State PSC Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
According to the Ministry of Textiles (October 2025), what was the size of India's textiles and clothing market in 2024?
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Correct answer: B — $179 billion
PIB (Ministry of Textiles): India's textiles and clothing market was $179 billion in 2024, growing at an average annual rate of over 7%; domestic demand is expected to reach $250 billion by 2030.
With the Swadeshi Campaign and other initiatives, the Ministry of Textiles expects India's total domestic textile demand to reach what level by 2030?
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Correct answer: C — $250 billion
PIB: the Ministry expects domestic demand to grow at a CAGR of 9–10% a year to reach a total domestic textile demand of $250 billion by 2030.
'Mhaje Ghar Yojana', launched by Amit Shah on 4 October 2025 to grant home ownership rights to people caught in legal disputes, is a scheme of which State government?
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Correct answer: A — Goa
PIB (MHA): Amit Shah launched the Goa State Government's 'Mhaje Ghar Yojana', granting ownership rights to citizens entangled in nearly 11 types of legal disputes, along with 21 projects worth ₹2,452 crore.
What period of authorisation has TRAI recommended for digital radio broadcasting by private broadcasters (October 2025)?
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Correct answer: B — 15 years
PIB (TRAI): the period of authorisation for digital radio broadcasting should be 15 years.
Consider the following statements about TRAI's October 2025 recommendations on digital radio: 1. New broadcasters should start digital radio in simulcast mode, allowing one analog, three digital and one data channel on the assigned frequency. 2. Frequencies for new channels should be assigned by auction under Section 4(4) of the Telecommunications Act, 2023. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB (TRAI): digital radio should commence in simulcast mode (one analog, three digital and one data channel on the assigned spot frequency), and frequencies for new channels should be assigned by auction in accordance with Section 4(4) of the Telecommunications Act, 2023.
TRAI has recommended an authorisation fee of what share of Adjusted Gross Revenue (AGR) for digital radio in 'A+' and 'A' category cities?
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Correct answer: A — 4%
PIB (TRAI): authorisation fee is 4% of AGR for cities of category 'A+', 'A', 'B', 'C' and 'D'; for 'Others' (border/hilly areas of NE, J&K, Ladakh and island territories) and 'E' category, 2% of AGR for the first 3 years.
What penalty did the CCPA impose on Drishti IAS in October 2025 for misleading UPSC CSE 2022 results advertisements?
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Correct answer: C — ₹5 lakh
PIB (Department of Consumer Affairs): CCPA imposed a penalty of ₹5 lakh on Drishti IAS (VDK Eduventures Pvt. Ltd.) for misleading ads claiming '216+ selections in UPSC CSE 2022'.
Under which section of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 is 'misleading advertisement' defined, as cited by the CCPA in the Drishti IAS case?
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Correct answer: B — Section 2(28)
PIB: concealing the courses taken by successful candidates was held to be a misleading advertisement under Section 2(28) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019; Section 2(9) (consumer rights) was cited for the right to make an informed choice.
The Sabar Dairy plant inaugurated by Amit Shah on 3 October 2025, built at about ₹350 crore, is located in which city?
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Correct answer: A — Rohtak
PIB (Ministry of Cooperation): Amit Shah inaugurated the Sabar Dairy Plant in Rohtak, Haryana, built at about ₹350 crore, with daily output including 150 tonnes of curd and 3 lakh litres of buttermilk.
Consider the following statements made by the Union Cooperation Minister at Rohtak on 3 October 2025: 1. India's milk processing capacity is currently 66 million litres per day. 2. The target is to raise milk processing capacity to 100 million litres per day by 2028–29. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: today the country's milk processing capacity is 66 million litres per day, targeted to reach 100 million litres per day by 2028–29.
The first paper in NITI Aayog's Tax Policy Working Paper Series–I (October 2025) deals with which issue?
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Correct answer: C — Permanent Establishment and profit attribution for foreign investors
PIB (NITI Aayog): the first working paper is titled 'Enhancing Tax Certainty in Permanent Establishment and Profit Attribution for Foreign Investors in India'.
NITI Aayog's October 2025 working paper on Permanent Establishment recommends introducing which of the following for foreign companies?
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Correct answer: D — An optional, industry-specific Presumptive Taxation Scheme
PIB (NITI Aayog): the paper recommends an optional, industry-specific Presumptive Taxation Scheme for foreign companies, with legislative clarity, administrative efficiency and robust dispute resolution; it was prepared under NITI's Consultative Group on Tax Policy.
The Adi Karmayogi Abhiyan, under which Tribal Village Vision 2030 declarations were passed, was formally inaugurated by the PM on 17 September 2025 at which place?
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Correct answer: B — Dhar
PIB (Ministry of Tribal Affairs): the Adi Karmayogi Abhiyan was formally inaugurated by the Prime Minister on 17 September 2025 at Dhar, Madhya Pradesh.
The Government has declared which period as 'Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh'?
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Correct answer: D — 15 November 2024 to 15 November 2025
PIB (Ministry of Tribal Affairs): the Government of India has declared 15 November 2024 to 15 November 2025 as Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh; the Adi Karmayogi Abhiyan was launched as part of it.
Consider the following statements about the Tribal Village Vision 2030 initiative: 1. The declarations were passed by tribal villages and tolas in Special Gram Sabhas on 2 October 2025. 2. Under 'Adi Sewa Samay', villagers contribute one hour per week of voluntary service at Adi Sewa Kendras. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB: tribal villages and tolas passed the Tribal Village Vision 2030 Declaration in Special Gram Sabhas on 2 October 2025; Adi Sewa Kendras serve as single-window centres, with villagers contributing 1 hour per week of voluntary service (Adi Sewa Samay).
What is the total length of the Mumbai–Ahmedabad High-Speed Rail (bullet train) corridor?
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Correct answer: B — 508 km
PIB (Ministry of Railways): the Mumbai–Ahmedabad Bullet Train corridor is 508 km long; by September 2025, 323 km of viaduct had been completed.
Hiromasa Nakano, who visited the bullet train sites with Ashwini Vaishnaw on 3 October 2025, holds which portfolio in Japan?
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Correct answer: D — Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism
PIB: Japan's Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport & Tourism, H.E. Hiromasa Nakano, visited the Surat and Mumbai HSR sites with Union Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw.
Consider the following statements about the Mumbai–Ahmedabad HSR project (status as of September–October 2025): 1. 323 km of viaduct had been completed. 2. The Bandra Kurla Complex (BKC) station is being built as an elevated station. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: 323 km of viaduct had been completed by September 2025. The BKC station is an underground facility, with excavation over 30 metres deep and about 84% complete.
The Swasth Nari Sashakt Parivar Abhiyaan (17 September–2 October 2025) was jointly led by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and which other ministry?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Women and Child Development
PIB (MoHFW): the Abhiyaan was jointly led by the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare and the Ministry of Women & Child Development.
Consider the following statements about the Swasth Nari Sashakt Parivar Abhiyaan: 1. Over 18 lakh health camps were held under it. 2. It registered a footfall of nearly 10 crore citizens. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB (MoHFW): by 2 October 2025, over 18 lakh (18,08,071) health camps were held, registering a footfall of nearly 10 crore (9,85,63,619) citizens and benefiting more than 6.5 crore women.
How many eligible Village Councils in Mizoram benefit from the XV Finance Commission untied grants released in October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 808
PIB (MoPR): the second instalment of ₹14.40 crore for 2025–26 plus a withheld ₹0.1209 crore for 2023–24 will benefit all 808 eligible Village Councils in Mizoram.
Consider the following statements about XV Finance Commission grants to rural local bodies: 1. The Ministry of Panchayati Raj and the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation recommend the release, and the Ministry of Finance releases the grants in two instalments in a financial year. 2. Untied grants can be used for location-specific felt needs under the 29 subjects listed in the Eleventh Schedule. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB (MoPR): MoPR and the Ministry of Jal Shakti (DDWS) recommend XV FC grants for RLBs/PRIs, which the Ministry of Finance releases in two instalments a year; untied grants are for location-specific felt needs under the 29 subjects in the Eleventh Schedule.
On 3 October 2025, envoys of four nations presented credentials to President Droupadi Murmu. Which of the following countries was NOT among them?
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Correct answer: D — Croatia
PIB (President's Secretariat): the President accepted credentials from the envoys of Mauritania, Luxembourg, Canada and Slovenia. Croatia was not among them.
In October 2025, the last date for submitting new applications under the PLI Scheme for Textiles was extended up to which date?
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Correct answer: D — 31 December 2025
PIB (Ministry of Textiles): the application portal for the PLI Scheme for Textiles will remain open until 31 December 2025.
AIIMS Bilaspur in Himachal Pradesh, which marked its 3rd Foundation Day on 3 October 2025, was established under which scheme?
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Correct answer: B — Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY)
PIB (MoHFW): AIIMS Bilaspur, Himachal Pradesh, was established under the Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY).
Consider the following statements about AIIMS Bilaspur: 1. Its foundation stone was laid by the Prime Minister on 3 October 2017. 2. It was dedicated to the nation in 2020. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. PIB: the foundation stone was laid by PM Narendra Modi on 3 October 2017, and the institute was dedicated to the nation on 5 October 2022 (not 2020).
According to the government's October 2025 explainer, Jammu and Kashmir accounts for more than what share of India's almond production?
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Correct answer: D — 91%
PIB explainer: J&K accounts for more than 91% of India's almond production; the Kashmiri almond packaging industry benefits from a GST cut from 12% to 5%.
The GI-tagged Basohli painting, described as 'poems in colours', is produced mainly in which district of Jammu and Kashmir?
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Correct answer: A — Kathua
PIB explainer: GI-tagged Basohli Painting, produced mainly in Basohli of Kathua district, employs nearly 500 local artists and is often described as 'poems in colours'; its GST fell from 12% to 5%.
Where did Defence Minister Rajnath Singh perform Shastra Puja on Vijayadashami 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Bhuj Military Station, Gujarat
Rajnath Singh performed Shastra Puja at the Bhuj Military Station, Gujarat, on 2 October 2025.
Consider the following statements about Rajnath Singh's address at Bhuj on 2 October 2025: 1. He said Pakistan's recent expansion of military infrastructure in the Sir Creek sector reflects its ill intent. 2. He said Pakistan had tried to penetrate India's defences from Leh to the Sir Creek sector during Operation Sindoor. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct as per the Ministry of Defence release.
While warning Pakistan over Sir Creek in October 2025, Rajnath Singh recalled the Indian Army reaching Lahore in which year?
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Correct answer: D — 1965
He said that in 1965 the Indian Army reached Lahore, and that 'the road to Karachi also passes through the Creek'.
How many applications did the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme (ECMS) receive by the close of its window in September 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 249
ECMS received 249 applications with proposed investment of ₹1,15,351 crore.
What is the financial outlay of the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme approved by the Union Cabinet in March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹22,919 crore
The Union Cabinet approved ECMS on 28 March 2025 with an outlay of ₹22,919 crore; ₹59,350 crore was the investment target.
By what multiple did projected production under ECMS exceed its target, as announced in October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 2.2 times
Projected production of about ₹10,34,700 crore is 2.2 times the ₹4,56,000 crore target.
Consider the following statements about the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme (ECMS): 1. The scheme is projected to create about 1,42,000 direct jobs, above its target of 91,600. 2. The application window opened on 1 May 2025 and was extended till 30 September 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct as per the MeitY release of 2 October 2025.
Which Union Minister launched the NIELIT Digital University platform on 2 October 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Ashwini Vaishnaw
Ashwini Vaishnaw, Minister of Electronics and IT, launched the NIELIT Digital University platform in New Delhi.
Which of the following was NOT among the five new NIELIT centres inaugurated on 2 October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Shillong
The five new centres are at Muzaffarpur, Balasore, Tirupati, Lunglei and Daman; Shillong was not among them.
Consider the following statements about the NIELIT Digital University launched in October 2025: 1. It will offer industry-focused programmes in fields such as AI, cybersecurity, data science and semiconductors. 2. At the launch, NIELIT exchanged MoUs with Microsoft and Zscaler, among others. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct as per the MeitY release.
Pandit Chhannulal Mishra, who died in October 2025, was an exponent of which gharana of Hindustani classical music?
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Correct answer: D — Banaras gharana
Pandit Chhannulal Mishra was one of the foremost exponents of the Banaras gharana.
In which year was Pandit Chhannulal Mishra conferred the Padma Vibhushan?
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Correct answer: B — 2020
He received the Padma Bhushan in 2010 and the Padma Vibhushan in 2020.
Consider the following statements about Pandit Chhannulal Mishra: 1. He was born in Azamgarh, Uttar Pradesh, in 1936. 2. He was Narendra Modi's proposer from the Varanasi constituency in the 2014 Lok Sabha election. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct as per the PIB condolence release and PTI reports.
Which birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi was observed on 2 October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 156th
The Vice-President paid tribute to Mahatma Gandhi at Raj Ghat on his 156th birth anniversary on 2 October 2025.
According to Union Home Minister Amit Shah on Gandhi Jayanti 2025, sales of Khadi and village industry products have risen to over how much in 11 years?
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Correct answer: D — ₹1.7 lakh crore
Amit Shah said sales rose about fivefold, from ₹33,000 crore to over ₹1.7 lakh crore.
Consider the following statements about Gandhi Jayanti observances on 2 October 2025: 1. The Vice-President attended a Sarva Dharma Prarthana at Raj Ghat. 2. While paying tribute, the Vice-President recalled Gandhiji's idea of Antyodaya. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: C. P. Radhakrishnan attended the Sarva Dharma Prarthana at Raj Ghat and recalled Gandhiji's emphasis on Antyodaya.
During which period is Wildlife Week observed in India every year?
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Correct answer: D — 2 to 8 October
Wildlife Week is observed every year from 2 to 8 October.
Where did Union Environment Minister Bhupender Yadav lay the foundation stone of 'Namo Van' to mark Wildlife Week 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Manesar, Haryana
The foundation stone of 'Namo Van' was laid at Manesar, Haryana, on 2 October 2025.
Who founded the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS), which completed 100 years in October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Dr Keshav Baliram Hedgewar
The RSS was founded by Dr Keshav Baliram Hedgewar in 1925.
Which motto did the Vice-President cite while greeting the RSS on its centenary in October 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Seva Parmo Dharmah
C. P. Radhakrishnan said RSS volunteers are guided by the motto 'Seva Parmo Dharmah'.
The Swachhata Hi Seva 2025 campaign culminated on which day?
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Correct answer: C — Swachh Bharat Diwas (2 October)
SHS 2025 ran from 17 September to 2 October 2025 and culminated on Swachh Bharat Diwas.
Consider the following statements about the Swachhata Hi Seva 2025 campaign: 1. It was organised jointly by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs and the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation. 2. By 1 October 2025, over 16 crore citizens had participated in it. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct as per the Jal Shakti Ministry release.
As clarified by the CCPA in October 2025 after GST 2.0 complaints, at what GST rate does domestic LPG continue to be taxed?
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Correct answer: D — 5%
CCPA clarified that domestic LPG continues at 5% GST, with no change under the reforms.
On 2 October 2025, the Vice-President paid tribute to Lal Bahadur Shastri at which memorial in New Delhi?
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Correct answer: C — Vijay Ghat
Vijay Ghat is Lal Bahadur Shastri's memorial; the Vice-President paid tribute there on his birth anniversary.
What was the tagline of the Fit India Freedom Run 6.0 held on Gandhi Jayanti 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Swachhta se Swasthya ki or
The tagline was 'Swachhta se Swasthya ki or', meaning towards good health through cleanliness.
In which district of Madhya Pradesh did a tractor-trolley carrying devotees for Durga idol immersion fall into a pond on 2 October 2025, killing 11 people?
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Correct answer: A — Khandwa
The accident occurred in the Pandhana area of Khandwa district.
What is the financial outlay of the Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses approved in October 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹11,440 crore
The six-year Mission has an outlay of ₹11,440 crore.
What pulses production target does the Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses set for 2030-31?
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Correct answer: D — 350 lakh tonnes
The Mission aims to raise pulses production to 350 lakh tonnes by 2030-31.
Consider the following statements about the Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses: 1. It provides for 100% procurement of tur, urad and masoor from farmers at MSP during the next four years. 2. The Mission runs from 2024-25 to 2028-29. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the Mission runs for six years, from 2025-26 to 2030-31.
What is the MSP of wheat for Rabi Marketing Season 2026-27, approved in October 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹2,585 per quintal
Wheat MSP was raised by ₹160 to ₹2,585 per quintal.
Which Rabi crop received the highest absolute increase in MSP for marketing season 2026-27?
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Correct answer: A — Safflower
Safflower got the highest increase of ₹600 per quintal, followed by lentil at ₹300.
For Rabi Marketing Season 2026-27, which crop has the highest margin of MSP over its cost of production?
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Correct answer: B — Wheat
Wheat has the highest margin at 109%, followed by rapeseed and mustard (93%) and lentil (89%).
Consider the following statements about Rabi MSPs for marketing season 2026-27: 1. The MSP of lentil (masur) has been fixed at ₹7,000 per quintal. 2. The MSP of barley has been raised by ₹170 per quintal. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: lentil MSP is ₹7,000 and barley MSP rose by ₹170 to ₹2,150.
After the hike approved on 1 October 2025, what is the Dearness Allowance rate for Central Government employees?
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Correct answer: C — 58%
The 3% increase takes DA from 55% to 58% of basic pay.
From which date is the DA/DR increase approved by the Cabinet on 1 October 2025 effective?
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Correct answer: B — 1 July 2025
The additional instalment of DA and DR is effective from 1 July 2025.
Consider the following statements about the DA hike approved in October 2025: 1. It will benefit about 68.72 lakh Central Government employees. 2. The increase follows a formula based on the recommendations of the 8th Central Pay Commission. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: 68.72 lakh is the number of pensioners (employees are 49.19 lakh), and the formula is based on the 7th Central Pay Commission.
At what level did the RBI's Monetary Policy Committee keep the policy repo rate on 1 October 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 5.50%
The MPC unanimously kept the repo rate unchanged at 5.50%.
In its October 2025 policy, what real GDP growth did the RBI project for 2025-26?
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Correct answer: C — 6.8%
The RBI raised its 2025-26 real GDP growth projection to 6.8% from 6.5%.
After the RBI's October 2025 policy, what is the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) rate?
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Correct answer: D — 5.25%
With the repo rate at 5.50%, the SDF rate remains at 5.25% and the MSF rate and Bank Rate at 5.75%.
Consider the following statements about the RBI's monetary policy of 1 October 2025: 1. The MPC cut the repo rate by 25 basis points. 2. The CPI inflation projection for 2025-26 was lowered to 2.6%. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: the repo rate was kept unchanged at 5.50%. Statement 2 is correct: the inflation projection was cut to 2.6% from 3.1%.