UKSSSC Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
On which date did the Income-tax Act, 2025 receive the President's assent?
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Correct answer: C — 21 August 2025
The Finance Ministry said the Bill was passed by Parliament on 12 August 2025 and received assent on 21 August 2025; the Rules were notified on 20 March 2026 and the Act came into force on 1 April 2026.
Consider the following statements about the Income-tax Act, 2025: 1. It replaces the Income-tax Act, 1961. 2. It alters the underlying tax policy to introduce new tax rates. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The ministry said the Act simplifies the law without altering the underlying tax policy.
Which body notified the Income-tax Rules, 2026 to operationalise the Income-tax Act, 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Central Board of Direct Taxes
The Income-tax Rules, 2026 were notified by the Central Board of Direct Taxes on 20 March 2026.
On which date was the Reserve Bank of India established?
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Correct answer: A — 1 April 1935
The RBI says it was established on 1 April 1935 under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
Consider the following statements about the Reserve Bank of India: 1. Its Central Office was initially established in Kolkata and moved permanently to Mumbai in 1937. 2. It has been fully owned by the Government of India since its nationalisation in 1949. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the RBI's 'About Us' page.
The Reserve Bank of India was established in accordance with the provisions of which Act?
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Correct answer: B — Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
The RBI was established under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
Under the concessional customs duty notified on 1 April 2026, SEZ units can clear goods to the Domestic Tariff Area up to what limit?
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Correct answer: C — 30% of the highest annual FOB export value in the preceding three years
The cap is 30% of the highest annual free-on-board export value achieved in any of the three immediately preceding financial years.
What minimum value addition within the SEZ is required to avail the concessional duty on SEZ-to-DTA clearances?
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Correct answer: B — 20%
The notification prescribes a minimum 20% value addition within the SEZ.
Who assumed the appointment of Vice Chief of the Army Staff on 1 April 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Lt Gen Dhiraj Seth
The Ministry of Defence said Lt Gen Dhiraj Seth assumed the appointment of VCOAS on 1 April 2026.
Who took over as General Officer Commanding-in-Chief, Eastern Command, from Lt Gen RC Tiwari in April 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Lt Gen VMB Krishnan
Lt Gen VMB Krishnan, previously Quarter Master General, took over Eastern Command from Lt Gen RC Tiwari.
Who assumed command of the Army's Southern Command on 1 April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Lt Gen Sandeep Jain
Lt Gen Sandeep Jain succeeded Lt Gen Dhiraj Seth as GOC-in-C, Southern Command.
What capital outlay for the Defence Services did the Ministry of Defence fully utilise in FY 2025-26 (Revised Estimates)?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1.86 lakh crore
The ministry fully utilised ₹1.86 lakh crore at the RE stage; ₹1.80 lakh crore was the original appropriation.
What was the overall utilisation of the defence budget, including MoD (civil) and pensions, in FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: A — 99.62%
The ministry said overall utilisation stood at 99.62% against the final allocation.
How many Advance Pricing Agreements (APAs) did the CBDT sign in FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: C — 219
The CBDT entered into a record 219 APAs in FY 2025-26 (174 in the previous year and 125 the year before).
With which of the following countries did India sign its first-ever bilateral APA in FY 2025-26?
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Correct answer: D — Sweden
FY 2025-26 saw India's first-ever bilateral APAs with France, Ireland, Indonesia and Sweden.
Consider the following statements about India's APA programme (as of March 2026): 1. The total number of APAs since inception is 1,034. 2. Bilateral APAs outnumber unilateral APAs in the total. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The total is 1,034 APAs, comprising 750 unilateral and 284 bilateral APAs, so unilateral APAs are more.
Which team became the 48th and final team to qualify for the FIFA World Cup 2026, on 31 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Iraq
Iraq beat Bolivia 2-1 at Monterrey to become the 48th and final team to qualify.
The FIFA World Cup 2026, the first with 48 teams, is hosted jointly by:
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Correct answer: A — USA, Canada and Mexico
The 48-team FIFA World Cup 2026 will be played in Canada, Mexico and the United States.
Which of the following European teams failed to qualify for the FIFA World Cup 2026 after losing in the play-off finals on 31 March 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Italy
Bosnia and Herzegovina, Czechia, Sweden and Türkiye qualified through the play-off finals, while Italy missed out.
From 1 April 2026, CBIC removed which value cap per consignment on courier exports?
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Correct answer: B — ₹10 lakh
The existing ₹10 lakh value limit per consignment for courier exports was completely removed from 1 April 2026.
Under CBIC's new Return to Origin (RTO) mechanism, uncleared courier imports will be returned after how many days?
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Correct answer: C — 15 days
Uncleared courier imports beyond 15 days are to be returned through a simplified RTO process.
In March 2026 the Ministry of Defence signed a contract worth about ₹1,950 crore with BEL for which equipment for the IAF?
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Correct answer: B — Two Mountain Radars
The contract is for procurement of two Mountain Radars with associated equipment and infrastructure for the IAF, at about ₹1,950 crore.
The Mountain Radar ordered for the IAF in March 2026 was designed and developed by which DRDO laboratory?
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Correct answer: C — Electronics & Radar Development Establishment
The Mountain Radar is indigenously designed and developed by the Electronics & Radar Development Establishment of DRDO.
India leads the world in issuing Internationally Recognized Certificates of Compliance (IRCCs) under which international agreement?
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Correct answer: B — Nagoya Protocol
India is the global leader in issuing IRCCs under the Nagoya Protocol on Access and Benefit-sharing.
As reported in March 2026, which country is second after India in the number of IRCCs issued under the Nagoya Protocol?
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Correct answer: A — France
India (3,561) is followed by France with 964 certificates, then Spain (320) and Argentina (257).
Consider the following statements: 1. India accounts for over 56% of all IRCCs issued worldwide under the Nagoya Protocol. 2. All 142 countries registered on the ABS Clearing-House have issued IRCCs. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
India has issued 3,561 of 6,311 IRCCs (over 56%); of the 142 registered countries, only 34 have issued IRCCs.
From which date did the first phase of Census 2027 begin, as announced on 30 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 1 April 2026
The Registrar General said the first phase of Census 2027 would begin from 1 April 2026.
Census 2027 is which census in India's series, and which since Independence?
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Correct answer: B — 16th in series, 8th since Independence
Census 2027 will be the 16th in the series and the 8th since Independence; the last census was in 2011.
What is the reference date of Census 2027 for most of India?
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Correct answer: C — 00:00 hours, 1 March 2027
The reference date is 00:00 hours of 1 March 2027; for Ladakh, snow-bound J&K, Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh it is 1 October 2026.
Consider the following statements about Census 2027: 1. It is the first census in India to be conducted digitally, with a self-enumeration option. 2. Enumeration of castes will be done during the first phase (House Listing). 3. The self-enumeration portal and mobile app are available in 16 languages. Which of the above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
Census 2027 is the first digital census with self-enumeration, available in 16 languages; caste enumeration will be done in the second phase (Population Enumeration), not the first.
The 14th Ministerial Conference (MC14) of the WTO, which concluded on 30 March 2026, was held in:
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Correct answer: A — Yaoundé, Cameroon
MC14 was held in Yaoundé, Cameroon, and concluded on 30 March 2026.
Who led the Indian delegation at the WTO's MC14?
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Correct answer: D — Piyush Goyal
Union Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal led the Indian delegation to MC14.
At MC14, India did not agree to incorporating which agreement into the WTO framework as an Annex 4 agreement?
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Correct answer: A — Investment Facilitation for Development Agreement
India did not agree to incorporation of the Investment Facilitation for Development (IFD) Agreement as an Annex 4 agreement.
Consider the following statements about the outcomes of WTO MC14: 1. Members reached convergence on extending the moratorium on customs duties on electronic transmissions. 2. Ministers agreed to continue fisheries subsidies negotiations with the aim of making recommendations to MC15. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Convergence could not be reached on the e-commerce moratorium; ministers agreed to continue fisheries subsidies negotiations aiming at recommendations to MC15.
What was India's IIP growth rate for February 2026 as per the Quick Estimate released on 30 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 5.2%
IIP grew 5.2% in February 2026 (4.8% in January 2026); manufacturing grew 6.0% and mining 3.1%.
Which of the three IIP sectors recorded the lowest growth in February 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Electricity
Growth in February 2026: mining 3.1%, manufacturing 6.0%, electricity 2.3% – electricity was the lowest.
Chandrikapersad Santokhi, who died on 30 March 2026, was a former President of which country?
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Correct answer: D — Suriname
Santokhi was President of Suriname from 2020 to 2025; he died on 30 March 2026 aged 67.
Recalling former Suriname President Chandrikapersad Santokhi, PM Modi noted that he had taken his oath of office in which language?
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Correct answer: A — Sanskrit
PM Modi recalled that Santokhi won many hearts when he took his oath in Sanskrit.
Under the Mineral (Auction) Second Amendment Rules, 2026, a non-feasible portion of a mineral block can be excluded if it contains less than what share of the block's estimated mineral resources?
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Correct answer: C — 25%
The rules allow exclusion of non-feasible portions holding less than 25% of the block's total estimated resources.
Consider the following statements about the Mineral (Auction) Second Amendment Rules, 2026: 1. For blocks auctioned after 30 March 2026, the additional two-year period for executing a mining lease is available to all blocks regardless of forest land. 2. A unified mining portal will issue the letter of intent automatically on receipt of the first instalment of upfront payment and/or performance security. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The extra two years beyond the initial three is now allowed only for blocks involving forest land.
On which date did the Ministry of Mines notify the Mineral (Auction) Second Amendment Rules, 2026?
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Correct answer: D — 30 March 2026
The rules were notified on 30 March 2026; the previous amendment to the Auction Rules was on 17 October 2025, and the MMDR Amendment Act, 2025 took effect on 1 September 2025.
Under the Mineral Concession (Second Amendment) Rules, 2026, the one-time addition of contiguous area to a mining lease for deep-seated minerals cannot exceed what share of the existing area?
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Correct answer: A — 10%
The Ministry of Mines said the contiguous area cannot exceed 10% for a mining lease and 30% for a composite licence.
Consider the following statements about the Mineral Concession (Second Amendment) Rules, 2026: 1. State governments must permit inclusion of an associated mineral in a mining lease within 30 days of the application. 2. Future mining leases for minor minerals other than sand will be granted only after exploration up to G3 level. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Ministry of Mines release.
On 30 March 2026, how many more proposals were approved under the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme (ECMS)?
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Correct answer: B — 29
MeitY approved 29 more proposals under ECMS, after 46 applications approved earlier.
The ECMS approvals of 30 March 2026 include India's first facility for which of the following?
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Correct answer: C — Rare earth permanent magnets
The approvals include India's first SMD passive plant for tantalum capacitors, first flexible PCB plant and first rare earth permanent magnet facility.
The 29 ECMS proposals approved on 30 March 2026 are expected to generate how many direct jobs?
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Correct answer: B — 14,246
The approvals are expected to generate 14,246 direct jobs, with projected investment of ₹7,104 crore and production of ₹84,515 crore.
Which agency conducted the competitive bidding for supply of green ammonia to fertiliser units under the National Green Hydrogen Mission?
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Correct answer: D — Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI)
SECI conducted competitive bidding for the supply of green ammonia to fertiliser units under the SIGHT programme.
About how much green ammonia per annum was allocated to the fertiliser sector under the agreements exchanged on 30 March 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 7.24 lakh tonnes
Minister J P Nadda said about 7.24 lakh tonnes per annum of green ammonia had been allocated.
Consider the following statements about the National Green Hydrogen Mission: 1. Its outlay is ₹19,744 crore. 2. It targets production of at least 5 MMT of green hydrogen per annum by 2030. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The Mission has an outlay of ₹19,744 crore and targets at least 5 MMT of green hydrogen per annum by 2030.
The Gyan Bharatam Survey, highlighted in the 132nd Mann Ki Baat on 29 March 2026, collects information about:
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Correct answer: D — Manuscripts
The PM said the objective of the Gyan Bharatam Survey is to collect information about manuscripts across the country, through the Gyan Bharatam App.
According to the PM in Mann Ki Baat (March 2026), about how many artificial water harvesting structures have been created under the Jal Sanchay Abhiyan?
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Correct answer: C — 50 lakh
Nearly 50 lakh artificial water harvesting structures have been created under the Jal Sanchay Abhiyan; nearly 70,000 Amrit Sarovars have been built.
Chizami village, praised in Mann Ki Baat for women preserving over 150 traditional seed varieties in a community seed bank, is in which state?
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Correct answer: A — Nagaland
The PM cited Chizami village in Nagaland, where women preserve over 150 varieties of traditional seeds.
Match the place with its mention in Mann Ki Baat (29 March 2026): 1. Wangmun – a. Seed bank run by women 2. Chizami – b. Rooftop rainwater harvesting in Jampui Hills Which is the correct match?
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Correct answer: B — 1-b, 2-a
Wangmun village in Tripura's Jampui Hills adopted rooftop rainwater harvesting; Chizami village in Nagaland has a women-run community seed bank.
Which Indian athlete, mentioned in Mann Ki Baat in March 2026, became the first Indian to complete a half marathon in under an hour?
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Correct answer: B — Gulveer Singh
The PM said Gulveer Singh of Uttar Pradesh finished third in the New York City Half Marathon and became the first Indian to complete a half marathon in under an hour.
Who won the men's singles title at the Miami Open 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Jannik Sinner
Jannik Sinner beat Jiri Lehecka 6-4, 6-4 in the Miami Open final on 29 March 2026.
The tennis 'Sunshine Double' refers to winning which two tournaments in the same season?
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Correct answer: A — Indian Wells and Miami Open
The Sunshine Double means winning Indian Wells followed by Miami in the same season.
Before Jannik Sinner in 2026, who was the last man to complete the Sunshine Double?
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Correct answer: D — Roger Federer, 2017
The last male player to complete the double before Sinner was Roger Federer in 2017.
Consider the following statements about the Miami Open 2026 final: 1. Jannik Sinner defeated Jiri Lehecka of Czechia in straight sets. 2. Sinner became the eighth man to win both Indian Wells and Miami in the same season. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Sinner won 6-4, 6-4 against Czech Jiri Lehecka and became the eighth man to complete the Indian Wells–Miami double.
The India-UK Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement (CETA), reviewed at a meeting on the sidelines of WTO MC14, was signed in:
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Correct answer: C — July 2025
The India-UK CETA was signed in July 2025 by PM Narendra Modi and PM Keir Starmer.
With which country's trade minister did Piyush Goyal discuss expediting 'CEPA' negotiations on the sidelines of WTO MC14 in March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Canada
Goyal's meeting with Canada's Minister of International Trade Maninder Sidhu focused on expediting the recently launched India-Canada CEPA negotiations.
Who is the EU Trade Commissioner whom Piyush Goyal met at WTO MC14 in March 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Maroš Šefčovič
Goyal held a bilateral meeting with EU Trade Commissioner Maroš Šefčovič on the sidelines of MC14.
Whom did Aryna Sabalenka defeat in the Miami Open 2026 women's singles final?
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Correct answer: C — Coco Gauff
Sabalenka beat Coco Gauff 6-2, 4-6, 6-3 in the final on 28 March 2026.
By winning Indian Wells and Miami in 2026, Aryna Sabalenka became the first player to complete the 'Sunshine Double' since:
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Correct answer: D — Iga Swiatek, 2022
She became the first player to complete the Sunshine Double since Iga Swiatek in 2022.
Consider the following statements: 1. Aryna Sabalenka is only the fifth woman to complete the Sunshine Double. 2. The Miami Open 2026 was Sabalenka's first title at Miami. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
She is the fifth woman to complete the double. Miami 2026 was her second straight Miami title – she was the defending champion.
Under the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar, the 'Vigyan Yuva–Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar' award is meant for scientists up to what age?
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Correct answer: C — 45 years
Vigyan Yuva–SSB encourages young scientists up to 45 years of age.
The Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar is administered by the RVP Secretariat located at which body?
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Correct answer: A — CSIR
The awards are administered by the RVP Secretariat, CSIR, under the chairmanship of the Principal Scientific Adviser.
Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar 2026: 1. Self-nominations are allowed. 2. The 'Vigyan Team' award is given to teams of three or more researchers. 3. The awards are given in five categories. Which of the above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
Self-nominations are open, and Vigyan Team is for teams of three or more. There are four categories: Vigyan Ratna, Vigyan Shri, Vigyan Yuva–SSB and Vigyan Team.
Who chaired the first meeting of the Informal Group of Ministers (IGoM) on the West Asia situation on 28 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Rajnath Singh
Raksha Mantri Rajnath Singh chaired the first IGoM meeting at Kartavya Bhawan-2, New Delhi.
Where was the first meeting of the IGoM on the West Asia situation held?
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Correct answer: A — Kartavya Bhawan-2, New Delhi
The meeting was held at Kartavya Bhawan-2, New Delhi, on 28 March 2026.
Who was sworn in as the Prime Minister of Nepal on 27 March 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Balendra Shah
Balendra (Balen) Shah of the Rastriya Swatantra Party was sworn in by President Ramchandra Paudel.
Balendra Shah, who became Nepal's Prime Minister in March 2026, belongs to which party?
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Correct answer: B — Rastriya Swatantra Party
Shah is a senior leader of the Rastriya Swatantra Party (RSP), which won 182 of 275 seats on 5 March 2026.
Consider the following statements about Nepal's new Prime Minister Balendra Shah: 1. He was earlier the Mayor of Kathmandu. 2. He defeated K. P. Sharma Oli in Jhapa-5. 3. He is the first Prime Minister of Nepal from the Madhesi community. Which of the above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
Shah was Kathmandu mayor from May 2022 to January 2026, won Jhapa-5 defeating Oli, and is the first Madhesi PM.
By how much did the Centre cut excise duty on petrol and diesel on 27 March 2026?
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Correct answer: A — ₹10 per litre
Excise duty was reduced by ₹10 per litre on both petrol and diesel with immediate effect.
Consider the following statements about the excise duty cut of 27 March 2026: 1. Retail pump prices of petrol and diesel were reduced by the same amount. 2. The cut offsets part of the under-recoveries of public sector oil marketing companies. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Retail pump prices did not change. The reduction directly reduces the under-recoveries absorbed by IOCL, BPCL and HPCL.
According to the government (March 2026), international crude prices had risen in about a month from roughly USD 70 per barrel to around:
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Correct answer: B — USD 122
Crude rose from approximately USD 70 to around USD 122 per barrel – nearly 75% in under four weeks.
The Defence Acquisition Council on 27 March 2026 granted Acceptance of Necessity for proposals worth about:
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Correct answer: C — ₹2.38 lakh crore
The DAC granted AoN for proposals worth about ₹2.38 lakh crore. ₹6.73 lakh crore is the total AoN for FY 2025-26.
The Medium Transport Aircraft cleared by the DAC in March 2026 are meant to replace which IAF transport fleets?
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Correct answer: D — AN-32 and IL-76
The Medium Transport Aircraft will replace the transport fleet of AN-32 and IL-76.
Match the service with the item cleared by the DAC on 27 March 2026: 1. Indian Army – a. Heavy Duty Air Cushion Vehicles 2. Indian Air Force – b. Dhanush Gun System 3. Indian Coast Guard – c. S-400 missile system
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Correct answer: A — 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
Dhanush Gun System was cleared for the Army, S-400 for the Air Force and Heavy Duty Air Cushion Vehicles for the Coast Guard.
According to the PLFS Annual Report 2025, the unemployment rate (usual status, age 15+) in 2025 was:
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Correct answer: B — 3.1%
The unemployment rate in usual status (ps+ss) for persons aged 15+ was 3.1% for both men and women in 2025.
As per PLFS 2025, the youth (15–29 years) unemployment rate in usual status declined to:
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Correct answer: B — 9.9%
Youth unemployment fell to 9.9% in 2025 from 10.3% in 2024. 8.3% is rural youth and 13.6% urban youth.
Consider the following findings of the PLFS Annual Report 2025: 1. Female LFPR (age 15+) was 40.0%. 2. The share of regular wage/salaried workers declined compared to 2024. 3. The share of self-employed persons fell to 56.2%. Which of the above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
Female LFPR was 40.0% and self-employment fell to 56.2%. Regular wage/salaried share rose to 23.6% from 22.4%, so statement 2 is wrong.
The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026 proposes to amend how many provisions of Central Acts?
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Correct answer: D — 784
It proposes amending 784 provisions of 79 Central Acts, of which 717 are to be decriminalised.
Who chaired the Select Committee that examined the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Tejasvi Surya
The Select Committee chaired by Tejasvi Surya held 49 sittings and reported on 13 March 2026.
Consider the following statements: 1. The Jan Vishwas Act, 2023 decriminalised 183 provisions in 42 Central Acts. 2. The Jan Vishwas Bill, 2026 was introduced in the Rajya Sabha. 3. The 2026 Bill proposes replacing imprisonment for minor defaults with monetary penalties or warnings. Which of the above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
The 2023 Act decriminalised 183 provisions in 42 Acts, and the 2026 Bill replaces imprisonment with penalties or warnings. It was introduced in the Lok Sabha, not the Rajya Sabha.
Kavach, reviewed by the Railway Minister in March 2026, is India's indigenous:
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Correct answer: A — Automatic Train Protection system
Kavach is the indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system of Indian Railways.
What is 'SURAKSHA', announced in the March 2026 Kavach review?
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Correct answer: B — An AI-based centralised monitoring platform for Kavach
SURAKSHA is being developed as an AI-based centralised Operations Management System for real-time monitoring and predictive maintenance of Kavach.
As of March 2026, Kavach had been installed on approximately how many route kilometres?
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Correct answer: B — 3,103
Kavach has been installed on 3,103 route km; work is in progress on 24,427 route km, and 1,638 route km are commissioned under version 4.0.