State Police Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
The 68th Commonwealth Parliamentary Conference, at which Om Birla will lead the Indian delegation in October 2025, is being held in which city?
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Correct answer: D — Bridgetown
Om Birla will lead the Indian Parliamentary Delegation at the 68th Commonwealth Parliamentary Conference in Bridgetown, Barbados, from 5 to 12 October 2025.
On what theme will Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla address the General Assembly of the 68th Commonwealth Parliamentary Conference?
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Correct answer: A — The Commonwealth: A Global Partner
Om Birla will address the General Assembly of the 68th CPC on the theme 'The Commonwealth: A Global Partner'.
Consider the following statements about India's participation in the 68th Commonwealth Parliamentary Conference: 1. The conference is scheduled from 5 to 12 October 2025. 2. Rajya Sabha Deputy Chairman Harivansh is part of the Indian delegation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The delegation, led by Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla and representing the CPA India Region, includes Harivansh; the conference is in Bridgetown, Barbados, from 5 to 12 October 2025.
With effect from which date did the Department of Posts temporarily suspend booking of most postal articles to the USA, as announced on 23 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 25 August 2025
The Department of Posts decided to temporarily suspend booking of all types of postal articles destined for the USA with effect from 25 August 2025, except letters/documents and gifts up to USD 100.
Under US Executive Order No. 14324, the duty-free de minimis exemption was to be withdrawn from 29 August 2025 for goods valued up to:
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Correct answer: D — USD 800
Under Executive Order No. 14324 of 30 July 2025, the duty-free de minimis exemption for goods valued up to USD 800 was to be withdrawn with effect from 29 August 2025.
Consider the following statements about India Post's suspension of postal bookings to the USA (August 2025): 1. Letters/documents and gift items up to USD 100 in value were exempted from the suspension. 2. The suspension followed US-bound air carriers expressing inability to accept postal consignments after 25 August 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. Letters/documents and gifts up to USD 100 continued to be accepted, and US-bound air carriers had expressed inability to accept postal consignments after 25 August, citing lack of operational and technical readiness.
The US Executive Order of 30 July 2025 cited by India's Department of Posts for withdrawing the de minimis exemption is numbered:
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Correct answer: B — 14324
The Department of Posts took note of Executive Order No. 14324 issued by the US Administration on 30 July 2025, which withdraws the de minimis exemption from 29 August 2025.
DRDO conducted the maiden flight-tests of the Integrated Air Defence Weapon System (IADWS) on 23 August 2025 off the coast of which state?
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Correct answer: B — Odisha
DRDO conducted the maiden flight-tests of IADWS off the coast of Odisha at around 1230 hrs on 23 August 2025.
Which of the following is NOT a component of DRDO's Integrated Air Defence Weapon System (IADWS) tested in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Akash-NG missile
IADWS comprises QRSAM, VSHORADS missiles and a high-power laser-based Directed Energy Weapon (DEW); Akash-NG is not listed as a component.
Which DRDO laboratory is the nodal laboratory of the IADWS programme and developed its Centralised Command and Control Centre?
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Correct answer: C — Defence Research & Development Laboratory
The Centralised Command and Control Centre was developed by the Defence Research & Development Laboratory (DRDL), the nodal laboratory of the programme; RCI developed VSHORADS and CHESS the DEW.
Consider the following statements about the IADWS flight-tests of 23 August 2025: 1. VSHORADS was developed by the Centre for High Energy Systems and Sciences, and the laser DEW by Research Centre Imarat. 2. Two high-speed fixed-wing UAV targets and a multi-copter drone were engaged simultaneously and destroyed. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: VSHORADS was developed by Research Centre Imarat and the DEW by the Centre for High Energy Systems and Sciences. Statement 2 is correct: three targets — two high-speed fixed-wing UAVs and a multi-copter drone — were simultaneously engaged and destroyed.
What was the theme of National Space Day 2025, as stated by PM Narendra Modi?
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Correct answer: C — From Aryabhata to Gaganyaan
PM Modi said this year's theme, 'From Aryabhata to Gaganyaan', reflects both the confidence of India's past and the resolve for its future.
Where was the main National Space Day 2025 programme, addressed by Dr Jitendra Singh, held?
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Correct answer: B — Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
Dr Jitendra Singh addressed the National Space Day programme at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
On National Space Day 2025, Dr Jitendra Singh said an Indian will announce 'Viksit Bharat 2047' from the surface of the Moon in which year?
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Correct answer: D — 2040
Dr Jitendra Singh said an Indian will announce 'Viksit Bharat 2047' from the surface of the Moon in 2040.
With reference to National Space Day 2025, consider the following statements: 1. India was hosting the International Olympiad on Astronomy and Astrophysics, with nearly 300 participants from over 60 countries. 2. The second edition of the Bharatiya Antariksh Hackathon drew participation from over 61,000 students. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. PM Modi noted that India was hosting the IOAA with nearly 300 young participants from over sixty countries, and the second edition of the Bharatiya Antariksh Hackathon drew over 61,000 students in 8,744 teams.
As per the timeline outlined by Dr Jitendra Singh on National Space Day 2025, consider the following statements: 1. India will attempt its first human spaceflight under the Gaganyaan mission in 2027. 2. The proposed Bharat Antariksh Station is to be established by 2040. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: India will attempt its first human spaceflight under Gaganyaan in 2027. Statement 2 is incorrect: the proposed Bharat Antariksh Station is to be established by 2035; 2040 is the year mentioned for an Indian on the Moon.
The 11th round of India–Australia CECA negotiations, which concluded on 23 August 2025, was held in:
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Correct answer: A — New Delhi
The 11th round of India–Australia CECA negotiations was held in New Delhi from 18 to 23 August 2025.
In the context of India–Australia trade talks, what does 'CECA' stand for?
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Correct answer: C — Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement
CECA stands for the India–Australia Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement, whose 11th negotiating round concluded in New Delhi on 23 August 2025.
Which club won the 134th Durand Cup on 23 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — NorthEast United FC
NorthEast United FC won the 134th Durand Cup, beating Diamond Harbour FC 6–1 in the final to retain the title.
NorthEast United FC defeated which debutant club 6–1 in the Durand Cup 2025 final?
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Correct answer: B — Diamond Harbour FC
NorthEast United FC thrashed debutants Diamond Harbour FC 6–1 in the final of the 134th Durand Cup.
The final of the 134th Durand Cup (23 August 2025) was played at which venue?
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Correct answer: D — Vivekananda Yuba Bharati Krirangan, Kolkata
The final was played at the Vivekananda Yuba Bharati Krirangan (Salt Lake Stadium) in Kolkata.
The NAMASTE scheme for sanitation workers stands for:
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Correct answer: A — National Action for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem
NAMASTE is the National Action for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem scheme, aimed at the dignity, safety and socio-economic empowerment of sanitation workers.
As per the Social Justice Minister (August 2025), how many sewer and septic tank workers had been profiled under the NAMASTE scheme?
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Correct answer: A — 85,819
Dr Virendra Kumar said 85,819 sewer and septic tank workers had been profiled; 76,736 had received PPE kits and 60,586 Ayushman cards.
Konkan Railway's Ro-Ro train service for private cars, started on 23 August 2025, runs between Kolad in Maharashtra and which station in Goa?
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Correct answer: A — Verna
Konkan Railway started the Ro-Ro car train service between Kolad in Maharashtra and Verna in Goa on 23 August 2025.
What is the charge per car for transport from Kolad to Verna on Konkan Railway's Ro-Ro car service launched in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹7,875
Motorists pay ₹7,875 per car from Kolad to Verna and ₹5,460 from Kolad to Nandgaon.
Which judge headed the three-judge Supreme Court bench that modified the stray dogs order on 22 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Justice Vikram Nath
The three-judge bench was led by Justice Vikram Nath, with Justices Sandeep Mehta and N.V. Anjaria.
While modifying the stray dogs order in August 2025, the Supreme Court noted that an absolute bar on releasing picked-up dogs would run contrary to Rule 11(19) of which rules?
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Correct answer: B — Animal Birth Control Rules, 2023
The bench noted that an absolute prohibition on release would run contrary to Rule 11(19) of the Animal Birth Control (ABC) Rules, 2023, framed under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960.
The Supreme Court's stray dogs order of 22 August 2025 modified directions it had issued on which date?
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Correct answer: D — 11 August 2025
The bench modified the court's suo motu directions of 11 August 2025, which it termed too harsh.
Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court's stray dogs order of 22 August 2025: 1. Dogs suspected to be infected with rabies may be released back after sterilisation and immunisation. 2. Municipal authorities must create dedicated feeding spaces for stray dogs in each municipal ward. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: dogs infected or suspected to be infected with rabies, and aggressive dogs, are to be sterilised and immunised but not released back onto the streets. Statement 2 is correct: municipal authorities must create dedicated feeding spaces in each municipal ward.
The Sealdah–Esplanade metro service flagged off on 22 August 2025 reduces travel time between the two points from nearly 40 minutes to how many minutes?
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Correct answer: A — 11 minutes
The PIB release states that the Sealdah–Esplanade metro reduces travel time from nearly 40 minutes to only 11 minutes.
What is the length of the six-lane elevated Kona Expressway whose foundation stone PM Modi laid in Kolkata on 22 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 7.2 km
The Prime Minister laid the foundation stone of the 7.2 km long six-lane elevated Kona Expressway worth over ₹1,200 crore.
At the Kolkata event on 22 August 2025, PM Modi said India's metro network now ranks at which position in the world?
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Correct answer: B — Third-largest
Shri Modi expressed pride that India now has the world's third-largest metro network.
Consider the following statements about the Kolkata projects of 22 August 2025: 1. About 14 km of new lines and seven new stations were being added to the Kolkata Metro. 2. The Kona Expressway is planned as a four-lane at-grade highway. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the Prime Minister said approximately 14 km of new lines and seven new stations were being added to Kolkata Metro. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Kona Expressway is a six-lane elevated expressway.
The Aunta–Simaria bridge project on NH-31, inaugurated by PM Modi on 22 August 2025, provides direct connectivity between Mokama in Patna and which district?
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Correct answer: B — Begusarai
The PIB release states that the Aunta–Simaria bridge provides direct connectivity between Mokama in Patna and Begusarai.
What is the capacity of the Buxar Thermal Power Plant inaugurated by PM Modi at the Gaya event on 22 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 660x1 MW
The Buxar Thermal Power Plant has a capacity of 660x1 MW and is worth around ₹6,880 crore.
Where is the Homi Bhabha Cancer Hospital & Research Centre inaugurated by PM Modi on 22 August 2025 located?
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Correct answer: A — Muzaffarpur
The Prime Minister inaugurated the Homi Bhabha Cancer Hospital & Research Centre at Muzaffarpur.
Under which programme was the sewage treatment plant and sewerage network at Munger, inaugurated on 22 August 2025, constructed?
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Correct answer: C — Namami Gange
The STP and sewerage network at Munger were constructed under Namami Gange at a cost of over ₹520 crore.
Consider the following statements about the Aunta–Simaria bridge inaugurated in August 2025: 1. It has been built parallel to the old two-lane rail-cum-road bridge Rajendra Setu. 2. It improves connectivity to Simaria Dham, the birthplace of poet Ramdhari Singh Dinkar. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: the new bridge runs parallel to the old two-lane rail-cum-road bridge Rajendra Setu, and it provides better connectivity to the pilgrimage place Simaria Dham, birthplace of poet Ramdhari Singh Dinkar.
With which body did the Department of Posts sign an MoU on 22 August 2025 to distribute mutual funds through post offices?
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Correct answer: D — Association of Mutual Funds in India (AMFI)
The Department of Posts signed the MoU with the Association of Mutual Funds in India (AMFI) during AMFI's 30th Foundation Day celebration in Mumbai.
Until when is the Department of Posts–AMFI MoU signed on 22 August 2025 valid, before renewal?
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Correct answer: B — 21 August 2028
The MoU is valid for three years, from 22 August 2025 to 21 August 2028, with provisions for renewal.
Consider the following statements about the Department of Posts–AMFI MoU of August 2025: 1. It was signed in the presence of SEBI Chairman Tuhin Kanta Pandey. 2. Under it, Department of Posts staff will function as mutual fund distributors. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: the MoU was signed in the presence of SEBI Chairman Tuhin Kanta Pandey, and under it DoP staff will function as mutual fund distributors, especially in smaller towns and rural regions.
NITI Aayog released the report 'Rethinking Homestays: Navigating Policy Pathways' in August 2025 in collaboration with which organisation?
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Correct answer: A — Internet and Mobile Association of India (IAMAI)
NITI Aayog launched the report in collaboration with the Internet and Mobile Association of India (IAMAI).
Who released NITI Aayog's report 'Rethinking Homestays: Navigating Policy Pathways' on 22 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Suman Bery
The report was released by Suman Bery, Vice Chairman, NITI Aayog.
Where was the UN Women Military Officers Course (UNWMOC-2025) held from 18 to 29 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Manekshaw Centre, New Delhi
UNWMOC-2025 was held at the Manekshaw Centre, New Delhi, from 18 to 29 August 2025.
What is the title of the UN Journal 2025 unveiled by Rajnath Singh on 22 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Blue Helmet Odyssey: 75 Years of Indian Peacekeeping
Rajnath Singh unveiled the UN Journal 2025 'Blue Helmet Odyssey: 75 Years of Indian Peacekeeping', a Platinum Jubilee edition.
Consider the following statements about UNWMOC-2025: 1. It was organised by the Centre for United Nations Peacekeeping under the aegis of the Ministry of Defence and the Ministry of External Affairs. 2. Women officers from 15 countries took part alongside Indian women officers. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: the course was organised by the Centre for United Nations Peacekeeping under the aegis of the Ministry of Defence and the Ministry of External Affairs, and women officers of 15 countries took part alongside 12 Indian women officers.
Where did ISRO host the National Space Meet 2.0 on 22 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
ISRO hosted the National Space Meet 2.0 at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi, as part of the 2nd National Space Day celebrations.
According to P.K. Mishra at the National Space Meet 2.0, India's space startups have grown from one or two in 2014 to roughly how many now?
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Correct answer: B — More than 350
P.K. Mishra said that from just one or two startups in 2014, the sector has expanded to more than 350 startups.
Consider the following statements about ISRO's National Space Meet 2.0 (August 2025): 1. A similar national meet had earlier been held in 2015. 2. The meet featured five breakout sessions. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: a similar national meet was held in 2015. Statement 2 is incorrect: the meet featured 10 breakout sessions chaired by Secretaries and senior officials.
Which Supreme Court bench on 22 August 2025 allowed voters excluded from Bihar's draft roll to file claims online with Aadhaar?
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Correct answer: A — Justices Surya Kant and Joymalya Bagchi
A bench of Justices Surya Kant and Joymalya Bagchi allowed claim forms to be submitted online with an Aadhaar card or any one of the 11 accepted documents.
By which cutoff date did the Supreme Court want booth-level agents to help excluded Bihar voters file their claims, as per its 22 August 2025 order?
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Correct answer: C — 1 September 2025
The court directed booth-level agents of political parties to help the roughly 65 lakh persons excluded from the draft rolls submit objections by the cutoff date of 1 September.
Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court's Bihar SIR order of 22 August 2025: 1. Excluded voters may submit claims with an Aadhaar card or any one of the 11 prescribed documents. 2. Physical submission of the claim form was made mandatory even for online applicants. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: claims may be filed with an Aadhaar card or any one of the 11 documents. Statement 2 is incorrect: the court clarified that persons may apply online and that physical submission is not necessary.
Under the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Bill, 2025, offering or facilitating online money games can attract what maximum punishment for a first offence?
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Correct answer: B — Up to 3 years and ₹1 crore
Offering or facilitating online money games can lead to imprisonment of up to three years and a fine of up to ₹1 crore; repeat offenders face up to five years and ₹2 crore.
After receiving Presidential assent on 22 August 2025, the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act was published as which Act number of 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Act No. 32
The Gazette notification states that the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act, 2025 received assent on 22 August 2025 and is No. 32 of 2025.
Which ministry will prepare guidelines and standards for e-sports tournaments under the online gaming law passed in August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
E-sports are recognised as a legitimate competitive sport, and the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports will prepare guidelines and standards for tournaments.
Consider the following statements about the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Bill, 2025: 1. The ban on online money games applies to games of skill as well as games of chance. 2. Advertising online money games can attract imprisonment of up to two years and a fine of up to ₹50 lakh. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: the complete ban covers games of chance, games of skill and those combining both, and advertising such games can attract a jail term of up to two years and a fine of up to ₹50 lakh.
Consider the following statements about the online gaming law of 2025: 1. The Bill was passed by the Lok Sabha on 20 August 2025 and by the Rajya Sabha on 21 August 2025. 2. Offences under its key provisions are cognisable but bailable. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the Lok Sabha passed the Bill on 20 August and the Rajya Sabha on 21 August 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect: offences under key provisions are cognisable and non-bailable.
How many Bills were passed by both Houses of Parliament during the Monsoon Session 2025, which was adjourned sine die on 21 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 15
According to the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs, a total of 15 Bills were passed by both Houses during the session.
How many sittings did the Monsoon Session 2025 of Parliament have?
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Correct answer: B — 21
The session provided 21 sittings spread over 32 days, from 21 July to 21 August 2025.
Consider the following statements about the Monsoon Session 2025 of Parliament: 1. The session commenced on 21 July 2025. 2. The special discussion on Operation Sindoor in the Rajya Sabha was replied to by the Prime Minister. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the session commenced on 21 July 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect: in the Rajya Sabha the discussion was replied to by the Home Minister; the Prime Minister replied in the Lok Sabha.
During the Monsoon Session 2025, the extension of President's Rule in Manipur for six months from 13 August 2025 was approved under which provision of the Constitution?
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Correct answer: D — Article 356(4)
The statutory resolution for extending President's Rule in Manipur was moved under Article 356(4) and adopted by the Lok Sabha on 30 July and the Rajya Sabha on 5 August 2025.
Where was the inaugural Khelo India Water Sports Festival held from 21 to 23 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Dal Lake, Srinagar
The inaugural Khelo India Water Sports Festival was held at Dal Lake, Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir, from 21 to 23 August 2025.
The Khelo India Water Sports Festival is the second addition to the Khelo India calendar after which event held in May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Khelo India Beach Games, Diu
The PIB release says the KIWSF is the second addition to the expanding Khelo India calendar after the Khelo India Beach Games in Diu in May.
Consider the following statements about the Khelo India Water Sports Festival 2025: 1. Shikara sprint was one of the medal events. 2. Rowing, canoeing and kayaking together carried 24 medals. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: shikara sprints, dragon boat race and water skiing were demonstration events. Statement 2 is correct: rowing, canoeing and kayaking had 24 medals up for grabs.
Where was the 23rd General Conference of the Asia-Pacific Institute for Broadcasting Development (AIBD), at which India was elected Executive Board Chairman, held in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Phuket, Thailand
The 23rd AIBD General Conference was held from 19 to 21 August 2025 in Phuket, Thailand.
The Asia-Pacific Institute for Broadcasting Development (AIBD) was founded in 1977 under the auspices of which body?
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Correct answer: C — UNESCO
AIBD was founded in 1977 under the auspices of UNESCO and is a regional inter-governmental organisation.
How many State Cooperative Banks are covered by UIDAI's Aadhaar authentication framework for cooperative banks launched on 21 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 34
The framework covers all 34 State Cooperative Banks (SCBs) and 352 District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs).
Consider the following statements about UIDAI's Aadhaar framework for cooperative banks (August 2025): 1. Each District Central Cooperative Bank must register separately with UIDAI as an Authentication User Agency. 2. The framework was rolled out to mark the International Year of Cooperatives. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: only State Cooperative Banks register with UIDAI as AUA/KUA, and DCCBs use the Aadhaar application and IT infrastructure of their SCBs. Statement 2 is correct: the framework was rolled out to mark the International Year of Cooperatives.
Lord Swraj Paul, who passed away in London on 21 August 2025, was the founder of which industrial group?
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Correct answer: C — Caparo Group
Lord Swraj Paul was the founder of the UK-based Caparo Group of industries.
Lord Swraj Paul's failed takeover bids for which Indian companies in the 1980s eventually led to the formation of the 'Bombay Club'?
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Correct answer: A — Escorts and Shriram
His failed takeover bids for Escorts and Shriram created a stir in Indian industrial and political circles in the 1980s and eventually led to the formation of the 'Bombay Club'.
In which year did Lord Swraj Paul found the Caparo Group in the UK?
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Correct answer: D — 1968
Lord Paul moved to the UK in 1966 and laid the foundation of the Caparo Group there in 1968.
What was the code name of the DRI operation that seized 72 kg of hydroponic weed in Bengaluru and Bhopal in August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Operation WeedOut
The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence's pan-India operation was code-named 'WeedOut'.
Under which law was the hydroponic weed seized in DRI's Operation WeedOut (August 2025)?
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Correct answer: B — NDPS Act, 1985
The 72.024 kg of hydroponic weed and illegal proceeds of ₹1.02 crore were seized under the provisions of the NDPS Act, 1985.
During their phone call on 21 August 2025, PM Modi and President Macron reaffirmed their commitment to mark 2026 as the India–France year of what?
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Correct answer: D — Year of Innovation
The leaders reaffirmed their joint commitment to strengthen the India–France Strategic Partnership and mark 2026 as 'Year of Innovation'.
In the phone call with PM Modi on 21 August 2025, President Macron conveyed support for early conclusion of India's Free Trade Agreement with whom?
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Correct answer: C — European Union
President Macron conveyed support for early conclusion of the Free Trade Agreement between India and the EU.
The IIM to be set up at Guwahati under the IIM (Amendment) Bill, 2025 passed by Parliament in August 2025 will be India's which IIM?
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Correct answer: C — 22nd
Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan said the 22nd IIM in the country will be set up in Guwahati.
What corpus fund will IIM Guwahati receive for five years (2025–26 to 2029–30) under the IIM (Amendment) Bill, 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹555 crore
The Bill's financial memorandum provides a corpus fund of ₹555 crore for IIM Guwahati for five years, 2025–26 to 2029–30.
The establishment of IIM Guwahati is one of the projects under a Special Development Package for Assam agreed in a Memorandum of Settlement signed by the Government of India, the Assam government and which group?
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Correct answer: D — United Liberation Front of Asom (ULFA)
The Bill's statement of objects says the Government of India, the State Government of Assam and representatives of ULFA signed a Memorandum of Settlement, under whose Special Development Package an IIM at Guwahati is one of the projects.
Consider the following statements about the Indian Institutes of Management (Amendment) Bill, 2025: 1. It was passed by the Lok Sabha on 19 August and by the Rajya Sabha on 20 August 2025. 2. It amends the Indian Institutes of Management Act, 2017. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: the Lok Sabha passed the Bill on 19 August and the Rajya Sabha on 20 August 2025, and the Bill amends the Indian Institutes of Management Act, 2017.
Under the Constitution (130th Amendment) Bill, 2025, removal of a Minister is linked to arrest and detention in custody for more than how many days?
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Correct answer: B — 30 days
The Bills seek removal of the PM, CMs or Ministers facing serious charges who are arrested and detained in custody for more than 30 days; removal is to take place on the 31st day.
The Constitution (130th Amendment) Bill, 2025 applies to charges punishable with imprisonment for a term of at least how long?
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Correct answer: D — 5 years or more
The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs states the Bills cover serious criminal charges punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to 5 years or more.
What is the composition of the Joint Committee to which the Lok Sabha referred the Constitution (130th Amendment) Bill, 2025 and two related Bills?
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Correct answer: A — 21 Lok Sabha and 10 Rajya Sabha members
The motion moved by Amit Shah referred the three Bills to a Joint Committee of 21 Lok Sabha members nominated by the Speaker and 10 Rajya Sabha members nominated by the Deputy Chairman.
Consider the following statements about the Bills introduced in the Lok Sabha on 20 August 2025: 1. The Constitution (130th Amendment) Bill, 2025 was introduced by Union Home Minister Amit Shah. 2. It was introduced along with the Government of Union Territories (Amendment) Bill, 2025 and the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill, 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: Amit Shah introduced the Constitution (130th Amendment) Bill, 2025 in the Lok Sabha on 20 August 2025, together with the Government of Union Territories (Amendment) Bill and the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill.
Consider the following statements about the Constitution (130th Amendment) Bill, 2025: 1. The Prime Minister is kept outside the scope of the removal provision. 2. The Joint Committee examining it is to report by the last day of the first week of the next session. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the Bills cover the Prime Minister as well as Union Ministers and Chief Ministers and Ministers of States and UTs. Statement 2 is correct: the motion requires the Joint Committee to report by the last day of the first week of the next session.
Where did India and the Eurasian Economic Union sign the Terms of Reference to launch FTA negotiations on 20 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Moscow
The Terms of Reference to launch negotiations on a Free Trade Agreement were signed in Moscow on 20 August 2025.
What was the India–EAEU trade turnover in 2024, as noted when the FTA Terms of Reference were signed?
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Correct answer: D — USD 69 billion
Both sides noted India–EAEU trade turnover of USD 69 billion in 2024, a 7 per cent increase over 2023.
Which of the following countries is NOT a member of the Eurasian Economic Union, with which India signed FTA Terms of Reference in August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Uzbekistan
The EAEU comprises Armenia, Belarus, Kazakhstan, the Kyrgyz Republic and the Russian Federation; Uzbekistan is not listed among its members.
Consider the following statements about the India–EAEU FTA Terms of Reference signed in August 2025: 1. It was signed on India's behalf by Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal. 2. India and the EAEU have a combined GDP of USD 6.5 trillion. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the ToR was signed by Ajay Bhadoo, Additional Secretary, Department of Commerce. Statement 2 is correct: the release cites a combined GDP of USD 6.5 trillion.
In what capacity was Starlink Satellite Communication Pvt Ltd appointed by UIDAI in August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Sub-Authentication User Agency and Sub-eKYC User Agency
Starlink Satellite Communication Pvt Ltd was appointed as a Sub-Authentication User Agency and Sub-eKYC User Agency.
Who was the CEO of UIDAI in whose presence Starlink was onboarded for Aadhaar authentication in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Bhuvnesh Kumar
Starlink's appointment was done in the presence of UIDAI CEO Bhuvnesh Kumar.
From where was the Agni-5 missile successfully test-fired on 20 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Integrated Test Range, Chandipur, Odisha
The Ministry of Defence said Agni-5 was successfully test-fired from the Integrated Test Range, Chandipur, in Odisha on 20 August 2025.
Under the aegis of which command was the Agni-5 test-firing of 20 August 2025 carried out?
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Correct answer: D — Strategic Forces Command
The launch was carried out under the aegis of the Strategic Forces Command.
How did the Ministry of Defence classify the Agni-5 missile tested on 20 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Intermediate Range Ballistic Missile
The Ministry of Defence described Agni-5 as an Intermediate Range Ballistic Missile.
What net addition of members did EPFO report for June 2025, the highest since payroll tracking began?
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Correct answer: B — 21.89 lakh
EPFO's provisional payroll data for June 2025 showed a net addition of 21.89 lakh members, the highest since tracking began in April 2018.
Since when has EPFO been tracking payroll data, against which the June 2025 net addition was described as the highest?
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Correct answer: C — April 2018
The June 2025 net addition of 21.89 lakh was the highest since payroll data tracking began in April 2018.