SEBI Grade A Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
As per provisional data released in May 2025, India's iron ore production in FY 2024-25 was:
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Correct answer: B — 289 MMT
Iron ore production reached 289 MMT in FY 2024-25, breaking the FY 2023-24 record of 277 MMT.
As per the Ministry of Mines (May 2025), India's global rank as a producer of aluminium is:
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Correct answer: A — 2nd
India is the 2nd largest aluminium producer and the 4th largest iron ore producer in the world.
Consider the following statements about mineral production in FY 2024-25: 1. Refined copper production declined compared with FY 2023-24. 2. Bauxite production declined compared with FY 2023-24. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct. Refined copper grew 12.6% to 5.73 lakh tonnes and bauxite rose 2.9% to 24.7 MMT.
Consider the following statements about the India–Japan defence ministers' meeting of 5 May 2025: 1. It was held at the Manekshaw Centre, New Delhi. 2. The Ministers reviewed the defence and security pillars of the India–Japan Special Strategic and Global Partnership. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as per the Ministry of Defence release of 5 May 2025.
India and Japan describe their bilateral relationship as a:
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Correct answer: D — Special Strategic and Global Partnership
The 5 May 2025 meeting reviewed the defence and security pillars of the India–Japan Special Strategic and Global Partnership.
Consider the following statements about INS Sharda's deployment to the Maldives in May 2025: 1. The HADR exercise aims to enhance interoperability between the Indian Navy and the Maldives National Defence Force. 2. The exercise was planned from 1 to 5 May 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The exercise was planned from 4 to 10 May 2025.
What was the size of India's first mortgage-backed Pass Through Certificate (PTC) issue listed on the NSE on 5 May 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹1,000 crore
The issue of ₹1,000 crore (1,00,000 PTCs of face value ₹1,00,000) was fully subscribed.
Consider the following statements about India's first mortgage-backed PTCs: 1. The coupon is 7.26% per annum. 2. The instrument is rated AAA(SO) by CRISIL and CARE Ratings. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The PTCs, backed by LIC Housing Finance home loans, have a 7.26% coupon and AAA(SO) ratings.
Consider the following statements about UIDAI's proof of concept at NEET UG 2025: 1. It used Aadhaar fingerprint authentication at all NEET centres across India. 2. It was carried out in collaboration with the National Informatics Centre and the National Testing Agency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The PoC used Aadhaar Face Authentication at select NEET centres in Delhi.
How many e-Nodes were selected in May 2025 under ANRF's MAHA-EV mission?
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Correct answer: D — Seven
Seven e-Nodes were selected out of 227 proposals.
Consider the following statements about the MAHA-EV mission: 1. Its call for proposals focused on three technological verticals, including EV Charging Infrastructure. 2. Selected e-Nodes will work in consortia mode with mandatory industry participation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as per the ANRF announcement of 5 May 2025.
Which two genome-edited rice varieties were announced by ICAR on 4 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — DRR Rice 100 (Kamla) and Pusa DST Rice 1
The varieties are DRR Rice 100 (Kamla) and Pusa DST Rice 1, developed by editing Samba Mahsuri and MTU 1010 respectively.
The genome-edited rice variety DRR Rice 100 (Kamla) is based on which parent variety?
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Correct answer: B — Samba Mahsuri (BPT 5204)
DRR Rice 100 (Kamla), developed by ICAR-IIRR Hyderabad, is based on Samba Mahsuri (BPT 5204).
Consider the following statements about India's genome-edited rice varieties: 1. They were developed using CRISPR-Cas based genome editing without adding foreign DNA. 2. Pusa DST Rice 1 was developed by ICAR-IIRR, Hyderabad. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Pusa DST Rice 1 was developed by ICAR-IARI, New Delhi; DRR Rice 100 (Kamla) is from ICAR-IIRR, Hyderabad.
According to the Agriculture Ministry, the two genome-edited rice varieties offer an increase in yield of about:
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Correct answer: D — 19%
The Ministry cited a 19% increase in yield. 9.66–30.4% is the range for Pusa DST Rice 1 in saline and alkaline soils.
ECINET, announced by the Election Commission of India in May 2025, will integrate how many of ECI's existing apps?
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Correct answer: D — Over 40
ECINET will integrate and reorient over 40 of ECI's existing mobile and web applications.
Consider the following statements about ECINET: 1. It was envisaged by CEC Gyanesh Kumar at the Conference of Chief Electoral Officers in March 2025. 2. Data on ECINET will be entered by Booth Level Agents of political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Data on ECINET will be entered solely by authorised ECI officials.
Consider the following statements about ECINET: 1. The Voter Helpline App will continue to run separately alongside ECINET. 2. In case of any conflict, the primary data duly filled in statutory forms will prevail. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. ECINET will subsume existing apps including the Voter Helpline App.
The 58th Annual Meeting of the Board of Governors of the Asian Development Bank (4–7 May 2025) was held in:
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Correct answer: B — Milan
The 58th ADB Annual Meeting was held in Milan, Italy.
Consider the following statements about the Finance Minister's visit for the ADB Annual Meeting in May 2025: 1. She was to be a panellist in the ADB Governors' Seminar on 'Cross-Border Collaboration for Future Resilience'. 2. She was to hold bilateral meetings with the Finance Ministers of Italy, Japan and Belgium. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The bilateral meetings were with the Finance Ministers of Italy, Japan and Bhutan.
Consider the following statements about APEDA's Chintan Shivir announced on 4 May 2025: 1. It was held in Mumbai. 2. Its inaugural session was co-chaired by the Secretaries of the Department of Commerce and the Ministry of Food Processing Industries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The Chintan Shivir was held in New Delhi.
MOIL reported a record April 2025 production of 1.62 lakh tonnes of which mineral?
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Correct answer: D — Manganese ore
MOIL produced a record 1.62 lakh tonnes of manganese (Mn) ore in April 2025.
During the Angolan President's State visit in May 2025, Angola became which member of the International Solar Alliance?
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Correct answer: D — 123rd
Angola signed the ISA Framework Agreement and became the 123rd member of the ISA.
Consider the following statements about India–Angola ties in May 2025: 1. India approved a US$200 million Line of Credit for Angola's defence procurement. 2. India and Angola are marking the 40th anniversary of diplomatic relations in 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as per the list of outcomes and the President's Secretariat release of 3 May 2025.
Angolan President João Lourenço, who visited India in May 2025, holds the Chair of which organisation?
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Correct answer: B — African Union
President Murmu congratulated President Lourenço on assuming the Chair of the African Union.
The report 'From Content to Commerce: Mapping India's Creator Economy', released at WAVES 2025, was prepared by:
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Correct answer: A — Boston Consulting Group
The creator economy report was prepared by Boston Consulting Group (BCG).
Which firm prepared the report 'A Studio Called India', released at WAVES 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Ernst & Young
'A Studio Called India' was prepared by Ernst & Young.
Consider the following statements about the white paper 'India's Live Events Economy: A Strategic Growth Imperative': 1. It was prepared by EventFAQs Media and commissioned by the Ministry of Information & Broadcasting. 2. It says India is on track to be among the top five live entertainment destinations globally by 2030. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as per the Ministry of I&B release of 3 May 2025.
In Singapore's general election of 3 May 2025, how many of the 97 parliamentary seats did the People's Action Party win?
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Correct answer: A — 87 of 97
The PAP won 87 of 97 seats. The Workers' Party retained 10 seats.
Consider the following statements about Singapore's 2025 general election: 1. The PAP's vote share rose to 65.57% from 61.24% in 2020. 2. The Workers' Party retained its 10 seats. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as reported by CNA and The Straits Times.
While congratulating Lawrence Wong in May 2025, PM Modi described India–Singapore ties as a:
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Correct answer: B — Comprehensive Strategic Partnership
PM Modi said he looked forward to further advancing the India–Singapore Comprehensive Strategic Partnership.
India's Mediation Act, referred to by the President at the first National Mediation Conference (May 2025), was enacted in:
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Correct answer: C — 2023
The President described the Mediation Act, 2023 as the first step in consolidating India's civilisational legacy.
Consider the following statements about the President's address at the first National Mediation Conference (3 May 2025): 1. She graced the launch of the Mediation Association of India. 2. She said the Mediation Act's mechanism should be confined to commercial disputes in cities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. She said the mechanism should be extended to rural areas so that Panchayats are legally empowered to mediate.
In how many categories is the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar conferred?
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Correct answer: D — Six
It is conferred in six categories: Bravery, Social Service, Environment, Sports, Art & Culture, and Science & Technology.
Consider the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar 2025: 1. Self-nomination by children is not allowed. 2. The award is conferred by the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct. Children may self-nominate, and the award is conferred annually by the President of India.
As stated at the 8th National Community Radio Conference (May 2025), how many community radio stations are there in India at present?
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Correct answer: C — 531
There are 531 community radio stations across the country at present.
Consider the following statements about the 10th National Community Radio Awards: 1. Twelve community radio stations were honoured. 2. The conference at which they were presented was organised by the Ministry of I&B and Prasar Bharati. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The 8th National Community Radio Conference was organised by the Ministry of I&B and the Indian Institute of Mass Communication.
Anuradha Prasad, who took oath as UPSC Member on 2 May 2025, belongs to which service?
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Correct answer: C — Indian Defence Accounts Service
She belongs to the 1986 batch of the Indian Defence Accounts Service.
NITI Aayog prepared its May 2025 report on MSME competitiveness in collaboration with which organisation?
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Correct answer: C — Institute for Competitiveness
The report was prepared by NITI Aayog in collaboration with the Institute for Competitiveness (IFC).
As per the NITI Aayog MSME report (May 2025), the share of micro and small enterprises accessing credit through scheduled banks rose from 14% in 2020 to what in 2024?
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Correct answer: B — 20%
It rose from 14% to 20%; for medium enterprises it rose from 4% to 9%.
Which ministry organised the 'Ageing with Dignity' event at Rashtrapati Bhavan on 2 May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
The event was organised by the Union Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
Which of the following was NOT among the locations of the five Senior Citizen Homes inaugurated by the President on 2 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Anantapur
The five homes are in Tawang, Wokha, Vellore, Anakapalli and Nainital; Anantapur is not among them.
Before taking over as Vice Chief of the Air Staff on 2 May 2025, Air Marshal Narmdeshwar Tiwari was AOC-in-C of which command?
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Correct answer: D — South Western Air Command
He was Air Officer Commanding-in-Chief of South Western Air Command before becoming Vice Chief.
Piyush Goyal's meeting in Brussels on 2 May 2025 followed the March 2025 India visit of which Belgian royal, who led an over 300-member economic mission?
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Correct answer: D — Princess Astrid
It followed the March 2025 visit of HRH Princess Astrid of Belgium, who led the over 300-member Belgian Economic Mission.
Consider the following statements: 1. Belgium is India's largest trading partner within the EU. 2. India and the EU reaffirmed their resolve to conclude the FTA by the end of 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. Belgium is India's 5th largest trading partner within the EU, with trade of US$15.07 billion in 2023–24.
The original India–Denmark energy cooperation MoU, renewed on 2 May 2025, was signed on which date?
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Correct answer: A — 5 June 2020
The original MoU was signed on 5 June 2020 and was set to expire on 5 June 2025.
The renewed India–Denmark energy MoU supports India's target of net-zero emissions by which year?
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Correct answer: D — 2070
The renewed MoU supports India's target of achieving net-zero emissions by 2070.
Which new paragraph was inserted in the Foreign Trade Policy 2023 to prohibit imports from Pakistan in May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Para 2.20A
DGFT Notification No. 06/2025-26 inserted a new Para 2.20A in FTP 2023.
Which body issued the notification of 2 May 2025 prohibiting the import of all goods originating in or exported from Pakistan?
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Correct answer: A — Directorate General of Foreign Trade
The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry, issued the notification.
What was India's record total export figure (goods and services) for 2024–25?
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Correct answer: C — US$824.9 billion
Total exports reached an all-time high of US$824.9 billion in 2024–25.
By what percentage did India's services exports grow in 2024–25, reaching US$387.5 billion?
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Correct answer: B — 13.6%
Services exports grew 13.6% to a historic high of US$387.5 billion; total exports grew 6.01%.
Consider the following statements about India's exports in 2024–25: 1. Merchandise exports excluding petroleum products reached a record US$374.1 billion. 2. The figures were based on services trade data released by NITI Aayog. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The services trade data for March 2025 was released by the Reserve Bank of India, not NITI Aayog.
Arvind Shrivastava, who took charge on 1 May 2025, became Secretary of which department?
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Correct answer: C — Department of Revenue
He took charge as Secretary, Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
What was India's provisional coal production in April 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 81.57 MT
Coal production in April 2025 was 81.57 MT (provisional), against 78.71 MT in April 2024.
Consider the following statements about coal in April 2025: 1. Production from captive and other mines was 14.51 MT. 2. Total coal dispatch was 86.64 MT. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Ministry of Coal.
At which port did IOS SAGAR (INS Sunayna) arrive on 1 May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Port Victoria, Seychelles
IOS SAGAR arrived at Port Victoria, Seychelles on 1 May 2025; Port Louis, Dar es Salaam and Nacala were earlier port calls.
Consider the following statements about IOS SAGAR's deployment: 1. Its multinational crew has 44 naval personnel from 15 nations. 2. After Port Victoria, its final port of call was Malé. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The crew has 44 naval personnel from 9 friendly foreign nations.
The Sugar (Control) Order, 2025 replaces the Sugar (Control) Order of which year?
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Correct answer: C — 1966
It was formulated after a comprehensive review of the Sugar (Control) Order, 1966.
Consider the following statements about the Sugar (Control) Order, 2025: 1. Khandsari units with crushing capacity above 500 TCD are brought under it. 2. A separate Sugar Price (Control) Order will continue alongside it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The provisions of the Sugar Price (Control) Order, 2018 have been incorporated, so there will be no separate price order.
Under the ECI initiatives of 1 May 2025, from whom will the Commission obtain death registration data electronically?
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Correct answer: D — Registrar General of India
The Commission will obtain death registration data electronically from the Registrar General of India.
Booth Level Officers, who will get standard photo ID cards under the ECI's May 2025 initiative, are appointed under which provision?
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Correct answer: C — Section 13B(2) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950
BLOs are appointed by EROs under Section 13B(2) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950.