State Police Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
The Tribhuvan Sahkari University Bill, passed by the Lok Sabha on 26 March 2025, seeks to set up India's first university dedicated to which sector?
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Correct answer: D — Cooperatives
It will be India's first university dedicated to the cooperative sector.
Tribhuvan Sahkari University is named after Tribhuvandas Patel, a pioneer associated with which cooperative institution?
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Correct answer: B — Amul (GCMMF)
Tribhuvandas Patel is associated with the Gujarat Cooperative Milk Marketing Federation, popularly known as Amul.
According to Amit Shah on 26 March 2025, Tribhuvan Sahkari University will be able to award diplomas, degrees or certificates to about how many candidates a year?
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Correct answer: C — 8 lakh
Amit Shah said the university will have the capacity to train about 8 lakh people a year.
With which company did the Ministry of Defence sign the contract for ATAGS guns on 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Bharat Forge Limited
The ATAGS contract was signed with Bharat Forge Limited; the gun-towing vehicles contract went to Tata Advanced Systems.
What is the calibre of the ATAGS guns contracted on 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 155mm/52
ATAGS is a 155mm/52 calibre towed artillery gun system.
Which DRDO laboratory developed the ATAGS, whose project director was felicitated on 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ARDE, Pune
ATAGS was developed by DRDO's Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE), Pune.
Consider the following statements about the ATAGS procurement of 26 March 2025: 1. It is the Indian Army's first major procurement of towed guns from the private sector. 2. With it, MoD's capital procurement contracts in 2024-25 crossed ₹2 lakh crore. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
ATAGS is the Army's first major towed-gun buy from the private sector. On 26 March 2025, capital contracts for 2024-25 stood at ₹1.40 lakh crore, not over ₹2 lakh crore.
From where did DRDO and the Indian Navy flight-test the VL-SRSAM on 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Integrated Test Range, Chandipur
The test was carried out from the Integrated Test Range, Chandipur, off the Odisha coast.
Which capability did the VL-SRSAM flight test of 26 March 2025 establish?
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Correct answer: D — Near-boundary low-altitude engagement
The missile hit a high-speed aerial target at very close range and low altitude, establishing near-boundary low-altitude capability.
Consider the following statements about the VL-SRSAM test of 26 March 2025: 1. The missile was fired from a ship-based vertical launcher. 2. The missile uses an indigenous radio frequency seeker. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
The test was from a land-based vertical launcher, not a ship. The missile carries an indigenous radio frequency seeker.
The third session of the India–Uganda Joint Trade Committee, held in New Delhi on 25–26 March 2025, came after a gap of how many years?
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Correct answer: C — 23
The third JTC session was held after a gap of 23 years.
At the India–Uganda JTC of March 2025, the two sides agreed to explore an MoU on recognition of which Indian standard?
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Correct answer: B — Indian Pharmacopoeia
They agreed to explore MoUs including one on recognition of the Indian Pharmacopoeia.
The Mount Everest expedition flagged off on 26 March 2025 commemorates 60 years of which institute?
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Correct answer: C — Nehru Institute of Mountaineering, Uttarkashi
The Everest expedition marks 60 years of the Nehru Institute of Mountaineering (NIM), Uttarkashi.
The Mount Kangchenjunga expedition flagged off on 26 March 2025 is organised by NIMAS, which is located at:
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Correct answer: D — Dirang, Arunachal Pradesh
NIMAS, the National Institute of Mountaineering and Adventure Sports, is at Dirang, Arunachal Pradesh; the expedition is under 'Har Shikhar Tiranga'.
National Highways Infra Trust (NHIT), which completed a record fund-raising round announced on 26 March 2025, is an InvIT set up by:
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Correct answer: C — NHAI
NHIT is the Infrastructure Investment Trust set up by NHAI in 2020 to support the government's monetisation programme.
What was the approximate enterprise value of NHIT's fourth fund-raising round, announced on 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹18,380 crore
The fourth round was at an enterprise value of about ₹18,380 crore; ₹46,000 crore is the total across four rounds.
Which of the following highway stretches is among those to be acquired with funds from NHIT's fourth round, announced on 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Gandhidham–Mundra
The stretches include Gandhidham–Mundra (Gujarat) and Raipur–Bilaspur (Chhattisgarh), along with stretches in Andhra Pradesh and UP/Uttarakhand.
Where did the Election Commission begin its first-ever training of Booth Level Officers on 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — IIIDEM, New Delhi
The training began at the India International Institute of Democracy and Election Management (IIIDEM), New Delhi.
BLOs from which States formed the first batch of the Election Commission's BLO training on 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Bihar, West Bengal and Assam
The first batch had 109 BLOs from Bihar, West Bengal and Assam, poll-bound States.
Consider the following statements about Booth Level Officers (BLOs), as described by the Election Commission on 26 March 2025: 1. BLOs are State Government officials. 2. BLOs are appointed by the District Election Officers after the approval of the Chief Electoral Officer. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
BLOs are State Government officials. They are appointed by the Electoral Registration Officers (EROs) after the approval of the District Election Officers (DEOs).
Which components of the Gold Monetisation Scheme were discontinued with effect from 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Medium Term and Long Term Government Deposits
The Medium Term and Long Term Government Deposit (MLTGD) components were discontinued; the Short Term Bank Deposit may continue at banks' discretion.
After the March 2025 changes to the Gold Monetisation Scheme, what happens to the Short Term Bank Deposit (1–3 years)?
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Correct answer: D — It continues at the discretion of individual banks based on commercial viability
The Short Term Bank Deposit may continue at the discretion of individual banks, based on their assessment of commercial viability.
What happens to gold already deposited under the Medium and Long Term Government Deposit components of the GMS, after they were discontinued in March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — It continues until redemption as per existing guidelines
Existing deposits under MLTGD continue until redemption as per the extant GMS guidelines.
Consider the following statements about the Gold Monetisation Scheme (GMS): 1. The GMS was announced on 15 September 2015 to reduce India's reliance on gold imports in the long run. 2. Under the GMS, the Long Term Government Deposit had a tenure of 12–15 years. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The GMS was announced on 15 September 2015 to reduce reliance on gold imports and mobilise household and institutional gold. Its components were the Short Term Bank Deposit (1–3 years), Medium Term Government Deposit (5–7 years) and Long Term Government Deposit (12–15 years).
Which House passed the Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill, 2024 on 25 March 2025, completing its passage through Parliament?
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Correct answer: A — Rajya Sabha
The Rajya Sabha passed the Bill on 25 March 2025 after Home Minister Amit Shah's reply, completing its passage through Parliament.
The Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill, 2024, passed by Parliament in March 2025, enables state governments to set up which new body?
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Correct answer: D — Urban Disaster Management Authority
The Bill enables Urban Disaster Management Authorities, fully under state governments, for state capitals and cities with municipal corporations.
According to Amit Shah's reply in the Rajya Sabha on 25 March 2025, at which levels will the Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill create disaster databases?
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Correct answer: A — National and state levels
Amit Shah said the Bill would create disaster databases at the national and state levels.
Consider the following statements about the Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill, 2024, passed by Parliament on 25 March 2025: 1. It gives statutory status to the National Crisis Management Committee, which is chaired by the Cabinet Secretary. 2. It gives statutory status to the High Level Committee, which is chaired by the Prime Minister. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Per PRS, the NCMC is chaired by the Cabinet Secretary. The HLC, which approves financial assistance to states, is chaired by the minister in charge of the ministry with administrative control over disaster management, not the Prime Minister.
How many government amendments were included in the Finance Bill, 2025 when the Lok Sabha passed it on 25 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 35
The Lok Sabha passed the Finance Bill, 2025 with 35 government amendments.
One of the amendments to the Finance Bill, 2025, passed by the Lok Sabha on 25 March 2025, abolished which levy?
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Correct answer: D — 6% equalisation levy on online advertisements
An amendment abolished the 6% equalisation levy on online advertisements, popularly called the 'Google tax'.
What total expenditure does the Union Budget 2025-26 envisage, as reported when the Lok Sabha passed the Finance Bill on 25 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹50.65 lakh crore
The Union Budget 2025-26 envisages total expenditure of ₹50.65 lakh crore, an increase of 7.4% over the current fiscal.
Under which ICMR initiative was the drone transport of corneas, announced on 25 March 2025, carried out?
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Correct answer: B — i-DRONE
The cornea transport study is part of ICMR's i-DRONE initiative, first conceived during COVID-19 to deliver vaccines to remote areas.
In ICMR's drone pilot announced on 25 March 2025, corneal tissue was flown from which town to AIIMS Jhajjar and then AIIMS New Delhi?
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Correct answer: C — Sonipat
The drone carried corneal tissue from Dr. Shroff's Charity Eye Hospital in Sonipat, covering the distance in about 40 minutes against 2–2.5 hours by road.
Who is the chairman of the Jammu and Kashmir People's Movement (JKPM), which announced on 25 March 2025 that it had severed ties with separatism?
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Correct answer: D — Shahid Saleem
JKPM chairman Shahid Saleem declared that he and his organisation had no link with APHC(G) or APHC(A).
Which two Hurriyat constituents announced on 25 March 2025 that they had severed ties with separatism?
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Correct answer: A — J&K People's Movement and J&K Democratic Political Movement
The JKPM and the JKDPM announced their break on 25 March 2025. The J&K Tahreeqi Isteqlal and J&K Tahreek-I-Istiqamat followed on 27 March.
Which country did India beat in the men's regu final of the Sepak Takraw World Cup 2025 on 25 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Japan
India beat Japan 2-1 (11-15, 15-11, 17-14) in the final.
In which city was the ISTAF Sepak Takraw World Cup 2025, where India won its first gold, held?
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Correct answer: B — Patna
The World Cup was held at the Patliputra Sports Complex in Patna, Bihar, from 20 to 25 March 2025; it was Bihar's first time as host.
How many medals did India win at the Sepak Takraw World Cup 2025 in Patna?
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Correct answer: C — Seven
India won seven medals, up from five at the previous World Cup, including the men's regu gold.
India and Singapore signed a Letter of Intent on 25 March 2025 to work towards which corridor?
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Correct answer: C — Green and Digital Shipping Corridor
The LOI on maritime digitalisation and decarbonisation is a step towards an MoU on a Singapore-India Green and Digital Shipping Corridor (GDSC).
Which Singapore body's chief executive signed the India–Singapore Letter of Intent on green and digital shipping on 25 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Maritime and Port Authority of Singapore
The LOI was signed by R Lakshmanan, Joint Secretary, MoPSW, and Teo Eng Dih, Chief Executive of the Maritime and Port Authority of Singapore.
The Boilers Bill, 2024, introduced in the Lok Sabha on 25 March 2025, repeals a law from which year?
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Correct answer: B — 1923
The Boilers Bill, 2024 repeals the Boilers Act, 1923.
Under the Boilers Bill, 2024, introduced in the Lok Sabha in March 2025, how many of the seven offences in the law retain criminal penalties?
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Correct answer: B — Four
Criminal penalties are retained for four major offences that may cause loss of life and property; the other three are decriminalised.
Consider the following statements about the Boilers Bill, 2024, introduced in the Lok Sabha on 25 March 2025: 1. The Bill had already been passed by the Rajya Sabha on 4 December 2024. 2. Its decriminalisation provisions are in line with the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The Rajya Sabha passed the Bill on 4 December 2024. The review incorporated decriminalised provisions in consonance with the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023.
How many more districts of Uttar Pradesh did ESIC notify under the ESI Scheme, as announced on 25 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 15
ESIC notified 15 more districts of Uttar Pradesh, adding 53,987 insured persons.
After ESIC's notification of 15 more districts in March 2025, how many of Uttar Pradesh's 75 districts are fully covered under the ESI Scheme?
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Correct answer: D — 74
74 of Uttar Pradesh's 75 districts are now fully covered, benefiting 30.08 lakh insured persons and 1.16 crore beneficiaries.
What was the theme of World TB Day 2025, observed on 24 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Yes! We Can End TB: Commit, Invest, Deliver
The theme of World TB Day 2025 was 'Yes! We Can End TB: Commit, Invest, Deliver'.
How many people were screened for TB during the 100-day intensified TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan, as announced on World TB Day 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 12.97 crore
12.97 crore people were screened and 7.19 lakh TB patients notified, about 2.85 lakh of them asymptomatic.
According to Health Minister J.P. Nadda on 24 March 2025, TB treatment coverage in India has risen from 59% to what level?
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Correct answer: C — 85%
Nadda said TB treatment coverage in India had increased from 59% to 85%.
Consider the following statements about World TB Day: 1. It marks the discovery of the TB-causing bacterium by Dr. Robert Koch in 1882. 2. India has been observing the day since 1982. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
World TB Day, observed on 24 March, marks Robert Koch's discovery of the TB bacterium in 1882. India has observed it since 1982 along with the global community.
To which High Court did the Supreme Court Collegium recommend repatriating Justice Yashwant Varma on 24 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Allahabad High Court
The Collegium recommended repatriating Justice Varma from the Delhi High Court to his parent High Court of Judicature at Allahabad.
What action did the Delhi High Court take regarding Justice Yashwant Varma on 24 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Withdrew his judicial work with immediate effect
Delhi High Court Chief Justice D.K. Upadhyaya withdrew judicial work from Justice Varma with immediate effect till further orders.
At meetings on which dates did the Supreme Court Collegium decide to recommend Justice Yashwant Varma's repatriation, as per its 24 March 2025 statement?
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Correct answer: B — 20 and 24 March
The Collegium statement said the recommendation was made at its meetings held on 20 and 24 March 2025.
Consider the following statements about the transfer of High Court judges in India: 1. Under Article 222(1) of the Constitution, the President may transfer a High Court judge after consultation with the Chief Justice of India. 2. The Supreme Court said the proposal to transfer Justice Yashwant Varma was part of its in-house inquiry procedure. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Article 222(1) empowers the President, after consultation with the CJI, to transfer a High Court judge; Justice Varma's transfer was later notified under it. The Supreme Court's 21 March press note said the transfer proposal was independent of and separate from the in-house inquiry.
What is the revised monthly salary of a Member of Parliament under the notification of 24 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹1.24 lakh
An MP's monthly salary was raised from ₹1 lakh to ₹1.24 lakh, a 24% increase, with effect from 1 April 2023.
From which date does the hike in MPs' salary and pension, notified on 24 March 2025, take effect?
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Correct answer: A — 1 April 2023
The revision was notified with retrospective effect from 1 April 2023.
Under the March 2025 revision, the monthly pension of former MPs was raised from ₹25,000 to:
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Correct answer: B — ₹31,000
The pension for former MPs rose from ₹25,000 to ₹31,000 a month; additional pension per year beyond five years rose from ₹2,000 to ₹2,500.
Consider the following statements about the revision of MPs' salaries notified on 24 March 2025: 1. It was made under the Salary, Allowances and Pension of Members of Parliament Act, 1954. 2. The increase was linked to the Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The revision was notified under the Salary, Allowances and Pension of Members of Parliament Act, 1954, on the basis of the Cost Inflation Index specified in the Income-tax Act, 1961, not the CPI for Industrial Workers.
Which Indian naval ship was named for the maiden IOS SAGAR deployment announced on 24 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — INS Sunayna
INS Sunayna was to deploy to the Southwest Indian Ocean with a combined crew from India and nine friendly foreign countries.
With which country's defence force was the maiden AIKEYME exercise to be co-hosted, as announced by the Indian Navy in March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Tanzania
AIKEYME was to be co-hosted by the Indian Navy and the Tanzania People's Defence Force at and off Dar-es-Salaam.
Consider the following statements about the Indian Navy's initiatives announced on 24 March 2025: 1. 'AIKEYME' means 'unity' in Sanskrit. 2. The IOS SAGAR crew was to include personnel from nine friendly foreign countries, including Sri Lanka and Maldives. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
AIKEYME (Africa India Key Maritime Engagement) means 'unity' in Sanskrit. IOS SAGAR's combined crew was to include personnel from Comoros, Kenya, Madagascar, Maldives, Mauritius, Mozambique, Seychelles, Sri Lanka and South Africa.
How many coal mines were successfully auctioned in the 11th round of commercial coal mine auctions, as announced on 24 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Twelve
Twelve mines (eight fully explored and four partially explored) were auctioned.
What was the average revenue share achieved in the 11th round of commercial coal mine auctions (results announced March 2025)?
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Correct answer: C — 36.27%
The auctions achieved an average revenue share of 36.27%.
In the 11th round of commercial coal mine auctions, the Banai & Bhalumunda mines, won by Jindal Power, are in which state?
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Correct answer: A — Chhattisgarh
Banai & Bhalumunda in Chhattisgarh, with a peak rated capacity of 12 MTPA, went to Jindal Power at a 48% final offer.
Genome sequencing of how many Mycobacterium tuberculosis isolates was announced as completed on 24 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 10,000
Dr. Jitendra Singh announced the completion of genome sequencing of 10,000 isolates; the programme's target is over 32,000.
The sequencing of 10,000 TB bacterium genomes, announced in March 2025, is part of which programme?
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Correct answer: B — Dare2eraD TB
The work is part of the Dare2eraD TB (Data Driven Research to Eradicate TB) programme launched on 24 March 2022.
Which three bodies lead the Indian Tuberculosis Genomic Surveillance (InTGS) Consortium, as described on 24 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — DBT, CSIR and ICMR
The InTGS Consortium is spearheaded by the Department of Biotechnology, CSIR and ICMR, with major clinical institutions.
President Droupadi Murmu attended the silver jubilee of which state legislative assembly on 24 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Chhattisgarh
She attended the silver jubilee function of the Chhattisgarh Legislative Assembly in Raipur.
Which rule of the Chhattisgarh Legislative Assembly did President Murmu praise at its silver jubilee on 24 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Automatic suspension of members who enter the well of the House
She praised the rule of automatic suspension of members who enter the well during proceedings, noting that marshals were never used in 25 years.
To which country was the first consignment of GI-tagged Dalle Khursani from Sikkim exported, as announced by APEDA on 24 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Solomon Islands
APEDA facilitated the first export of GI-tagged Dalle Khursani from Sikkim to the Solomon Islands, a 200 kg consignment of dried chillies.
Dalle Khursani, the GI-tagged chilli exported from Sikkim in March 2025, is also known by which name?
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Correct answer: B — Fire Ball Chilli
Dalle Khursani is also called Fire Ball Chilli. It is registered on the GI Registry under application no. 636, with its certificate dated 14 September 2021.
For which date did Canadian Prime Minister Mark Carney call a snap general election on 23 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 28 April 2025
Carney called the election for 28 April 2025; it had not been due until October.
Who dissolved Canada's 44th Parliament on 23 March 2025 on the advice of Prime Minister Mark Carney?
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Correct answer: B — Governor General Mary Simon
Governor General Mary Simon approved Carney's advice and issued proclamations dissolving Parliament and ordering election writs.
How many seats in Canada's House of Commons were up for election in the vote called on 23 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 343
AP reported that the 37-day campaign was for 343 seats in the House of Commons.
What was the theme of World Meteorological Day 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Closing the Early Warning Gap Together
The theme for World Meteorological Day 2025 was 'Closing the Early Warning Gap Together'.
By when does the UN's Early Warnings for All initiative, the focus of World Meteorological Day 2025, aim to cover everyone with early warning systems?
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Correct answer: D — End of 2027
Early Warnings for All seeks to ensure everyone, everywhere is covered by early warning systems by the end of 2027.
Consider the following statements about World Meteorological Day: 1. It commemorates the coming into force of the Convention establishing the WMO on 23 March 1950. 2. In 2025, the WMO marked its 50th anniversary. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The day marks the WMO Convention coming into force on 23 March 1950. 2025 was the WMO's 75th anniversary, not its 50th.
Consider the following statements about the UN's Early Warnings for All initiative, the focus of World Meteorological Day 2025: 1. It was announced by UN Secretary-General António Guterres on World Meteorological Day, 23 March 2022. 2. As of 2024, 108 countries reported some capacity for multi-hazard early warning systems, more than double the 52 countries in 2015. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The WMO President's statement says Guterres announced the commitment on World Meteorological Day, 23 March 2022, and WMO reported that as of 2024, 108 countries had some multi-hazard early warning capacity, more than double the 52 in 2015.
How many electric buses has the Centre approved for Odisha under the PM e-Bus Sewa Scheme, as noted at Manohar Lal's review in Bhubaneswar on 23 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 400
PIB (23 Mar 2025): the Central Government has approved the deployment of 400 electric buses for Odisha under the Pradhan Mantri e-Bus Sewa Scheme.
At the power sector review with Manohar Lal on 23 March 2025, how much operational coal-based thermal power capacity did the Odisha Government say the State has?
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Correct answer: D — 20 GW
PIB (23 Mar 2025): the State Government informed that Odisha currently has 20 GW of operational coal-based thermal power capacity, with an additional 10 GW in the pipeline.
Manohar Lal called for developing four Odisha urban centres as growth hubs on 23 March 2025. Which of the following was NOT one of them?
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Correct answer: C — Rourkela
PIB (23 Mar 2025): the Minister emphasised developing Bhubaneswar, Cuttack, Puri and Khordha as growth hubs; Rourkela was not named, so Rourkela is NOT one of them.
Where was the keel of the Indian Navy's second and third Next Generation Offshore Patrol Vessels laid on 23 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Ratnagiri, Maharashtra
The keel laying was held at Yeoman Marine Services Pvt Ltd, Ratnagiri, where GSL is fabricating the main hull blocks.
What is the approximate tonnage of the Next Generation Offshore Patrol Vessels whose keels were laid on 23 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 3,000 tonnes
The NGOPVs have an approximate tonnage of 3,000 tonnes.
When did the Ministry of Defence sign the contracts for the 11 Next Generation Offshore Patrol Vessels for the Indian Navy?
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Correct answer: A — 30 March 2023
The contracts with GSL and GRSE were concluded on 30 March 2023.
Consider the following statements about the Next Generation Offshore Patrol Vessels (Yard 1281 and 1282) whose keels were laid on 23 March 2025: 1. Their main hull blocks are being fabricated at the premises of a private firm in Ratnagiri as part of Goa Shipyard Ltd's build strategy. 2. They are being built by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders for the Indian Coast Guard. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB says the main hull blocks of Yard 1281 and 1282 are fabricated at Yeoman Marine Services Pvt Ltd, Ratnagiri, as part of GSL's build strategy. These are Indian Navy vessels built by GSL (lead) and GRSE, not Coast Guard vessels from Mazagon Dock.
Pasala Krishna Bharathi, the Gandhian who died on 23 March 2025, was the daughter of freedom fighters from which district?
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Correct answer: B — West Godavari, Andhra Pradesh
She was the daughter of freedom fighters Pasala Krishna Murthy and Anja Lakshmi of West Godavari district.
Why were the parents of Gandhian Pasala Krishna Bharathi (died March 2025) imprisoned when she was born in jail in 1932?
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Correct answer: C — For hoisting the national flag at the Bhimavaram sub-collector's office
Her parents were jailed for hoisting the Indian flag at the Bhimavaram sub-collector's office, and she was born in jail.
Who constituted the three-member committee on 22 March 2025 to inquire into allegations against Justice Yashwant Varma?
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Correct answer: D — The Chief Justice of India
The Chief Justice of India, Sanjiv Khanna, constituted the in-house committee, as stated in the Supreme Court's press release of 22 March 2025.
Which of the following was NOT a member of the in-house committee constituted on 22 March 2025 to inquire into allegations against Justice Yashwant Varma?
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Correct answer: D — Justice D.K. Upadhyaya
The members were Justices Sheel Nagu, G.S. Sandhawalia and Anu Sivaraman. Justice D.K. Upadhyaya, Chief Justice of the Delhi High Court, had submitted the preliminary report.
What interim step did the Supreme Court announce on 22 March 2025 regarding Justice Yashwant Varma?
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Correct answer: A — The Delhi High Court Chief Justice was asked not to assign him any judicial work
The press release said the Delhi High Court Chief Justice had been asked, for the time being, not to assign any judicial work to Justice Varma.
Consider the following statements: 1. The in-house committee constituted on 22 March 2025 to inquire into allegations against Justice Yashwant Varma had two High Court Chief Justices and one High Court judge. 2. A High Court judge can be removed from office only in the manner provided in Article 124(4) for a Supreme Court judge, as applied by Article 217(1)(b). Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The committee had two Chief Justices (Punjab & Haryana and Himachal Pradesh High Courts) and one judge (Karnataka High Court). Under Article 217(1)(b), a High Court judge may be removed by the President in the manner provided in Article 124(4) for removal of a Supreme Court judge.