Sainik School (AISSEE) Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
As per the Union Cabinet resolution of 10 June 2026, whose record of continuous service as elected Prime Minister did Narendra Modi surpass?
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Correct answer: B — Jawaharlal Nehru
Narendra Modi surpassed Jawaharlal Nehru, who served 4,398 continuous days from 1952 to 1964.
How many days of continuous service as an elected Prime Minister did Narendra Modi complete on 10 June 2026, as per the Cabinet resolution?
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Correct answer: D — 4,399
The resolution records 4,399 days of continuous service, one more than Nehru's 4,398.
Consider the following statements about the Cabinet resolution of 10 June 2026: 1. Jawaharlal Nehru's record of continuous service as elected PM covered the period 1952 to 1964. 2. The resolution notes that the Prime Minister is approaching 25 years of continuous service as Head of Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both points are in the Cabinet resolution as reported by PIB.
How many eminent artists were elected as Sangeet Natak Akademi Fellows (Akademi Ratna) for 2024 and 2025, as announced in June 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Seven
The General Council unanimously elected seven eminent personalities as Akademi Fellows.
What prize money does the Sangeet Natak Akademi Fellowship (Akademi Ratna) carry?
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Correct answer: B — ₹3 lakh
The Fellowship carries ₹3 lakh, the Akademi Award ₹1 lakh and the Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar ₹25,000.
Consider the following statements about the Sangeet Natak Akademi honours: 1. The Akademi Fellowship is restricted to 40 persons at any given time. 2. The Sangeet Natak Akademi Awards have been conferred since 1952. 3. The Sangeet Natak Akademi Award (Akademi Puraskar) carries a purse of ₹3 lakh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are in the Ministry of Culture release. Statement 3 is wrong: the Akademi Award carries ₹1 lakh; ₹3 lakh is for the Fellowship.
To mark 10 years of PMSMA on 9 June 2026, J.P. Nadda released a commemorative coin of what denomination?
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Correct answer: B — ₹75
A ₹75 commemorative coin and a ₹5 postal stamp were released.
Under PMSMA, free antenatal care is provided to pregnant women by specialist doctors on which day of every month?
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Correct answer: C — 9th
PMSMA provides free antenatal care on the 9th day of every month.
According to the Sample Registration System cited in June 2026, India's Maternal Mortality Ratio for 2022–24 stands at:
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Correct answer: A — 87 per lakh live births
MMR declined from 130 per lakh live births in 2014–16 to 87 in 2022–24.
Consider the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA): 1. It was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 9 June 2016. 2. It aims to provide free, comprehensive antenatal care through specialist doctors. 3. Its services are provided on the 1st day of every month. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct as per the Health Ministry. Statement 3 is wrong: PMSMA services are provided on the 9th day of every month.
On 8 June 2026, India adopted the Rules of Implementation of the Joint Crediting Mechanism (JCM) with which country?
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Correct answer: B — Japan
India and Japan adopted the Rule of Implementation of the JCM on 8 June 2026.
The India–Japan Joint Crediting Mechanism operates under which provision of the Paris Agreement?
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Correct answer: D — Article 6.2
The Rule of Implementation was adopted under Article 6.2 of the Paris Agreement.
Consider the following statements about Article 6 of the Paris Agreement: 1. Article 6.2 provides accounting and reporting guidance for Parties to use internationally transferred mitigation outcomes towards their NDCs. 2. Article 6.8 establishes a new UNFCCC mechanism to trade high-quality carbon credits. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: Article 6.4 establishes the new UNFCCC crediting mechanism; Article 6.8 covers non-market approaches (UNFCCC).
BHAVYA, whose portal was launched on 8 June 2026, stands for:
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Correct answer: A — Bharat Audyogik Vikas Yojana
BHAVYA is the Bharat Audyogik Vikas Yojana.
Which organisation is the Project Management Agency for the BHAVYA scheme?
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Correct answer: C — NICDC
The National Industrial Corridor Development Corporation (NICDC) is designated as the Project Management Agency.
Consider the following statements about the BHAVYA scheme: 1. It aims to develop 100 industrial parks with a Cabinet-approved outlay of ₹33,660 crore. 2. Land for the parks will be provided by the Central Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: land will be provided by the State Governments, while the Centre supports infrastructure through NICDC.
Nepal's Foreign Minister who held talks with S. Jaishankar in New Delhi on 6 June 2026 was:
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Correct answer: C — Shishir Khanal
Nepal's Minister for Foreign Affairs Shishir Khanal held bilateral talks with Jaishankar in New Delhi on 6 June 2026.
During the India–Nepal talks of 6 June 2026, both Ministers welcomed the completion of internal processes for the entry into force of which agreement?
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Correct answer: A — Mutual Legal Assistance Agreement in Criminal Matters
Both Ministers welcomed completion of internal processes for the India–Nepal Mutual Legal Assistance Agreement in Criminal Matters (MLAA).
On 6 June 2026, India handed over 72 health facilities and 12 cultural heritage sector projects to Nepal. Under which programme were these completed?
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Correct answer: D — Post-2015 Earthquake Reconstruction Assistance
The projects were completed under India's post-2015 'Earthquake Reconstruction Assistance' to Nepal.
Consider the following statements about Nepal Foreign Minister Shishir Khanal's visit to India in June 2026: 1. It was the first Foreign Minister-level visit since Nepal's new Government took office in March 2026. 2. During the visit, Khanal also met National Security Advisor Ajit Doval. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are in the Embassy of India's note on the visit.
Which country hosted the official global commemoration of World Environment Day 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Azerbaijan
UNEP: the Republic of Azerbaijan hosted World Environment Day 2026, with the official commemoration in Baku.
The UNEP campaign for World Environment Day 2026 focused on which theme?
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Correct answer: C — Climate action
UNEP's 2026 edition focused on climate change, with the theme climate action and campaign #NowForClimate.
Which country will host World Environment Day 2027, as announced by UNEP?
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Correct answer: B — Serbia
UNEP's 5 June 2026 press release states that World Environment Day 2027 will be hosted by Serbia.
Consider the following statements: 1. World Environment Day was established by the UN General Assembly in 1972. 2. The 'Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam' campaign was launched by the Prime Minister on World Environment Day 2024 by planting a peepal sapling at Buddha Jayanti Park, Delhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Both 1 and 2
Statement 1 is from UNEP; statement 2 is from the PIB release of 5 June 2024.
According to MoSPI's Provisional Estimates released on 5 June 2026, India's real GDP growth for 2025-26 was:
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Correct answer: C — 7.7%
Real GDP growth in 2025-26 is estimated at 7.7%, against 7.1% in 2024-25.
What was the real GDP growth rate in Q4 (January–March) of 2025-26, as per MoSPI?
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Correct answer: A — 7.8%
MoSPI estimated real GDP growth of 7.8% in Q4 of 2025-26.
The GDP estimates released by MoSPI on 5 June 2026 are based on the new series with which base year?
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Correct answer: D — 2022-23
MoSPI released the new series of GDP estimates with base year 2022-23 on 27 February 2026.
Consider the following statements about MoSPI's Provisional Estimates for 2025-26: 1. Nominal GDP is estimated at ₹346.36 lakh crore. 2. Nominal GDP growth is estimated at 8.9%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — Both 1 and 2
Both figures are in the MoSPI press note.
In June 2026, the Union Cabinet approved one-time budgetary support of up to how much for ATF price stabilisation for Scheduled Indian Airlines?
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Correct answer: B — ₹10,000 crore
The Cabinet approved one-time budgetary support not exceeding ₹10,000 crore for OMCs.
Under the ATF Price Stabilisation Fund approved on 3 June 2026, the budgetary support will reach Oil Marketing Companies in which form?
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Correct answer: D — Interest-free advances
The support is given as interest-free advances to OMCs through the Demands for Grants of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
Consider the following statements about the ATF Price Stabilisation Fund approved in June 2026: 1. It covers both domestic and international operations of Scheduled Indian Airlines. 2. It will be implemented through an MoU between participating airlines and OMCs, with the Ministries of Civil Aviation and Petroleum and Natural Gas as signatories. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are in the Cabinet release: coverage is domestic and international, and implementation is through an airline–OMC MoU with MoCA and MoPNG as signatories.
Under the ATF price stabilisation mechanism of June 2026, amounts recovered from OMCs when ATF prices moderate go back to the Consolidated Fund of India. Which Article of the Constitution creates the Consolidated Fund of India?
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Correct answer: C — Article 266
Article 266(1) provides that all revenues, loans raised and loan repayments received by the Government of India form the Consolidated Fund of India. Article 267 deals with the Contingency Fund.
The India–Oman CEPA, which entered into force on 1 June 2026, was signed on 18 December 2025 in:
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Correct answer: A — Muscat
The CEPA was signed in Muscat on 18 December 2025 in the presence of PM Modi and Sultan Haitham bin Tarik.
Under the India–Oman CEPA, what share of India's exports to Oman gets zero-duty access?
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Correct answer: C — 99.38%
The Commerce Ministry release says the CEPA offers zero-duty access for 99.38% of India's exports to Oman.
Consider the following statements about the India–Oman CEPA: 1. India is the first country to secure a comprehensive bilateral trade pact with Oman. 2. India has excluded dairy and edible oils from market access under the Agreement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: India is the second nation after the United States. Statement 2 is correct: dairy and edible oils are among the sensitive sectors excluded.
Under the India–Oman CEPA, Oman raised the ceiling for intra-corporate transferees (ICT) from 20% to:
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Correct answer: B — 50%
The release says the ICT ceiling was raised from 20% to 50%.
The notifications of 1 June 2026 appointing five Supreme Court judges were issued under which provision of the Constitution?
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Correct answer: B — Article 124(2)
The Law Ministry notifications cite clause (2) of Article 124, under which the President appoints Supreme Court judges.
Who among the following was appointed a Supreme Court judge on 1 June 2026 directly from the Bar as a senior advocate?
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Correct answer: D — Venkita Subramani Mohana
Venkita Subramani Mohana was a senior advocate; the other four appointees were High Court Chief Justices.
Justice Sheel Nagu, appointed a Supreme Court judge on 1 June 2026, was until then the Chief Justice of which High Court?
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Correct answer: A — Punjab and Haryana
Justice Sheel Nagu was Chief Justice of the High Court of Punjab and Haryana.
Consider the following statements: 1. Justice Shree Chandrashekhar was the Chief Justice of the Bombay High Court before his appointment to the Supreme Court on 1 June 2026. 2. On 5 May 2026, the Union Cabinet approved a Bill to raise the number of Supreme Court judges from 33 to 37, excluding the Chief Justice of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the Law Ministry release names him as Chief Justice of the Bombay High Court, and the Cabinet release of 5 May 2026 gives the 33-to-37 increase excluding the CJI.
Myanmar President U Min Aung Hlaing began his first official visit to India (30 May–3 June 2026) at:
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Correct answer: C — Bodh Gaya
The joint statement says the President visited Bodh Gaya on 30 May 2026 and prayed at the Mahabodhi Temple.
India announced during the Myanmar President's visit that Mekong Ganga ICCR scholarships for Myanmar students would be raised from 36 to:
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Correct answer: A — 100
The joint statement says the scholarships will be enhanced from 36 to 100 from 2026 onwards.
Consider the following statements about the India–Myanmar joint statement of 1 June 2026: 1. The Prime Minister said Myanmar lies at the confluence of India's Neighbourhood First, Act East and MAHASAGAR policies. 2. Both sides agreed to enhance bilateral trade, including through the Rupee-Kyat settlement mechanism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — Both 1 and 2
Both statements appear in the joint statement.
In India's MAHASAGAR policy, cited in the India–Myanmar joint statement of 1 June 2026, MAHASAGAR stands for:
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Correct answer: D — Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions
The joint statement expands MAHASAGAR as Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions.
As per the first release of the new IIP series on 1 June 2026, industrial growth in April 2026 was:
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Correct answer: D — 4.9%
MoSPI's quick estimate puts IIP growth for April 2026 at 4.9%.
The new series of the Index of Industrial Production released on 1 June 2026 uses which base year?
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Correct answer: B — 2022-23
MoSPI revised the IIP base year from 2011-12 to 2022-23.
Consider the following statements about IIP for April 2026 (new series): 1. Mining and Quarrying contracted by 5.1%. 2. Manufacturing grew by 4.9%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: manufacturing grew 6.2%; 4.9% was the headline IIP growth and the growth of electricity and gas supply.
Who assumed charge as the 27th Chief of the Naval Staff of the Indian Navy on 31 May 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Admiral Krishna Swaminathan
Admiral Krishna Swaminathan assumed charge as the 27th Chief of the Naval Staff on 31 May 2026.
Admiral Krishna Swaminathan, who became Navy Chief in May 2026, is a specialist in which field?
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Correct answer: B — Communication and Electronic Warfare
PIB describes him as a Communication and Electronic Warfare specialist.
Before taking over as Chief of the Naval Staff in May 2026, Admiral Krishna Swaminathan was Flag Officer Commanding-in-Chief of which command?
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Correct answer: D — Western Naval Command
Prior to assuming charge as CNS, he was the Flag Officer Commanding-in-Chief of the Western Naval Command.
Consider the following statements about Admiral Krishna Swaminathan: 1. He succeeded Admiral Dinesh Kumar Tripathi as Chief of the Naval Staff. 2. He was commissioned into the Indian Navy in 1985. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
He succeeded Admiral Dinesh Kumar Tripathi; he was commissioned on 1 July 1987, not in 1985.
On 31 May 2026, who assumed charge as the third Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) of India?
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Correct answer: B — General NS Raja Subramani
General NS Raja Subramani assumed charge as the third CDS and Secretary, Department of Military Affairs, on 31 May 2026.
General NS Raja Subramani, who became CDS in May 2026, was commissioned in December 1985 into which regiment?
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Correct answer: A — Garhwal Rifles
He was commissioned into the Garhwal Rifles in December 1985.
Immediately before becoming CDS in May 2026, General NS Raja Subramani held which post?
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Correct answer: D — Military Adviser, National Security Council Secretariat
Prior to assuming the appointment of CDS, he served as Military Adviser at the National Security Council Secretariat.
Consider the following statements about the Chief of Defence Staff who took charge on 31 May 2026: 1. He also holds the post of Secretary, Department of Military Affairs. 2. He has served as General Officer Commanding-in-Chief, Central Command. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
General NS Raja Subramani took charge as CDS and Secretary, Department of Military Affairs; his earlier posts include GOC-in-C, Central Command.
Which institution was the nodal agency for the National Family Health Survey-6 (2023-24), released in May 2026?
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Correct answer: D — International Institute for Population Sciences, Mumbai
NFHS-6 was conducted in 2023-24 by MoHFW with IIPS, Mumbai, as the nodal agency.
According to NFHS-6, stunting among children under five years declined from 35.5% (NFHS-5) to:
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Correct answer: B — 29.3%
Stunting declined from 35.5% to 29.3%; 31.8% is the underweight figure.
What share of deliveries were institutional deliveries as per NFHS-6?
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Correct answer: C — 90.6%
Institutional deliveries increased from 88.6% to 90.6%; 95.9% is the ANC coverage figure.
Consider the following statements about NFHS-6: 1. India's Total Fertility Rate (TFR) remains at 2.0. 2. Full immunisation coverage of children declined compared with NFHS-5. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
TFR remains at 2.0; full immunisation improved from 83.8% to 87.1%, it did not decline.
NFHS-6 recorded the sharpest rise in coverage of which vaccine among children, from 36.4% to 85.4%?
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Correct answer: B — Rotavirus vaccine
Rotavirus vaccination coverage rose from 36.4% to 85.4%; measles second dose rose from 58.6% to 71.8%.
As per IMD's updated forecast of 29 May 2026, the 2026 southwest monsoon seasonal rainfall over India is likely to be what percentage of the Long Period Average?
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Correct answer: B — 90%
IMD forecast seasonal rainfall at 90% of the LPA with a model error of ±4%.
The Long Period Average (LPA) of India's southwest monsoon seasonal rainfall, based on 1971–2020 data, is:
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Correct answer: B — 87 cm
IMD states that the LPA of seasonal rainfall over the country based on 1971–2020 data is 87 cm.
Consider the following statements about IMD's updated monsoon forecast (May 2026): 1. El Niño conditions are likely to develop during the monsoon season. 2. A positive Indian Ocean Dipole is expected to develop during the season. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
IMD said El Niño is likely to develop during the season, while neutral IOD conditions are likely to continue.
IMD's 2026 updated forecast gave what probability for below-normal or less rainfall for the country as a whole?
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Correct answer: C — 84%
The five-category probability forecast suggests an 84% probability of below normal or less rainfall.
According to the Union Agriculture Minister at the Kharif Conclave-2026, India's foodgrain production has exceeded:
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Correct answer: C — 3,765 lakh tonnes
Shivraj Singh Chouhan said foodgrain production has exceeded 3,765 lakh tonnes.
At the Kharif Conclave-2026, India was said to have become the world's largest producer of rice by surpassing which country?
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Correct answer: C — China
The Agriculture Minister said India has become the world's No. 1 in rice production, surpassing China.
Consider the following statements about the Kharif Conclave-2026: 1. It was held at the NASC Complex, Pusa, New Delhi. 2. Regional agriculture conferences ahead of it were held at Jaipur, Lucknow and Bhubaneswar. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The conclave was held at NASC Complex, Pusa, on 28–29 May 2026; regional conferences had been held at Jaipur, Lucknow and Bhubaneswar.
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), which completed 10 years in May 2026, came into force in which year?
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Correct answer: D — 2016
MCA said the IBC, which came into force in 2016, completed 10 years on 28 May 2026.
As per MCA data released on IBC's 10th anniversary, resolution plans under the Code have realised how much for creditors (as of March 2026)?
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Correct answer: C — Over ₹4 lakh crore
1,419 resolution plans realised over ₹4 lakh crore; ₹14 lakh crore is the value of 30,000+ cases settled before admission.
Consider the following statements regarding IBC outcomes up to March 2026: 1. More cases closed with the company being rescued than with liquidation. 2. Realisation for creditors under resolution plans was below the liquidation value of the assets. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
4,099 companies were rescued against 3,003 liquidations; realisation was 167% of liquidation value, i.e. above it.
S&P Global Ratings, as cited by MCA on IBC's 10th anniversary, upgraded India's insolvency framework to which group?
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Correct answer: D — From Group C to Group B
S&P Global Ratings upgraded India's insolvency framework from 'Group C' to 'Group B'.
As per the National Health Accounts 2022-23 (released May 2026), out-of-pocket expenditure as a share of total health expenditure was:
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Correct answer: B — 43.4%
OOPE declined from 64.2% (2013-14) to 43.4% (2022-23); 39.4% was the COVID-period figure.
According to NHA 2022-23, Government Health Expenditure as a share of GDP (old series) in 2022-23 was:
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Correct answer: B — 1.43%
GHE rose from 1.15% of GDP in 2013-14 to 1.43% in 2022-23; 1.84% was the 2021-22 pandemic-year figure.
Consider the following statements about the National Health Accounts 2022-23: 1. The share of Government Health Expenditure in total health expenditure was higher than the share of out-of-pocket expenditure. 2. The estimates were prepared by NITI Aayog. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
GHE's share (43.7%) slightly exceeded OOPE's (43.4%); the estimates were prepared by the NHA Technical Secretariat at NHSRC, not NITI Aayog.
What is the Central outlay approved by the Cabinet in May 2026 for the SARTHAK-PDS umbrella scheme?
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Correct answer: A — ₹25,530 crore
The CCEA approved SARTHAK-PDS with an outlay of ₹25,530 crore as Central share.
Consider the following statements about SARTHAK-PDS approved in May 2026: 1. It integrates the SMART PDS scheme with assistance for intra-State movement of foodgrains and FPS dealers' margin. 2. The merged scheme will operate up to 31 March 2031. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
SARTHAK-PDS merges SMART PDS with the intra-State movement/FPS dealers' margin scheme and runs up to 31.03.2031.
SARTHAK-PDS aims to comprehensively strengthen the implementation of which law?
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Correct answer: D — National Food Security Act, 2013
The umbrella scheme is meant to strengthen implementation of the National Food Security Act, 2013 (NFSA).
As per the Third Advance Estimates 2025-26 (May 2026), India's total foodgrain production is estimated at about:
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Correct answer: C — 376.6 million tonnes
Foodgrain production is estimated at a record 376.563 million tonnes; 357.732 million tonnes was the 2024-25 figure.
Which crop recorded the largest absolute increase in production in the Third Advance Estimates 2025-26, rising by about 11.7 million tonnes over 2024-25?
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Correct answer: A — Maize
Maize rose to a record 55.093 MT from 43.409 MT (+11.684 MT); rice rose by 3.84 MT and wheat by 2.712 MT.
Consider the following statements about the Third Advance Estimates 2025-26: 1. Rice production is estimated to be higher than wheat production. 2. Foodgrain production is estimated to be more than 10% higher than in 2024-25. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Rice (154.024 MT) exceeds wheat (120.657 MT); foodgrain output is up about 5.3%, not more than 10%.
In the Third Advance Estimates 2025-26, which crop's production is estimated at a record 500.063 million tonnes?
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Correct answer: D — Sugarcane
Sugarcane production is estimated at a record 500.063 million tonnes.
Who chairs the High-Level Committee on Demographic Change constituted by the Government of India in May 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Justice Prakash Prabhakar Navlekar (Retd)
The committee is chaired by Justice Prakash Prabhakar Navlekar (Retired); Shamika Ravi, Durga Shankar Mishra and Balaji Srivastava are members along with the Census Commissioner.
Consider the following statements about the High-Level Committee on Demographic Change (May 2026): 1. It has to submit its report within one year. 2. Its tenure may be extended by up to six months if necessary. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The committee will submit its report within one year, and its tenure may be extended by up to six months if necessary.
While reviewing Ebola preparedness in May 2026, the Union Health Minister said India had not reported any case of which Ebola disease?
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Correct answer: B — Bundibugyo Ebola disease
Nadda stated that India has not reported any case of Bundibugyo Ebola disease till date.
Consider the following statements regarding the 2026 Ebola outbreak in parts of Africa: 1. WHO declared it a Public Health Emergency of International Concern. 2. The Africa CDC declared a Public Health Emergency of Continental Security. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
WHO declared a PHEIC and the Africa CDC declared a Public Health Emergency of Continental Security (PHECS).
The new series of the All-India Index of Industrial Production (IIP), to be launched on 1 June 2026, will have which base year?
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Correct answer: C — 2022-23
The TAC-IIP report covers revision of the IIP base year from 2011-12 to 2022-23.
Which method will the new IIP series adopt for linking the 2011-12 series with the 2022-23 series?
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Correct answer: D — Geometric Mean method
The new series will adopt the Geometric Mean method for linking, with linking factors computed for the General Index and Sectoral Indices.
Consider the following statements about the new IIP series (base 2022-23): 1. Its scope includes Rare Earth Minerals and Water Supply. 2. It is aligned with the National Industrial Classification (NIC-2008). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The new series adds Minor Minerals, Rare Earth Minerals, Gas Supply, Water Supply and Sewerage & Waste Management, and is aligned with NIC-2025, not NIC-2008.
The UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2026, held on 24 May 2026, was conducted at:
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Correct answer: A — 2,072 venues in 83 cities
UPSC conducted the examination at 2,072 examination venues in 83 examination centres (cities).
As per UPSC's provisional data, roughly what share of applicants appeared in the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2026?
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Correct answer: C — About 67%
Nearly 5.49 lakh of 8,19,732 applicants, about 67%, appeared; about 61% had appeared in 2025.
The real-time face authentication system used by UPSC for the first time in the Civil Services Prelims 2026 was developed through:
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Correct answer: B — National e-Governance Division (NeGD), MeitY
UPSC said the indigenously developed system through NeGD of MeitY worked across all 2,072 venues.
Consider the following statements about the UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination 2026: 1. The Indian Forest Service (Preliminary) Examination 2026 was held along with it. 2. More candidates applied for it than for the 2025 examination. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The IFS (Prelims) 2026 was held along with it. 8,19,732 applied in 2026 against nearly 9.5 lakh in 2025, so statement 2 is wrong.
From which date will the VB–G RAM G Act, 2025 commence, with MGNREGS continuing until then?
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Correct answer: B — 1 July 2026
The Ministry said Mahatma Gandhi NREGS will continue till the commencement of the VB–G RAM G Act on 1 July 2026.
What MGNREGS labour budget was approved for June 2026 ahead of the switch to the VB–G RAM G Act?
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Correct answer: C — Over 45 crore persondays
An adequate labour budget of over 45 crore persondays was approved for June 2026.
Consider the following statements about the preparations for the VB–G RAM G Act, 2025 (May 2026): 1. Mother sanctions of ₹26,971 crore were issued under Mahatma Gandhi NREGS. 2. States were asked to prepare their shelf of works on the e-Gram Swaraj portal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
₹26,971 crore of mother sanctions were issued. The shelf of works is to be prepared through the Yuktdhara portal, not e-Gram Swaraj, so statement 2 is wrong.
The BHAVYA Scheme, whose guidelines DPIIT released in May 2026, aims to develop:
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Correct answer: D — 100 industrial parks with about ₹33,660 crore
The Scheme provides for 100 industrial parks over 2026-27 to 2031-32 with an outlay of about ₹33,660 crore.
Which body has been designated the Project Management Agency for the BHAVYA Scheme?
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Correct answer: A — National Industrial Corridor Development Corporation (NICDC)
The guidelines designate NICDC as the Project Management Agency for implementation and monitoring.
Over which period will the BHAVYA Scheme be implemented?
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Correct answer: B — 2026-27 to 2031-32
The 100 parks are to be developed over six years, 2026-27 to 2031-32.
Consider the following statements about the BHAVYA Scheme guidelines: 1. The minimum land requirement for a park is 25 acres in hilly states, north-eastern states, Union Territories and smaller states. 2. Up to 50 industrial parks will be taken up in the first phase through a challenge-based competitive selection. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: 25 acres (100 acres in non-hilly states) is the minimum, and up to 50 parks are taken up first through challenge-based selection.
During Cypriot President Nikos Christodoulides' State Visit (May 2026), India–Cyprus relations were elevated to a:
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Correct answer: B — Strategic Partnership
The leaders agreed to elevate the bilateral Comprehensive Partnership to a Strategic Partnership.
Under which pillar of the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI) did Cyprus join in May 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Trade, Connectivity and Maritime Transport
The list of outcomes records Cyprus joining the IPOI under the pillar 'Trade, Connectivity and Maritime Transport'.
On which date was the first-ever India–Cyprus Space Day celebrated?
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Correct answer: A — 18 May 2026
The list of outcomes mentions the celebration of the first-ever India–Cyprus Space Day on 18 May 2026.
India and Cyprus agreed to commemorate the 65th anniversary of the establishment of their diplomatic relations in:
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Correct answer: B — 2027
Both sides agreed to mark the 65th anniversary of diplomatic relations in 2027 with special events.
Consider the following statements about the outcomes of the India–Cyprus State Visit (May 2026): 1. A Roadmap for Defence Cooperation between India and Cyprus for 2026–2031 was announced. 2. Cyprus announced its intention to open a Cyprus Trade Center in Bengaluru. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The defence roadmap for 2026–2031 was announced. The proposed Cyprus Trade Center is in Mumbai, not Bengaluru, so statement 2 is wrong.
Which UN agency conferred its Agricola Medal for 2026 on Prime Minister Narendra Modi in May 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
FAO conferred the Agricola Medal for 2026 at its headquarters in Rome on 20 May 2026.
Who presented the Agricola Medal 2026 to PM Modi at FAO Headquarters?
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Correct answer: D — Qu Dongyu
PIB: the Prime Minister received the award from Dr Qu Dongyu, Director General of FAO.
According to the Prime Minister's remarks at FAO, about how many climate-resilient crop varieties has India developed in the last 10 years?
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Correct answer: B — 3,000
The Prime Minister stated that India had developed around 3,000 climate-resilient crop varieties in the last 10 years.