State Police Current Affairs Quiz — Last 6 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
The Election Commission of India organised the May 2026 workshop on 'Risk Management and Electoral Resilience' in collaboration with which organisation?
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Correct answer: D — International IDEA
ECI organised the workshop with International IDEA under India's Chairship Programme 2026.
How many countries were represented among the 32 participants of the ECI workshop on Risk Management and Electoral Resilience (May 2026)?
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Correct answer: B — 12
The 32 participants represented Election Management Bodies of 12 countries.
What is the overarching theme of India's BRICS 2026 Chairship under which the first Tourism Working Group meeting was held in May 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability
The meeting advanced tourism cooperation under the overarching theme 'Building for Resilience, Innovation, Cooperation and Sustainability'.
Where will the BRICS Tourism Ministers' Meeting be held in August 2026 under India's chairship?
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Correct answer: B — Jaipur
The 2nd TWG meeting (19–20 August 2026) and the BRICS Tourism Ministers' Meeting (21–22 August 2026) will both be held in Jaipur, Rajasthan.
ALMM List-II, whose 1 June 2026 deadline MNRE decided not to extend across the board, applies to:
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Correct answer: B — Solar PV cells
The decision concerns ALMM List-II for solar PV cells.
The Department of Expenditure's Office Memorandum of 29.04.2026, considered by MNRE, suggested time extensions of what duration based on specific situations?
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Correct answer: C — Not less than two months and not more than four months
The OM advised treating the West Asia situation as war and suggested extensions of not less than two months and not more than four months, case by case.
How many mineral blocks were auctioned in FY 2025-26, a record for a single financial year, as per the Ministry of Mines (May 2026)?
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Correct answer: C — 212
A record 212 mineral blocks were auctioned in FY 2025-26; 108 were auctioned in FY 2015-16 to 2020-21 and 364 in FY 2021-22 to 2024-25.
Of the mineral blocks auctioned in FY 2025-26, how many were critical and strategic mineral blocks?
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Correct answer: D — 22
The record FY 2025-26 tally includes the auction of 22 critical and strategic mineral blocks.
Under the LPG (Regulation of Supply and Distribution) Amendment Order, 2026, a consumer who obtains a PNG connection may apply to terminate the LPG connection within how many days?
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Correct answer: D — 30 days
Consumers may apply for termination of the LPG connection within 30 days of obtaining a PNG connection.
What is the purpose of the 'transfer voucher' introduced by the LPG control order amendment of May 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Future restoration of an LPG connection in a non-PNG area
Consumers with PNG connections may obtain a transfer voucher for future restoration of their LPG connection in a non-PNG area.
The National e-Governance Service Delivery Assessment (NeSDA), whose 2025 portal was launched in May 2026, is based on which index?
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Correct answer: B — Online Service Index of the UN e-Government Survey
NeSDA is based on the Online Service Index (OSI) of the UN e-Government Survey, customised for the Indian federal structure.
Consider the following statements about NeSDA: 1. It is a biennial assessment framework. 2. It was developed by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
NeSDA is a biennial framework developed by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG), not MeitY.
Who won the Falta Assembly constituency in West Bengal after the repoll counted on 24 May 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Debangshu Panda
BJP's Debangshu Panda won with 1,49,666 votes, per ECI's result page.
Which party's candidate finished second in the Falta repoll result of May 2026?
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Correct answer: A — CPI(M)
CPI(M)'s Sambhu Nath Kurmi was second with 40,645 votes; Congress was third and the TMC fourth.
Consider the following statements about the Falta (AC 144) result of 24 May 2026: 1. The winning margin was more than one lakh votes. 2. The Trinamool Congress candidate finished third. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct (margin 1,09,021). Statement 2 is wrong: the TMC's Jahangir Khan finished fourth with 7,783 votes, behind Congress.
The UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2026, held on 24 May 2026, was conducted at:
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Correct answer: A — 2,072 venues in 83 cities
UPSC conducted the examination at 2,072 examination venues in 83 examination centres (cities).
As per UPSC's provisional data, roughly what share of applicants appeared in the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2026?
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Correct answer: C — About 67%
Nearly 5.49 lakh of 8,19,732 applicants, about 67%, appeared; about 61% had appeared in 2025.
The real-time face authentication system used by UPSC for the first time in the Civil Services Prelims 2026 was developed through:
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Correct answer: B — National e-Governance Division (NeGD), MeitY
UPSC said the indigenously developed system through NeGD of MeitY worked across all 2,072 venues.
Consider the following statements about the UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2026: 1. The Indian Forest Service (Preliminary) Examination 2026 was held along with it. 2. More candidates applied for it than for the 2025 examination. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The IFS (Prelims) 2026 was held along with it. 8,19,732 applied in 2026 against nearly 9.5 lakh in 2025, so statement 2 is wrong.
Which party won the most seats in Cyprus's parliamentary election held on 24 May 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Democratic Rally (DISY)
The centre-right Democratic Rally (DISY) came first with 17 seats, ahead of AKEL.
Consider the following statements about the Cyprus parliamentary election of 24 May 2026: 1. DISY won 17 seats. 2. ELAM won eight seats. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
DISY won 17 seats and the far-right ELAM won eight seats.
Which party moved into third place in the Cyprus parliamentary election of May 2026, described as a far-right party?
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Correct answer: D — ELAM
The far-right ELAM made gains and became the third-largest party in the legislature.
Experts from which two IITs were deputed in May 2026 to help CBSE fix technical glitches in its post-result re-evaluation services portal?
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Correct answer: C — IIT Madras and IIT Kanpur
Dharmendra Pradhan directed that professors and technical experts from IIT Madras and IIT Kanpur assist CBSE.
Which edition of Fit India Sundays on Cycle was held on 24 May 2026 to mark Commonwealth Games Day?
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Correct answer: B — 75th
The 75th edition of Fit India Sundays on Cycle commemorated Commonwealth Games Day at more than 8,000 locations.
What was the theme of the Ahmedabad edition of Fit India Sundays on Cycle on Commonwealth Games Day 2026?
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Correct answer: D — A New Icon for a Fitter India – Pedalling to 2030
The Ahmedabad edition was themed 'A New Icon for a Fitter India – Pedalling to 2030'.
The national celebration of Commonwealth Games Day 2026, led by Sports Minister Mansukh Mandaviya, was held at:
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Correct answer: C — Sabarmati Riverfront, Ahmedabad
Mandaviya led the national celebrations from the Sabarmati Riverfront in Ahmedabad, the host city of the 2030 Commonwealth Games.
Which of the following is NOT among the five dispensing systems added to the scope of Government Approved Test Centres (GATCs) in May 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Electric vehicle charging stations
The five added categories are petrol/diesel, CNG, LPG, LNG and hydrogen dispensers; EV charging stations are not among them.
Under the amended GATC Rules (May 2026), what is the verification fee for CNG, LPG, LNG and hydrogen dispensers?
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Correct answer: C — ₹10,000 per nozzle
The fee is ₹10,000 per nozzle for CNG, LPG, LNG and hydrogen dispensers, and ₹5,000 per nozzle for petrol and diesel dispensers.
Consider the following statements about the amendment to the Legal Metrology (Government Approved Test Centre) Rules, 2013 (May 2026): 1. State Governments are empowered to notify additional categories of weights and measures for verification through GATCs. 2. The verification fee for petrol and diesel dispensers is ₹10,000 per nozzle. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
States can notify additional categories; the fee for petrol and diesel dispensers is ₹5,000 per nozzle, not ₹10,000.
What ex-gratia did the Prime Minister announce from the PMNRF for the next of kin of each person who died in the Karwar district mishap on 24 May 2026?
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Correct answer: B — ₹2 lakh
PM Modi announced ₹2 lakh from the PMNRF for the next of kin of each deceased and ₹50,000 for the injured; the Karnataka CM announced ₹5 lakh separately.
The drowning of shellfish collectors on 24 May 2026 took place near Shirali in which taluk of Uttara Kannada district, Karnataka?
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Correct answer: D — Bhatkal
The incident took place near Shirali in Bhatkal taluk of Uttara Kannada district.
From which date will the VB–G RAM G Act, 2025 commence, with MGNREGS continuing until then?
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Correct answer: B — 1 July 2026
The Ministry said Mahatma Gandhi NREGS will continue till the commencement of the VB–G RAM G Act on 1 July 2026.
What MGNREGS labour budget was approved for June 2026 ahead of the switch to the VB–G RAM G Act?
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Correct answer: C — Over 45 crore persondays
An adequate labour budget of over 45 crore persondays was approved for June 2026.
Consider the following statements about the preparations for the VB–G RAM G Act, 2025 (May 2026): 1. Mother sanctions of ₹26,971 crore were issued under Mahatma Gandhi NREGS. 2. States were asked to prepare their shelf of works on the e-Gram Swaraj portal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
₹26,971 crore of mother sanctions were issued. The shelf of works is to be prepared through the Yuktdhara portal, not e-Gram Swaraj, so statement 2 is wrong.
The BHAVYA Scheme, whose guidelines DPIIT released in May 2026, aims to develop:
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Correct answer: D — 100 industrial parks with about ₹33,660 crore
The Scheme provides for 100 industrial parks over 2026-27 to 2031-32 with an outlay of about ₹33,660 crore.
Which body has been designated the Project Management Agency for the BHAVYA Scheme?
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Correct answer: A — National Industrial Corridor Development Corporation (NICDC)
The guidelines designate NICDC as the Project Management Agency for implementation and monitoring.
Over which period will the BHAVYA Scheme be implemented?
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Correct answer: B — 2026-27 to 2031-32
The 100 parks are to be developed over six years, 2026-27 to 2031-32.
Consider the following statements about the BHAVYA Scheme guidelines: 1. The minimum land requirement for a park is 25 acres in hilly states, north-eastern states, Union Territories and smaller states. 2. Up to 50 industrial parks will be taken up in the first phase through a challenge-based competitive selection. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: 25 acres (100 acres in non-hilly states) is the minimum, and up to 50 parks are taken up first through challenge-based selection.
How many candidates were conferred DNB, DrNB, Diploma and FNB qualifications at the 23rd NBEMS convocation (23 May 2026)?
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Correct answer: C — 26,396
26,396 candidates were conferred DNB, DrNB, Diploma and FNB qualifications; 137 toppers received gold medals.
Consider the following statements made at the 23rd NBEMS convocation (May 2026): 1. NBEMS launched 11 new academic courses. 2. The number of medical colleges in India has increased from 387 to 718. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
11 new courses were launched. Medical colleges increased from 387 to 818, not 718, so statement 2 is wrong.
During his Canada visit of 25–27 May 2026, Piyush Goyal was to meet which Canadian Minister of International Trade to review India–Canada CEPA?
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Correct answer: D — Maninder Sidhu
PIB: Goyal will meet Mr Maninder Sidhu, Minister of International Trade; Mark Carney is the Prime Minister and Anita Anand the Foreign Minister.
As per the Commerce Ministry, what was the value of India's exports to Canada in FY2025-26?
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Correct answer: B — USD 4.67 billion
Bilateral trade was around USD 8 billion: India's exports USD 4.67 billion and imports USD 3.28 billion.
Consider the following statements: 1. India had a trade surplus with Canada in FY2025-26. 2. Piyush Goyal's May 2026 visit to Canada was scheduled from 25 to 30 May. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Exports (USD 4.67 bn) exceeded imports (USD 3.28 bn), so India had a surplus. The visit was from 25 to 27 May, so statement 2 is wrong.
What National Health Mission resource envelope for FY 2026-27 was conveyed to West Bengal on 23 May 2026?
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Correct answer: C — ₹3,505.59 crore
A resource envelope of ₹3,505.59 crore was conveyed, of which a first sanction of ₹527.58 crore was released.
Union Health Minister J.P. Nadda reviewed West Bengal's healthcare systems on 23 May 2026 in a meeting with which Chief Minister?
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Correct answer: D — Suvendu Adhikari
PIB: Nadda chaired the review meeting with West Bengal Chief Minister Suvendu Adhikari.
Which US Cabinet official called on Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 23 May 2026 as Secretary of State?
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Correct answer: D — Marco Rubio
PIB: US Secretary of State Marco Rubio called on Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 23 May 2026.
Consider the following statements about US Secretary of State Marco Rubio's call on PM Modi (23 May 2026): 1. Rubio shared the US perspective on regional and global issues, including the situation in West Asia. 2. PM Modi asked Rubio to convey his warm greetings to President Trump. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are in the PIB release: Rubio shared the US view including on West Asia, and the PM asked him to convey greetings to President Trump.
'Suryastra', flagged off at Shirdi on 23 May 2026, is:
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Correct answer: A — India's first 300 km Universal Rocket Launching System
PIB: India's first 300 km Universal Rocket Launching System 'Suryastra' was flagged off at the event.
The private-sector Defence Manufacturing Complex inaugurated by Rajnath Singh on 23 May 2026 belongs to which company and is located where?
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Correct answer: B — NIBE Group, Shirdi
The complex of NIBE Group was inaugurated at Shirdi, Maharashtra.
Consider the following statements about the event at Shirdi on 23 May 2026: 1. Indigenous TNT and RDX plant technologies were unveiled. 2. NIBE Group and Black Sky exchanged an MoU in the field of satellite assembly. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are in the PIB release: TNT and RDX plant technologies were unveiled, and an MoU on satellite assembly was exchanged between NIBE Group and Black Sky.
Which edition of the Rozgar Mela was held on 23 May 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 19th
PIB: the Prime Minister distributed the letters at the 19th Rozgar Mela on 23 May 2026.
How many appointment letters were distributed at the Rozgar Mela on 23 May 2026?
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Correct answer: B — More than 51,000
More than 51,000 appointment letters were distributed to newly appointed youth.
Who won the Suranjan Das Trophy for the best all-round student test pilot of the 48th Flight Test Course at AFTPS (May 2026)?
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Correct answer: D — Sqn Ldr KK Singh
The Suranjan Das Trophy went to Sqn Ldr KK Singh; Sqn Ldr Aditya Jamdagni won the CAS Trophy and Wg Cdr Abhinav Kumar the Maharaja Hanumanth Singh Sword.
The 48th Flight Test Course that graduated from AFTPS Bengaluru on 23 May 2026 comprised:
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Correct answer: A — 11 test pilots and 6 flight test engineers
Eleven test pilots and six flight test engineers, 17 officers in all, graduated.
Consider the following statements about the 48th Flight Test Course graduation (May 2026): 1. The chief guest, Air Chief Marshal AP Singh, is an alumnus of the 17th Flight Test Course. 2. The graduates will join the Aviation Wing of the Aircraft and Systems Testing Establishment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are in the PIB release: the CAS is a 17th FTC alumnus, and the graduates join the Aviation Wing of ASTE.
What national-record time did Gurindervir Singh clock to win the men's 100m at the Federation Cup in Ranchi on 23 May 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 10.09 seconds
Gurindervir ran 10.09s, the first Indian under 10.10s; Animesh Kujur's 10.15s from the semi-finals was the previous record.
Who became the first Indian decathlete to cross 8,000 points, at the Federation Cup in Ranchi in May 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Tejaswin Shankar
Tejaswin Shankar scored 8,057 points; Thowfeeq N. was second and Gokul K.R. third, while Vishal T.K. set the 400m record.
Consider the following statements about the Federation Cup athletics in Ranchi (23 May 2026): 1. Vishal T.K. became the first Indian to run the 400m in under 45 seconds. 2. Vishal T.K.'s 400m record broke a mark previously held by Animesh Kujur. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Vishal ran 44.98s, the first sub-45 run by an Indian. The old record of 45.12s was his own, so statement 2 is wrong.
How many Indian school students are visiting Japan under the Sakura Science Programme 2026 (24–30 May)?
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Correct answer: B — 56
56 school students (24 boys and 32 girls) and 4 supervisors from India are visiting Japan.
The Sakura Science Programme ('Japan Asia Youth Exchange Program in Science') is implemented by:
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Correct answer: A — Japan Science and Technology Agency (JST)
PIB: the Japan Science and Technology Agency (JST) has been implementing the programme since 2014; India has participated since April 2016.
During Cypriot President Nikos Christodoulides' State Visit (May 2026), India–Cyprus relations were elevated to a:
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Correct answer: B — Strategic Partnership
The leaders agreed to elevate the bilateral Comprehensive Partnership to a Strategic Partnership.
Under which pillar of the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI) did Cyprus join in May 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Trade, Connectivity and Maritime Transport
The list of outcomes records Cyprus joining the IPOI under the pillar 'Trade, Connectivity and Maritime Transport'.
On which date was the first-ever India–Cyprus Space Day celebrated?
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Correct answer: A — 18 May 2026
The list of outcomes mentions the celebration of the first-ever India–Cyprus Space Day on 18 May 2026.
India and Cyprus agreed to commemorate the 65th anniversary of the establishment of their diplomatic relations in:
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Correct answer: B — 2027
Both sides agreed to mark the 65th anniversary of diplomatic relations in 2027 with special events.
Consider the following statements about the outcomes of the India–Cyprus State Visit (May 2026): 1. A Roadmap for Defence Cooperation between India and Cyprus for 2026–2031 was announced. 2. Cyprus announced its intention to open a Cyprus Trade Center in Bengaluru. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The defence roadmap for 2026–2031 was announced. The proposed Cyprus Trade Center is in Mumbai, not Bengaluru, so statement 2 is wrong.
Who chairs the High-Powered 'Education to Employment and Enterprise' Standing Committee that met for the first time on 22 May 2026?
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Correct answer: A — CEO, NITI Aayog
The committee is constituted under the chairpersonship of the CEO, NITI Aayog; Nidhi Chibber chaired the first meeting.
The 'Education to Employment and Enterprise' Standing Committee is meant to help India achieve what share of the global services market by 2047?
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Correct answer: C — 10%
The committee is envisaged to help India achieve a 10% share of the global services market by 2047.
Consider the following statements about the 'Education to Employment and Enterprise' Standing Committee: 1. Its setting up was proposed in the Union Budget 2026-27. 2. The governments of Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh are represented on it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Para 51 of the Union Budget 2026-27 proposed the committee, and the four State governments are among its members.
What does JEEVAN, the mobile app for senior citizens launched in May 2026, stand for?
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Correct answer: A — Joint Elderly Empowerment & Virtual Assistance Network
PIB: JEEVAN stands for Joint Elderly Empowerment & Virtual Assistance Network.
SHATAYU, launched by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment on 22 May 2026, is a:
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Correct answer: B — Geriatric caregiver dashboard
SHATAYU is a dashboard showing the availability of geriatric caregivers in a district and State.
Who took over as Chair of the Asian Productivity Organization (APO) for 2026–27 at the 68th Governing Body Meeting in New Delhi?
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Correct answer: D — Prof. Anwar Sanusi of Indonesia
Indonesia's APO Director Prof. Anwar Sanusi became Chair for 2026–27, succeeding India's Amardeep Singh Bhatia; Iran and Japan took the Vice Chair roles.
Which country will host the 69th Governing Body Meeting of the APO in 2027?
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Correct answer: B — Lao PDR
It was announced that the 69th GBM will be hosted in Lao PDR in 2027; the 67th Workshop Summit Meeting will be in Sri Lanka.
Consider the following statements about the 68th APO Governing Body Meeting (May 2026): 1. It was held at Yashobhoomi (IICC), New Delhi. 2. The 67th Workshop Summit Meeting of Heads of APO Economies will be held in Lao PDR in 2027. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
The meeting was at Bharat Mandapam, not Yashobhoomi. The 67th Workshop Summit Meeting will be in Sri Lanka; Lao PDR hosts the 69th GBM. Both statements are wrong.
From where was the Agni-1 short-range ballistic missile test-launched on 22 May 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Integrated Test Range, Chandipur, Odisha
PIB: Agni-1 was successfully test-launched from the Integrated Test Range at Chandipur, Odisha.
The Agni-1 test of 22 May 2026 was carried out under the aegis of:
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Correct answer: D — Strategic Forces Command
The Defence Ministry said the test was carried out under the aegis of the Strategic Forces Command.
Where did India and Ethiopia sign the bilateral protocol for Ethiopia's WTO accession on 22 May 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Geneva
The signing ceremony took place in Geneva, and the protocol was deposited with the WTO Secretariat.
Consider the following statements: 1. India is Ethiopia's second-largest trading partner. 2. India–Ethiopia relations were elevated to a Strategic Partnership during PM Modi's visit to Ethiopia in December 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are stated in the Commerce Ministry release of 22 May 2026.