State Police Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Who was the Returning Officer before whom C.P. Radhakrishnan's nomination papers for the Vice-Presidential election were filed on 20 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — P.C. Mody, Secretary General of Rajya Sabha
The four sets of nomination papers were handed over to Rajya Sabha Secretary General P.C. Mody, the returning officer for the Vice-Presidential election.
How many sets of nomination papers were filed for C.P. Radhakrishnan for the Vice-Presidential election on 20 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Four
Four sets of nomination papers were handed over to the returning officer, with Narendra Modi, Rajnath Singh, Amit Shah and Rajiv Ranjan Singh as lead proposers.
Consider the following statements about the Vice-Presidential election process referred to in August 2025: 1. Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha are part of the electoral college. 2. A candidate's nomination must be subscribed by at least 20 electors as proposers and at least 20 as seconders. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: the electoral college comprises members of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, and nominated Rajya Sabha members are also eligible to vote; a nomination needs at least 20 electors as proposers and 20 as seconders.
Who co-chaired the 24th round of India–China Special Representatives talks with Chinese Foreign Minister Wang Yi in New Delhi on 19 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Ajit Doval
National Security Adviser Ajit Doval co-chaired the 24th meeting of the Special Representatives with Wang Yi during his visit to New Delhi.
At the 24th Special Representatives talks, India and China agreed to set up an Expert Group to explore an 'early harvest' in boundary delimitation under which framework?
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Correct answer: A — Working Mechanism for Consultation and Coordination on India-China Border Affairs (WMCC)
The MEA statement, as reported, said the two sides agreed to set up an Expert Group under the WMCC to explore early harvest in boundary delimitation.
The India–China Special Representatives talks held in New Delhi on 19 August 2025 were which round of the mechanism?
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Correct answer: C — 24th
PIB and the MEA statement describe the 19 August 2025 meeting co-chaired by Ajit Doval and Wang Yi as the 24th meeting of the Special Representatives.
Consider the following statements about the outcomes of the 24th India–China Special Representatives talks: 1. The two sides agreed to create General-level mechanisms in the eastern and middle sectors, in addition to the existing one in the western sector. 2. They agreed to seek a settlement framework in line with the 2005 Agreement on Political Parameters and Guiding Principles. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: the MEA statement, as reported, refers to new General-level mechanisms in the eastern and middle sectors alongside the existing western-sector mechanism, and to a fair, reasonable and mutually acceptable framework in line with the 2005 Agreement on Political Parameters and Guiding Principles.
Consider the following statements about the mechanisms agreed at the 24th India–China Special Representatives talks: 1. The Working Group under the WMCC was set up to explore an early harvest in boundary delimitation. 2. The WMCC, under which the new groups were set up, was created in 2012. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: early harvest in boundary delimitation is the task of the Expert Group, while the Working Group is to advance effective border management. Statement 2 is correct: the WMCC was created in 2012.
The Capital Region Ring Road (Bhubaneswar Bypass) approved by the Cabinet on 19 August 2025 will be developed under which mode?
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Correct answer: C — Hybrid Annuity Mode (HAM)
The CCEA approved the 6-lane access-controlled Capital Region Ring Road (Bhubaneswar Bypass, 110.875 km) in Odisha on Hybrid Annuity Mode (HAM).
What is the total capital cost of the 110.875-km Bhubaneswar Bypass approved by the CCEA on 19 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹8,307.74 crore
The Capital Region Ring Road (Bhubaneswar Bypass, 110.875 km) was approved at a total capital cost of ₹8,307.74 crore.
Consider the following statements about the Capital Region Ring Road in Odisha approved on 19 August 2025: 1. It is meant to ease congestion on the existing National Highway between Rameshwar and Tangi, which passes through Khordha, Bhubaneswar and Cuttack. 2. Its alignment integrates with only two National Highways and no State Highway. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the project addresses congestion on the existing NH between Rameshwar and Tangi through Khordha, Bhubaneswar and Cuttack. Statement 2 is incorrect: the alignment integrates with three National Highways (NH-55, NH-57 and NH-655) and one State Highway (SH-65).
Until what date did the Government exempt raw cotton imports from all customs duties, with effect from 19 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 30 September 2025
The Government exempted all customs duties on the import of raw cotton with effect from 19 August 2025 until 30 September 2025.
What was the cumulative import duty on raw cotton that was removed by the exemption announced on 19 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 11%
The exemption removed the 5% Basic Customs Duty, the 5% AIDC and a 10% Social Welfare Surcharge on both, cumulatively an 11% import duty on cotton.
Consider the following statements about the customs duty exemption on raw cotton announced in August 2025: 1. The exemption was notified by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT). 2. The exemption took effect from 1 September 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither statement is correct: the exemption was notified by the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC), and it took effect from 19 August 2025, running until 30 September 2025.
INS Tamal arrived at which Greek port on 19 August 2025 during her return passage to India after commissioning in Russia?
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Correct answer: A — Souda Bay
INS Tamal, the latest stealth frigate, arrived at Souda Bay, Greece, on 19 August 2025 during her return passage to India post commissioning in Russia.
During INS Tamal's port call at Souda Bay in August 2025, the crew was to be familiarised with operations at which facility?
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Correct answer: D — NATO Maritime Interdiction Operational Training Centre
The port call included familiarisation with operations and procedures at the NATO Maritime Interdiction Operational Training Centre in Souda Bay.
How many mobile toilets were installed along the Amarnath Yatra 2025 route, according to the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs?
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Correct answer: D — Over 1,600
To cater to hygiene needs across the route, over 1,600 mobile toilets were installed, each cleaned twice daily.
The zero-waste Amarnath Yatra 2025 was aligned with the goals of which mission?
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Correct answer: A — Swachh Bharat Mission-Urban 2.0
The Ministry said the 2025 Amarnath Yatra aligned with the goals of Swachh Bharat Mission-Urban 2.0 through scientific waste management and plastic-free practices.
Among the ECI initiatives listed on 19 August 2025, what is the maximum number of voters now set per polling station?
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Correct answer: A — 1,200
The ECI listed a polling station limit of 1,200 voters to reduce crowding and shorten queues.
ECINET, listed by the Election Commission among its recent initiatives, subsumes how many apps and websites?
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Correct answer: C — 40+
ECINET is described as a one-stop digital platform subsuming 40+ apps and websites for electors and other stakeholders.
Consider the following statements about the ECI initiatives listed on 19 August 2025: 1. Under a new SOP, EPICs are to be delivered within 30 days of an update in the electoral rolls. 2. Honorarium has been provided to EROs and AEROs for the first time. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the new SOP enables delivery of EPICs within 15 days of an update in the electoral rolls. Statement 2 is correct: honorarium was provided to EROs and AEROs for the first time.
Wang Yi handed over President Xi Jinping's invitation to Prime Minister Modi on 19 August 2025 for the SCO Summit being held in which Chinese city?
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Correct answer: C — Tianjin
Wang Yi handed over a message and invitation from President Xi for the SCO Summit being held in Tianjin, and the Prime Minister conveyed his acceptance.
While receiving Wang Yi on 19 August 2025, Prime Minister Modi welcomed progress in India–China ties since his meeting with President Xi held last year in which city?
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Correct answer: D — Kazan
PIB states the Prime Minister welcomed the steady and positive progress in bilateral ties since his meeting with President Xi in Kazan last year.
Consider the following statements about Wang Yi's call on Prime Minister Modi on 19 August 2025: 1. Wang Yi shared his assessment of his meeting with EAM S. Jaishankar and of the 24th Special Representatives meeting. 2. The Prime Minister cited the resumption of the Kailash Manasarovar Yatra as part of the progress in ties. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: Wang Yi shared his positive assessment of the meeting with EAM Jaishankar and the 24th SR meeting, and the Prime Minister referred to the resumption of the Kailash Manasarovar Yatra while welcoming progress since Kazan.
The greenfield airport at Kota-Bundi approved by the Cabinet on 19 August 2025 is being designed to suit which type of aircraft?
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Correct answer: B — A-321
The Rajasthan government transferred 440.06 ha to AAI for a greenfield airport suitable for operation of A-321 type aircraft.
How much land has the Rajasthan government transferred to the Airports Authority of India for the Kota-Bundi greenfield airport?
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Correct answer: A — 440.06 hectares
The Government of Rajasthan has transferred 440.06 hectares of land to AAI for development of the greenfield airport.
Which runway specification is planned for the new Kota-Bundi greenfield airport?
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Correct answer: D — Runway 11/29, 3,200 m x 45 m
The project includes Runway 11/29 of 3,200 m x 45 m; Runway 08/26 of 1,220 m x 38 m belongs to the existing Kota airport.
How many provisions does the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2025 propose to decriminalise to foster Ease of Doing Business?
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Correct answer: B — 288
Of the 355 provisions proposed to be amended, 288 are to be decriminalised to foster Ease of Doing Business and 67 amended to facilitate Ease of Living.
The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2025 covers how many Central Acts?
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Correct answer: D — 16
The 2025 Bill covers 16 Central Acts administered by 10 Ministries/Departments; the 2023 Act had covered 42 Central Acts.
Under the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2025, the 67 amendments meant to facilitate Ease of Living are proposed under which Acts?
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Correct answer: B — NDMC Act, 1994 and Motor Vehicles Act, 1988
The Bill proposes 67 amendments under the New Delhi Municipal Council Act, 1994 (NDMC Act) and the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 to facilitate Ease of Living.
Consider the following statements about the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2025: 1. First-time contraventions in 76 offences under 10 Acts are to attract an advisory or warning. 2. The Minister requested that the Bill be referred to a Select Committee, which is to report by the first day of the next Session. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: the Bill provides an advisory or warning for first-time contraventions in 76 offences under 10 Acts, and Piyush Goyal requested the Speaker to refer it to a Select Committee that is to report by the first day of the next Session.
Consider the following statements about the Jan Vishwas legislation: 1. The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023 decriminalised 183 provisions in 42 Central Acts. 2. The 2025 Bill covers Acts administered by 19 Ministries/Departments. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the 2023 Act, notified on 11 August 2023, decriminalised 183 provisions in 42 Central Acts administered by 19 Ministries/Departments. Statement 2 is incorrect: the 2025 Bill covers 16 Central Acts administered by 10 Ministries/Departments.
In his talks with Wang Yi on 18 August 2025, S. Jaishankar said India–China ties must be guided by the 'three mutuals'. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
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Correct answer: D — Mutual trust
Jaishankar listed the three mutuals as mutual respect, mutual sensitivity and mutual interest; mutual trust was not one of them.
India and China agreed during Wang Yi's August 2025 visit to reopen border trade through three designated points. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
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Correct answer: B — Bum La
The reported outcomes named Lipulekh, Shipki La and Nathu La as the three designated points for reopening border trade; Bum La was not among them.
S. Jaishankar described Wang Yi's August 2025 visit as the first by a Chinese Minister since the two countries' leaders met at which place?
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Correct answer: A — Kazan, October 2024
In his opening remarks, Jaishankar said this was the first visit by a Chinese Minister since the leaders met in Kazan in October 2024.
Consider the following statements about the Jaishankar–Wang Yi talks and the outcomes of Wang Yi's visit in August 2025: 1. Jaishankar said differences must not become disputes, nor competition conflict. 2. The two sides agreed to resume direct flights from 1 September 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: it is part of Jaishankar's opening remarks. Statement 2 is incorrect: the sides agreed to resume direct flights at the earliest and finalise an updated Air Services Agreement, but no date was given for resumption.
What was the unemployment rate (Current Weekly Status, age 15 and above) for April–June 2025 as per the PLFS Quarterly Bulletin released on 18 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 5.4%
The Unemployment Rate in CWS for persons aged 15 years and above was 5.4% during April–June 2025; rural was 4.8% and urban 6.8%.
About how many persons aged 15 and above were employed in India during April–June 2025, according to the PLFS Quarterly Bulletin?
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Correct answer: C — 56.4 crore
On average, 56.4 crore persons aged 15 years and above were employed in the country during the April–June 2025 quarter, of whom 39.7 crore were men.
Consider the following statements about the PLFS bulletins released on 18 August 2025: 1. The April–June 2025 Quarterly Bulletin is the first in the series to provide estimates for both rural and urban areas. 2. The monthly unemployment rate rose to 5.6% in July 2025 from 5.2% in June 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: earlier quarterly bulletins covered only urban areas, and the April–June 2025 bulletin is the first to cover both. Statement 2 is incorrect: the unemployment rate declined to 5.2% in July 2025 from 5.6% in June 2025.
SLINEX-25, which concluded at Colombo on 18 August 2025, was which edition of the India–Sri Lanka bilateral naval exercise?
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Correct answer: C — 12th
The 12th edition of the India–Sri Lanka bilateral naval exercise SLINEX-25 concluded at Colombo on 18 August 2025.
Which Indian naval ships took part in SLINEX-25?
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Correct answer: A — INS Jyoti and INS Rana
Indian naval ships INS Jyoti and INS Rana from the Eastern Fleet took part, along with SLNS Sayura and SLNS Vijayabahu of Sri Lanka.
The Indian Ports Bill, 2025, passed by the Rajya Sabha on 18 August 2025, replaces which Act?
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Correct answer: B — Indian Ports Act, 1908
The Indian Ports Bill, 2025 is designed to replace the Indian Ports Act, 1908, ending more than a century of colonial-era regulation.
Which statutory consultative body does the Indian Ports Bill, 2025 establish to coordinate between the Centre and coastal States?
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Correct answer: C — Maritime State Development Council
The Bill establishes the Maritime State Development Council (MSDC) as a statutory consultative body to coordinate between the Centre and coastal States; it will prepare a National Perspective Plan.
Consider the following statements about the Indian Ports Bill, 2025: 1. It mandates compliance with international conventions such as MARPOL and Ballast Water Management. 2. It creates Dispute Resolution Committees for sector-specific redressal. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct: the legislation mandates compliance with conventions such as MARPOL and Ballast Water Management and creates Dispute Resolution Committees for timely sector-specific redressal.
In his phone call with PM Modi on 18 August 2025, President Putin shared his assessment of his meeting with President Trump held where?
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Correct answer: D — Alaska
President Putin shared his assessment of his meeting with US President Donald Trump in Alaska the previous week.
During the Modi–Putin call of 18 August 2025, the leaders discussed strengthening which partnership between India and Russia?
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Correct answer: B — Special and Privileged Strategic Partnership
The two leaders touched upon bilateral cooperation with a view to further strengthen the Special and Privileged Strategic Partnership between India and Russia.
What is the outlay of the Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana, whose registration portal went live in August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹99,446 crore
The Cabinet approved the Employment Linked Incentive Scheme, named Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana, with an outlay of ₹99,446 crore.
Benefits under the Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana apply to jobs created during which period?
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Correct answer: C — 1 August 2025 to 31 July 2027
The benefits of the scheme are applicable to jobs created between 1 August 2025 and 31 July 2027.
Consider the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana: 1. Newly employed youth can receive up to ₹15,000 in a single instalment paid by employers. 2. Employers can receive up to ₹3,000 per month per new employee. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the incentive of up to ₹15,000 to newly employed youth is paid in two instalments through DBT using the Aadhaar Bridge Payment System. Statement 2 is correct: employers can get up to ₹3,000 per month per new employee.
During his interaction with Shubhanshu Shukla on 18 August 2025, PM Modi said India needs a pool of how many astronauts ready for future missions?
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Correct answer: C — 40–50
The Prime Minister highlighted the need to build a large pool of astronauts, suggesting that 40–50 individuals should be ready for such missions.
PM Modi asked Shubhanshu Shukla about his experiments on growing which crops aboard the space station?
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Correct answer: A — Moong and methi
PIB states the Prime Minister sought insights into the significance of Shukla's experiments on growing moong and methi aboard the space station.
According to PM Modi in his interaction with Shubhanshu Shukla, which are the two major missions India now has ahead?
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Correct answer: D — Space Station and Gaganyaan
The Prime Minister remarked that India now has two major missions ahead – the Space Station and Gaganyaan – and that Shukla's experience would be of great value.
What is the length of the Delhi section of the Dwarka Expressway inaugurated by the Prime Minister on 17 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 10.1 km
The 10.1 km long Delhi section of the Dwarka Expressway was developed at a cost of around ₹5,360 crore; the 19 km Haryana section was inaugurated earlier.
The UER-II stretch inaugurated on 17 August 2025 runs between which two points, along with new links to Bahadurgarh and Sonipat?
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Correct answer: C — Alipur and Dichaon Kalan
The Prime Minister inaugurated the Alipur to Dichaon Kalan stretch of Urban Extension Road-II along with new links to Bahadurgarh and Sonipat, built at around ₹5,580 crore.
The Delhi section of the Dwarka Expressway provides multi-modal connectivity to which convention centre?
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Correct answer: B — Yashobhoomi
The section provides multi-modal connectivity to Yashobhoomi, the DMRC Blue and Orange lines, the upcoming Bijwasan railway station and the Dwarka cluster bus depot.
Consider the following statements about the highway projects inaugurated in Delhi on 17 August 2025: 1. The 19-km Haryana section of the Dwarka Expressway had been inaugurated in March 2024. 2. The Delhi section of the Dwarka Expressway cost more than the UER-II stretch inaugurated the same day. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the 19 km Haryana section was inaugurated by the Prime Minister in March 2024. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Delhi section of the Dwarka Expressway cost around ₹5,360 crore, while the UER-II stretch with its links cost around ₹5,580 crore.
Who heads the Lodha Mathematical Sciences Institute (LMSI) launched in Mumbai on 17 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — V. Kumar Murty
V. Kumar Murty, a former Director of the Fields Institute; Manjul Bhargava is on its scientific advisory panel.
Which Fields Medallist is on the scientific advisory panel of the Lodha Mathematical Sciences Institute launched in Mumbai in August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Manjul Bhargava
Manjul Bhargava of Princeton University.
From which date are the Uttarakhand Madrasa Education Board Act, 2016 and the 2019 madrasa recognition rules to stand repealed under the Bill approved by the State Cabinet in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 1 July 2026
1 July 2026, under the Uttarakhand Minority Educational Institutions Bill, 2025.
Once enacted, the Uttarakhand Minority Educational Institutions Bill, 2025 will permit the study of which languages in recognised minority educational institutions?
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Correct answer: B — Gurmukhi and Pali
Gurmukhi and Pali, as stated in the Cabinet decision of 17 August 2025.
Consider the following statements about the Uttarakhand Minority Educational Institutions Bill, 2025: 1. It extends minority educational institution status to Sikhs, Jains, Christians, Buddhists and Parsis, besides Muslims. 2. The Cabinet decided to introduce it in the Assembly session beginning on 19 August 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. Earlier, minority educational institution status in Uttarakhand applied only to the Muslim community.
Which State recorded the highest disposal rate of consumer cases in July 2025, at 277%?
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Correct answer: D — Tamil Nadu
Tamil Nadu recorded 277%, followed by Rajasthan at 214% and Telangana at 158%; the NCDRC itself achieved 122%.
e-Jagriti, the unified consumer grievance redressal platform, was launched on which date?
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Correct answer: A — 1 January 2025
The Department of Consumer Affairs launched e-Jagriti on 1 January 2025 as a next-generation unified digital platform for consumer grievance redressal.
Consider the following statements about consumer case disposal and e-Jagriti as reported in August 2025: 1. A disposal rate above 100% means more cases were resolved than were filed in the period. 2. e-Jagriti has been made operational only at the NCDRC so far, not in State commissions. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: a disposal rate of over 100% indicates that the number of cases resolved exceeded the number filed. Statement 2 is incorrect: e-Jagriti is operational at the NCDRC and across all 36 States and Union Territories.
Shubhanshu Shukla, who returned to India on 17 August 2025, visited the International Space Station as part of which mission?
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Correct answer: D — Axiom-4
Axiom-4, a private space mission that lifted off from Florida on 25 June 2025.
Which Gaganyaan astronaut, Shubhanshu Shukla's backup for the Axiom-4 mission, also returned to India with him on 17 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Prashanth Balakrishnan Nair
Group Captain Prashanth Balakrishnan Nair, the designated backup for the mission.
Consider the following statements about Shubhanshu Shukla's return to India on 17 August 2025: 1. The Axiom-4 mission had lifted off from Florida on 25 June 2025. 2. He was received at Delhi airport by ISRO Chairman S. Somanath. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. ISRO Chairman V. Narayanan received him at the airport, along with Jitendra Singh and Rekha Gupta.
C.P. Radhakrishnan, named the NDA's Vice-Presidential candidate on 17 August 2025, was serving as the Governor of which State at the time?
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Correct answer: C — Maharashtra
Amit Shah congratulated Governor of Maharashtra C.P. Radhakrishnan on being nominated as the NDA's candidate for the Vice-Presidential election.
Which body's decision did Amit Shah credit for the nomination of C.P. Radhakrishnan as the NDA's Vice-Presidential candidate?
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Correct answer: A — The party Parliamentary Board
Amit Shah expressed gratitude to Prime Minister Narendra Modi and all members of the party Parliamentary Board for this decision.
Consider the following statements about the reactions to C.P. Radhakrishnan's nomination as NDA Vice-Presidential candidate on 17 August 2025: 1. The Prime Minister said Radhakrishnan had done extensive grassroots work in Kerala. 2. Amit Shah said Radhakrishnan's experience would enhance the prestige of the Upper House. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The Prime Minister said Radhakrishnan had done extensive work at the grassroots in Tamil Nadu.
INS Tamal carried out a Passage Exercise with which Italian Navy ship before entering Naples harbour in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ITS Trieste
INS Tamal participated in a PASSEX with ITS Trieste, the recently commissioned Landing Helicopter Dock of the Italian Navy, before entering harbour at Naples.
During INS Tamal's Naples port call, the two sides discussed initiatives under which India–Italy framework?
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Correct answer: B — Strategic Action Plan 2025–2029
The Commanding Officer and Italian officials discussed various initiatives under the India–Italy Strategic Action Plan 2025–2029.
As referred to during INS Tamal's port call at Naples in August 2025, India and Italy have had a Strategic Partnership since which year?
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Correct answer: D — 2023
2023; the two sides also discussed initiatives under the India–Italy Strategic Action Plan 2025–2029.
Tanya Hemanth won the Saipan International 2025 badminton title in August 2025. Saipan is part of which territory?
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Correct answer: A — Northern Mariana Islands
Northern Mariana Islands; the final was played at the Oleai Sports Complex.
The Saipan International 2025, won by Tanya Hemanth, was a BWF trial event for an experimental scoring system in which each game is played to how many points?
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Correct answer: C — 15
15 points, under the experimental 3x15 system, instead of the conventional 21.
What was the code name of the DRI operation that busted a clandestine mephedrone factory in Bhopal in August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Operation Crystal Break
The DRI busted the clandestine mephedrone manufacturing facility in Bhopal in a coordinated operation code-named 'Operation Crystal Break'.
How much mephedrone (in liquid form) did the DRI seize at the Bhopal facility on 16 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 61.20 kg
The search on 16 August 2025 led to the recovery and seizure of 61.20 kg of mephedrone in liquid form valued at ₹92 crore.
Consider the following statements about the DRI's Bhopal mephedrone case of August 2025: 1. Mephedrone is a psychotropic substance under the NDPS Act, 1985. 2. It was the first clandestine mephedrone factory dismantled by the DRI in the past year. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: mephedrone is listed as a psychotropic substance under the NDPS Act, 1985. Statement 2 is incorrect: this was the sixth clandestine mephedrone factory dismantled by the DRI in the past one year.
At which venue did Donald Trump and Vladimir Putin hold their summit in August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Joint Base Elmendorf-Richardson, Anchorage
AP and Reuters reported that the summit took place at Joint Base Elmendorf-Richardson in Anchorage, Alaska.
The Trump–Putin summit in Alaska in August 2025 was the two leaders' first meeting since which year?
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Correct answer: C — 2019
Reuters reported that the Alaska summit was the first meeting between Trump and Putin since 2019.
Consider the following statements about the Trump–Putin summit in Alaska in August 2025: 1. The two leaders announced a ceasefire agreement in Ukraine at the end of the talks. 2. Putin suggested that a next meeting could be held in Moscow. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: no agreement to end the war in Ukraine was announced, and Trump said there was no deal until there is a deal. Statement 2 is correct: Putin suggested that a meeting in Moscow could be next.
Har Ghar Tiranga 2025 was which edition of the campaign?
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Correct answer: C — Fourth
Har Ghar Tiranga 2025 is the 4th edition of the nationwide movement launched in 2022 as part of Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav.
Which new component was introduced in Har Ghar Tiranga 2025 to enable participation of people constrained by age or limited access to technology?
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Correct answer: A — Tiranga Volunteer
The Tiranga Volunteer is a new component introduced this year; more than 9 lakh volunteers came forward during Har Ghar Tiranga 2025.
According to the Ministry of Culture, about how many selfies with the national flag were uploaded during Har Ghar Tiranga 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 7.50 crore
7.50 crore selfies were uploaded during the campaign, which ran from 2 to 15 August 2025.
The Independence Day address delivered by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 15 August 2025 was his which address from the Red Fort?
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Correct answer: D — 12th
PIB noted that the address on the 79th Independence Day marked Prime Minister Modi's 12th Independence Day address from the Red Fort.
Under the PM Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana announced on 15 August 2025, how much will newly employed youth receive?
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Correct answer: A — ₹15,000
Under the ₹1 lakh crore PM Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana, newly employed youth will receive ₹15,000; the scheme aims to benefit 3 crore young Indians.
In his 2025 Independence Day address, the Prime Minister linked 'Samudra Manthan' to the launch of which mission?
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Correct answer: C — National Deepwater Exploration Mission
Pointing to the large share of the budget spent on importing petrol, diesel and gas, the Prime Minister announced the launch of the National Deepwater Exploration Mission, described as 'Samudra Manthan'.
Consider the following statements about announcements in the Prime Minister's Independence Day address of 2025: 1. Work is underway on 10 new nuclear reactors as part of a plan to raise nuclear power capacity over tenfold by 2047. 2. Next-generation GST reforms were announced to be unveiled on Republic Day 2026. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the Prime Minister said work is underway on 10 new nuclear reactors to increase nuclear power capacity by over ten times by 2047. Statement 2 is incorrect: next-generation GST reforms were to be unveiled on Diwali, described as a Diwali gift.
Consider the following statements about the Prime Minister's Independence Day address of 2025: 1. A High-Power Demography Mission was announced to address demographic imbalance caused by infiltration and illegal migration in border areas. 2. The Prime Minister said India would roll out its first Made in India semiconductor chip by the end of the year. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The Prime Minister announced a High-Power Demography Mission to address demographic imbalance due to infiltration and illegal migration in border areas, and said the first Made in India chip would be rolled out by the end of the year.
By which year did the Prime Minister say important strategic and civilian places would get complete security cover under Mission Sudarshan Chakra?
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Correct answer: B — 2035
The Prime Minister said that in the coming 10 years, by 2035, all important places of the nation, strategic as well as civilian, would be given complete security cover through new platforms of technology.
The name of Mission Sudarshan Chakra, announced on 15 August 2025, draws inspiration from which figure?
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Correct answer: D — Lord Shri Krishna
The Prime Minister said the country had chosen the path of the Sudarshan Chakra taking inspiration from Lord Shri Krishna.
Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra: 1. Its security cover is limited to military installations and excludes civilian sites. 2. The Prime Minister described it as a powerful weapon system that will neutralise enemy attacks and also hit back at the enemy. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: the Prime Minister said the cover would include strategic as well as civilian areas such as hospitals, railways and centres of faith. Statement 2 is correct: he described the mission as a powerful weapon system that will not only neutralise the enemy's attack but also hit back many times more.
Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra as described in the 2025 Independence Day address: 1. The mission aims to develop a system for targeted precise action. 2. The mission is to be completed over 25 years, by the centenary of Independence in 2047. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the Prime Minister said the country would move towards developing a system for targeted precise action through Sudarshan Chakra. Statement 2 is incorrect: the timeline stated was the coming 10 years, till 2035.