounts Statistics – 2025' released by MoSPI presents constant-price estimates with which base year?
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Correct answer: D — 2011-12
Estimates are presented at current and constant (2011-12) prices.
Consider the following statements about 'National Accounts Statistics – 2025': 1. It includes Final Estimates for 2022-23 and First Revised Estimates for 2023-24. 2. It was released by the Reserve Bank of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The publication was released by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
As per data released in May 2025, cumulative Aadhaar authentication transactions crossed which milestone by the end of April 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 150 billion
Cumulative Aadhaar authentications crossed 150 billion (15,011.82 crore) by the end of April 2025.
Consider the following statements about Aadhaar usage in April 2025: 1. Aadhaar e-KYC transactions numbered 37.3 crore, about 39.7% more than in April 2024. 2. UIDAI's face authentication recorded around 14 crore transactions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the UIDAI figures released on 16 May 2025.
The first Indian biological experiment planned aboard the ISS, announced in May 2025, will study the effect of microgravity on:
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Correct answer: B — Edible microalgae
The first experiment will examine the impact of microgravity and space radiation on edible microalgae as a sustainable space nutrition source.
Consider the following statements about India's planned space biology experiments (announced May 2025): 1. They will be carried out aboard ISRO's Gaganyaan G1 mission. 2. The second experiment will compare growth of cyanobacteria such as Spirulina in urea- and nitrate-based media. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only statement 2 is correct. The experiments are part of the Axiom-4 mission to the International Space Station, with Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla as a crew member.
How many startups did DPIIT approve for income tax exemption under Section 80-IAC, as announced on 15 May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 187
187 startups were approved: 75 at the 79th and 112 at the 80th IMB meeting. Over 3,700 is the cumulative total.
Under Section 80-IAC of the Income Tax Act, eligible startups can claim:
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Correct answer: D — 100% deduction on profits for any 3 consecutive years within 10 years of incorporation
Eligible startups get a 100% income tax deduction on profits for any three consecutive years within a ten-year window from incorporation.
Consider the following statements about the Section 80-IAC startup tax benefit: 1. Startups incorporated before 1 April 2030 are now eligible to apply. 2. Under DPIIT's revised framework, complete applications are reviewed within 90 days. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. Complete applications are reviewed within 120 days.
The India–EU joint research calls on Marine Plastic Litter and Waste to Green Hydrogen (May 2025) were launched under which mechanism?
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Correct answer: A — India–EU Trade and Technology Council
The calls were launched under the India–EU Trade and Technology Council (TTC), set up in 2022.
Consider the following statements about the India–EU research calls launched in May 2025: 1. They carry a joint investment of ₹391 crore (about €41 million). 2. The India–EU Trade and Technology Council was established in 2022. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The TTC was set up in 2022 by PM Narendra Modi and European Commission President Ursula von der Leyen.
The two India–EU coordinated research calls launched on 15 May 2025 address which areas?
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Correct answer: B — Marine Plastic Litter and Waste to Green Hydrogen
The calls focus on Marine Plastic Litter (MPL) and Waste to Green Hydrogen (W2GH).
Which body wrote to all States and UTs in May 2025 seeking immediate implementation of the Supreme Court's 14 directives against manual scavenging?
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Correct answer: B — National Human Rights Commission
The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) wrote to the Chief Secretaries and Administrators of all States and UTs.
How many directives did the Supreme Court issue in Dr. Balram Singh v. Union of India (2023) to eliminate manual scavenging?
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Correct answer: D — 14
The Supreme Court issued 14 directives in its 2023 judgment.
Consider the following statements regarding the NHRC's May 2025 communication on manual scavenging: 1. It noted the Supreme Court's complete ban announced on 29 January 2025 in six cities including Delhi, Mumbai and Chennai. 2. It sought action taken reports within four weeks. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The NHRC sought action taken reports within eight weeks.
The high-level fisheries review chaired by the Prime Minister on 15 May 2025 focused on:
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Correct answer: A — Fishing in the Exclusive Economic Zone and high seas
The meeting focused on fishing in the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) and the high seas.
Consider the following statements about the PM's fisheries review (15 May 2025): 1. The PM suggested using drones, as per technical protocols, to transport fresh fish to nearby city markets. 2. The PM suggested exploring uses of seaweed for fuel, nutrition and pharmaceuticals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the PMO release.
Who took oath as Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission on 15 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Dr Ajay Kumar
Dr Ajay Kumar, former Defence Secretary, took oath as UPSC Chairman. Lt Gen Raj Shukla (Retd), the senior-most Member, administered the oath.
Consider the following statements about the new UPSC Chairman (May 2025): 1. He is a 1990-batch IAS officer. 2. The oath of office was administered to him by the President of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct. Dr Ajay Kumar is a 1985-batch IAS officer of the Kerala cadre, and the oath was administered by Lt Gen Raj Shukla (Retd), the senior-most Member of the Commission.
As per the PLFS monthly bulletin for April 2025, the unemployment rate (Current Weekly Status, age 15+) was:
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Correct answer: D — 5.1%
The unemployment rate in CWS for persons aged 15 and above was 5.1% in April 2025.
The labour force participation rate (CWS, age 15+) in April 2025, as per the PLFS monthly bulletin, was:
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Correct answer: A — 55.6%
LFPR was 55.6%. 52.8% was the overall WPR, 58.0% rural LFPR and 50.7% urban LFPR.
Consider the following statements about the PLFS bulletin for April 2025: 1. The PLFS sampling methodology was revamped from January 2025. 2. The female unemployment rate was higher than the male unemployment rate. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The male UR (5.2%) was slightly higher than the female UR (5.0%).
Which body revoked the security clearance of M/s Celebi and its associated companies in May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Bureau of Civil Aviation Security
The Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS) revoked the clearance on grounds related to national security.
Consider the following statements about the revocation of Celebi's security clearance (May 2025): 1. It was revoked on grounds related to national security. 2. It was revoked by the Directorate General of Civil Aviation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The clearance was revoked by the Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS).
India's total exports (merchandise and services) in April 2025 were estimated at:
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Correct answer: A — US$ 73.80 billion
Total exports were US$ 73.80 billion. US$ 65.48 billion was the April 2024 figure, US$ 82.45 billion was total imports and US$ 38.49 billion was merchandise exports.
Among the following export categories, which recorded the highest year-on-year growth in April 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Electronic goods
Electronic goods exports grew 39.51%, against 11.28% for engineering goods, 10.74% for gems and jewellery and 2.37% for drugs and pharmaceuticals.
Consider the following statements about India's trade in April 2025: 1. Merchandise exports were US$ 38.49 billion, up 9.02% year-on-year. 2. Total imports (merchandise and services) were estimated at US$ 82.45 billion. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Commerce Ministry's release of 15 May 2025.
Justice Bhushan Ramkrishna Gavai, sworn in on 14 May 2025, is which Chief Justice of India?
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Correct answer: C — 52nd
Justice B.R. Gavai is the 52nd Chief Justice of India; he succeeded Justice Sanjiv Khanna.
Consider the following statements about Chief Justice B.R. Gavai: 1. He succeeded Justice Sanjiv Khanna as Chief Justice of India. 2. He is the second Chief Justice of India from the Scheduled Caste community, after Justice K.G. Balakrishnan. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.
Where was Justice B.R. Gavai sworn in as Chief Justice of India on 14 May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Ganatantra Mandap, Rashtrapati Bhavan
The ceremony was held in the Ganatantra Mandap, Rashtrapati Bhavan, where he took the oath before the President.
Annual WPI-based inflation for April 2025 (provisional) was:
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Correct answer: A — 0.85%
WPI inflation was 0.85% in April 2025. 2.05% was March 2025, 2.45% was February 2025, and -0.19% was the month-on-month change.
Consider the following statements about WPI data for April 2025: 1. The WPI series uses 2011-12 as the base year. 2. Inflation in primary articles was negative. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. Primary articles inflation was -1.44% in April 2025.
All-India CPI-based headline inflation for April 2025 (provisional) was:
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Correct answer: C — 3.16%
Headline CPI inflation was 3.16%. 2.92% was rural inflation and 1.78% was food inflation.
Consider the following statements about CPI data for April 2025: 1. Headline CPI inflation was the lowest year-on-year rate since July 2019. 2. Food inflation (CFPI) was the lowest since October 2021. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per MoSPI's release of 13 May 2025.
The Consumer Price Index released by MoSPI for April 2025 uses which base year?
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Correct answer: D — 2012
The CPI numbers are on base 2012=100.
The MoU signed on 13 May 2025 between ARIES, Nainital and IRDE, Dehradun aims to strengthen India's capabilities in:
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Correct answer: D — Ground-based Space Situational Awareness
The MoU aims to strengthen India's ground-based Space Situational Awareness (SSA), using ARIES observing facilities to monitor space objects.
Consider the following statements: 1. ARIES, Nainital is an autonomous institute of the Department of Science and Technology. 2. IRDE, Dehradun is a laboratory of ISRO. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. IRDE, Dehradun is a DRDO laboratory.
How many vulnerable individuals were screened under the 100-Day TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan, as reviewed by the PM on 13 May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 12.97 crore
12.97 crore vulnerable individuals were screened; 7.19 lakh TB cases were detected, including 2.85 lakh asymptomatic cases.
Consider the following statements about the 100-Day TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan: 1. About 1.297 crore people were screened during the campaign. 2. 7.19 lakh TB cases were detected, including 2.85 lakh asymptomatic cases. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only statement 2 is correct. 12.97 crore vulnerable individuals were screened.
India's Major Ports handled approximately how much cargo in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: B — 855 million tonnes
Major Ports handled about 855 million tonnes in FY 2024-25, up 4.3% from 819 million tonnes in FY 2023-24.
Which commodity group had the largest share of cargo handled at India's Major Ports in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: A — Petroleum, oil and lubricants (POL)
POL led with 254.5 million tonnes (29.8%), followed by containers (193.5 MT) and coal (186.6 MT).
Ayurveda Day will now be observed every year on:
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Correct answer: D — 23 September
Ayurveda Day has been fixed on 23 September every year.
Consider the following statements about the new date for Ayurveda Day: 1. It was notified through a Gazette Notification dated 23 March 2025. 2. Ayurveda Day was earlier observed on Diwali. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. Ayurveda Day was earlier observed on Dhanteras.
The new date chosen for Ayurveda Day, 23 September, coincides with which astronomical event?
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Correct answer: B — Autumnal equinox
23 September coincides with the autumnal equinox, when day and night are nearly equal.
In his address to the nation on 12 May 2025, the Prime Minister said Operation Sindoor was carried out on:
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Correct answer: B — 6–7 May
As per the PIB release, the PM said the pledge of Operation Sindoor was fulfilled on 6-7 May.
In the address of 12 May 2025, the Prime Minister said any talks with Pakistan would focus on:
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Correct answer: C — Terrorism and PoK
The PM said any discussions with Pakistan would focus on terrorism and Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (PoK).
Consider the following statements about the Prime Minister's address of 12 May 2025: 1. One of the three pillars he outlined was no tolerance for nuclear blackmail. 2. He said India had permanently ended its counter-operations against Pakistan. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The PM said India had decided to temporarily suspend its counter-operations and would assess Pakistan's every move.
In his address of 12 May 2025, the Prime Minister referred to the terrorist attack in Pahalgam that took place on:
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Correct answer: D — 22 April
The PM referred to the terrorist attack in Pahalgam on 22 April 2025.
How many Test matches did Virat Kohli play before announcing his retirement from Test cricket on 12 May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 123
Kohli played 123 Tests, scoring 9,230 runs. He captained India in 68 of them.
Consider the following statements about Virat Kohli's Test career: 1. He won 40 of the 68 Tests in which he captained India, the most wins by an Indian Test captain. 2. He scored 30 Test centuries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the ICC and ESPNcricinfo.
How many Test double hundreds did Virat Kohli score, the most by an Indian?
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Correct answer: D — Seven
Kohli made seven Test double hundreds, the most ever by an Indian.
Virat Kohli retired as the fourth-most successful Test captain by wins. Who holds the record for the most Test wins as captain?
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Correct answer: D — Graeme Smith
Graeme Smith leads with 53 wins, followed by Ricky Ponting (48), Steve Waugh (41) and Kohli (40).
What was the theme of International Nurses Day 2025, chosen by the International Council of Nurses?
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Correct answer: A — Our Nurses. Our Future. Caring for nurses strengthens economies
The IND 2025 theme was 'Our Nurses. Our Future. Caring for nurses strengthens economies'. 'The Economic Power of Care' was the 2024 theme.
According to the State of the World's Nursing 2025 report, the global stock of nurses in 2023 was:
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Correct answer: B — 29.8 million
The global stock was 29.8 million in 2023 (27.9 million in 2018). 36 million is the 2030 projection; 5.8 million is the 2023 shortage.
Consider the following statements about the State of the World's Nursing 2025 report: 1. The global nursing shortage was 5.8 million in 2023 and is projected to fall to 4.1 million by 2030. 2. About 49% of the world's nurses are in countries that have 78% of the world's population. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. It is the reverse: about 78% of nurses are in countries with only 49% of the world's population.
The MoU signed between C-DOT and Synergy Quantum India in May 2025 is for developing Quantum Key Distribution systems suited for deployment on:
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Correct answer: D — Drones
The MoU covers development of drone-based Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) systems.
Consider the following statements about the C-DOT–Synergy Quantum MoU (May 2025): 1. C-DOT is an R&D institution under the Ministry of Electronics and IT. 2. The QKD systems are to be developed at Technology Readiness Level 6 or above. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only statement 2 is correct. C-DOT is under the Department of Telecommunications (Ministry of Communications).
The theme of National Technology Day 2025, 'YANTRA', stands for:
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Correct answer: D — Yugantar for Advancing New Technology, Research & Acceleration
The TDB-DST theme was 'YANTRA – Yugantar for Advancing New Technology, Research & Acceleration'.
Consider the following statements about National Technology Day: 1. It commemorates the Pokhran nuclear tests of 1998. 2. The 2025 theme was unveiled by the Technology Development Board under the Department of Science and Technology. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.
National Technology Day, observed on 11 May, marks the Pokhran tests conducted in which year?
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Correct answer: C — 1998
It marks the Pokhran tests of 1998 and was first celebrated that year.
As per the Foreign Secretary's statement of 10 May 2025, from what time were both sides to stop all firing and military action?
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Correct answer: C — 1700 hours IST
Both sides were to stop all firing and military action from 1700 hours IST on 10 May 2025; the call itself was at 1535 hours.
Consider the following statements about the Foreign Secretary's statement of 10 May 2025: 1. The DGMO of Pakistan called the DGMO of India at 1535 hours IST. 2. The DGMOs were to talk again on 11 May at 1700 hours. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. The DGMOs were to talk again on 12 May at 1200 hours, so statement 2 is wrong.
The understanding announced on 10 May 2025 covered stopping firing and military action in which domains?
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Correct answer: D — Land, air and sea
The statement said both sides would stop all firing and military action on land and in the air and sea.
As per the release of 10 May 2025, how many airports were temporarily closed to civil flight operations under the NOTAMs?
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Correct answer: A — 32
32 airports across northern and western India were closed for civil flights from 9 to 14 May 2025; 25 was the number of ATS route segments.
Consider the following statements: 1. AAI extended the temporary closure of 25 ATS route segments within the Delhi and Mumbai Flight Information Regions. 2. The route segments were to remain unavailable until 2359 UTC on 14 May 2025, which corresponds to 0529 IST on 15 May 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Ministry of Civil Aviation release.
NOTAM G0555/25 on the closure of ATS route segments replaced which earlier NOTAM?
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Correct answer: D — G0525/25
As per NOTAM G0555/25 (which replaces G0525/25), the 25 route segments remained unavailable until 2359 UTC on 14 May 2025.
What was the theme of World Migratory Bird Day 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Shared Spaces: Creating Bird-Friendly Cities and Communities
The 2025 theme was 'Shared Spaces: Creating Bird-Friendly Cities and Communities'.
Consider the following statements: 1. World Migratory Bird Day is observed twice a year; in 2025 it fell on 10 May and 11 October. 2. The Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) entered into force in 1993. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. CMS entered into force in 1979 and has 133 Parties.
According to CMS, what share of all bird species globally is in decline?
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Correct answer: B — 49%
Globally 49% of bird species are in decline; 55% and 68% are the UN figures for the share of people in urban areas now and by 2050.
Whom did Madhura Dhamangaonkar beat in the women's compound final at the Archery World Cup Stage 2, Shanghai, on 10 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Carson Krahe
She beat USA's Carson Krahe 139–138 in the final; Hazal Burun was her semi-final opponent and Jyothi Surekha Vennam her quarter-final opponent.
What was the score in Madhura Dhamangaonkar's winning final?
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Correct answer: D — 139–138
She won the final 139–138; 143–141 was her semi-final score and 232–228 the men's team final score.
Consider the following statements about India at the Archery World Cup Stage 2, Shanghai: 1. The men's compound team of Abhishek Verma, Rishabh Yadav and Ojas Deotale beat Mexico 232–228 in the final. 2. Madhura Dhamangaonkar also won women's team silver and compound mixed team bronze with Abhishek Verma. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.
Which compound archery event is set to mark compound archery's Olympic debut at LA 2028?
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Correct answer: A — Mixed team
The compound mixed team event will feature at LA 2028, marking compound archery's Olympic debut.
As reported by India at UNFF20, what share of India's geographical area is under forest and tree cover?
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Correct answer: C — 25.17%
India reported forest and tree cover of 25.17% of its geographical area as per the latest India State of Forest Report.
Consider the following statements about India at UNFF20: 1. India invited all UN Member States to join the International Big Cat Alliance. 2. India recalled the Country-Led Initiative it hosted in Dehradun in October 2023. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct; the Dehradun initiative focused on forest fire management and forest certification.
On which date were PMJJBY, PMSBY and Atal Pension Yojana launched?
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Correct answer: A — 9 May 2015
The three Jan Suraksha schemes were launched by PM Narendra Modi on 9 May 2015.
Which Jan Suraksha scheme had over 51 crore cumulative enrolments as on 23 April 2025?
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Correct answer: C — PMSBY
PMSBY had over 51.06 crore enrolments; PMJJBY had over 23.63 crore and APY over 7.66 crore.
Consider the following statements (data as on 23 April 2025): 1. More than 7.66 crore individuals had subscribed to the Atal Pension Yojana. 2. ₹3,121.02 crore had been paid under PMJJBY. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. ₹3,121.02 crore was paid under PMSBY; PMJJBY payouts were ₹18,397.92 crore.
After the expansion notified in May 2025, what is the ceiling on guarantee cover per borrower under the Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups?
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Correct answer: C — ₹20 crore
The ceiling was raised from ₹10 crore to ₹20 crore.
Consider the following statements about the expanded CGSS: 1. Guarantee cover is 85% of the amount in default for loans up to ₹10 crore. 2. The Annual Guarantee Fee for startups in Champion Sectors was raised to 2% per annum. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The Annual Guarantee Fee for Champion Sectors was reduced from 2% to 1% per annum.
The reduced Annual Guarantee Fee under the expanded CGSS applies to startups in how many Champion Sectors?
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Correct answer: D — 27
The fee was cut to 1% for startups in 27 Champion Sectors identified under 'Make in India'.