Sainik School (AISSEE) Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Filmmaker Shyam Benegal, who died on 23 December 2024, is best known as a pioneer of which movement in Indian cinema?
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Correct answer: A — Parallel cinema
The New Indian Express and The Hindu: Shyam Benegal heralded the 'parallel movement' in Hindi cinema in the 1970s and 1980s with films such as Ankur, Mandi and Manthan.
Shyam Benegal's film Manthan, restored and screened at Cannes in 2024, was based on the milk cooperative movement of which place?
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Correct answer: C — Anand, Gujarat
The New Indian Express and The Hindu: Manthan was based on the milk cooperative movement in Anand, Gujarat, and its restored version was shown at the Cannes Film Festival in 2024.
Shyam Benegal's last film, released in 2023, was a biopic of which leader?
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Correct answer: D — Sheikh Mujibur Rahman
The New Indian Express and The Hindu: Benegal's most recent work was Mujib: The Making of a Nation (2023), a biopic of Sheikh Mujibur Rahman. A film on Noor Inayat Khan remained unmade.
The revised detention policy notified by the Centre in December 2024 under the RTE rules applies to students of which grades?
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Correct answer: B — Grades 5 and 8
PIB (Ministry of Education): the revised "Detention Policy" applies to students in Grades 5 and 8 of schools run by the Central Government or by UTs without a legislature.
Under the RTE (Amendment) Rules, 2024, within what period of the declaration of results must a student who fails the annual examination get a re-examination?
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Correct answer: C — Two months
PIB (Ministry of Education): a student who fails to meet the promotion criteria gets additional instruction and a re-examination within two months of the declaration of results.
Consider the following statements about the RTE (Amendment) Rules, 2024: 1. They apply to schools established, owned or controlled by the Central Government or by the administrator of a UT having no legislature. 2. They allow a child to be expelled from school before completing elementary education. 3. They were notified through G.S.R. 777(E) dated 21 December 2024. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 3 only
PIB (Ministry of Education): statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is wrong because the amendment reinforces that no child shall be expelled from school until the completion of elementary education.
To what level did India and Kuwait elevate their bilateral relations during PM Narendra Modi's visit in December 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Strategic Partnership
PIB (PMO) joint statement: the two leaders agreed to elevate the relations between India and Kuwait to a 'Strategic Partnership'.
Which international organisation did Kuwait join as one of the outcomes of PM Modi's visit in December 2024?
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Correct answer: D — International Solar Alliance
PIB (PMO) list of outcomes: Kuwait's membership of the International Solar Alliance (ISA) was one of the outcomes of the visit.
PM Narendra Modi attended the opening ceremony of which sporting event in Kuwait on 21 December 2024 as Guest of Honour of the Amir?
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Correct answer: A — 26th Arabian Gulf Cup
PIB (PMO) joint statement: Prime Minister Modi attended the opening ceremony of the 26th Arabian Gulf Cup in Kuwait on 21 December 2024 as Guest of Honour of the Amir.
Consider the following outcomes of PM Modi's visit to Kuwait in December 2024: 1. An MoU on cooperation in the field of defence. 2. A Cultural Exchange Programme for 2025–2029. 3. A Joint Commission on Cooperation headed by the National Security Advisers of both countries. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB (PMO): statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong because the Joint Commission on Cooperation will be headed by the Foreign Ministers of both countries.
Which award did the Amir of Kuwait confer on PM Narendra Modi on 22 December 2024?
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Correct answer: C — The Order of Mubarak Al-Kabeer
PIB (PMO): the Amir of Kuwait conferred The Order of Mubarak Al-Kabeer, the highest national award of Kuwait, on PM Modi.
In which year was Kuwait's Order of Mubarak Al-Kabeer instituted?
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Correct answer: A — 1974
PIB (PMO): The Order of Mubarak Al-Kabeer was instituted in 1974 and has since been conferred on select global leaders.
PM Modi's visit to Kuwait in December 2024 was the first by an Indian Prime Minister to that country in how many years?
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Correct answer: D — 43 years
PIB (PMO): the award was conferred during the historic visit of a Prime Minister of India to Kuwait after 43 years.
According to the India State of Forest Report 2023, what share of India's geographical area is under forest and tree cover?
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Correct answer: B — 25.17%
PIB (MoEFCC): ISFR 2023 puts India's total forest and tree cover at 8,27,357 sq km, which is 25.17% of the geographical area (forest cover 21.76%, tree cover 3.41%).
As per ISFR 2023, which State/UT has the highest forest cover as a percentage of its geographical area?
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Correct answer: A — Lakshadweep
PIB (MoEFCC): Lakshadweep (91.33%) has the highest forest cover in percentage terms, followed by Mizoram (85.34%) and Andaman & Nicobar Islands (81.62%).
Which State showed the maximum increase in forest cover (242 sq km) in ISFR 2023?
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Correct answer: D — Mizoram
PIB (MoEFCC): the top three States showing maximum increase in forest cover are Mizoram (242 sq km), Gujarat (180 sq km) and Odisha (152 sq km). Chhattisgarh led the increase in combined forest and tree cover (684 sq km).
Consider the following statements about the India State of Forest Report 2023: 1. It is brought out by the Forest Survey of India on a biennial basis since 1987. 2. It is the 18th report in the series. 3. It was released at the Indira Gandhi National Forest Academy, Dehradun. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB (MoEFCC): statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong because ISFR 2023 was released at the Forest Research Institute (FRI), Dehradun.
What MSP has been fixed for Fair Average Quality milling copra for the 2025 season?
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Correct answer: A — ₹11,582 per quintal
PIB (Cabinet): the MSP for Fair Average Quality milling copra has been fixed at ₹11,582 per quintal and for ball copra at ₹12,100 per quintal for the 2025 season.
What MSP has been fixed for ball copra for the 2025 season?
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Correct answer: C — ₹12,100 per quintal
PIB (Cabinet): the MSP for ball copra has been fixed at ₹12,100 per quintal for the 2025 season, up 120% from ₹5,500 in 2014.
Which agencies act as Central Nodal Agencies for procurement of copra and de-husked coconut under the Price Support Scheme?
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Correct answer: D — NAFED and NCCF
PIB (Cabinet): NAFED and the National Cooperative Consumers' Federation (NCCF) will continue to act as Central Nodal Agencies for procurement of copra and de-husked coconut under the Price Support Scheme.
What was the approximate productivity of the Lok Sabha in the Winter Session 2024, according to the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs?
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Correct answer: D — 54.5%
PIB (Parliamentary Affairs): the productivity of the Lok Sabha was approximately 54.5% and that of the Rajya Sabha approximately 40%.
Which Bill was passed by both Houses of Parliament during the Winter Session 2024?
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Correct answer: B — The Bharatiya Vayuyan Vidheyak, 2024
PIB (Parliamentary Affairs): one Bill, 'The Bhartiya Vayuyaan Vidheyak, 2024', which re-enacts the Aircraft Act, 1934, was passed by both Houses during the session.
Consider the following statements about the Winter Session 2024 of Parliament: 1. It began on 25 November 2024 and was adjourned sine die on 20 December 2024. 2. The Constitution (One Hundred and Twenty-Ninth Amendment) Bill, 2024 was referred to a Joint Parliamentary Committee on 20 December 2024. 3. The Rajya Sabha held more sittings than the Lok Sabha during the session. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Parliamentary Affairs): statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong because the session had 20 sittings of the Lok Sabha and 19 of the Rajya Sabha.
The destroyer Surat, delivered to the Indian Navy on 20 December 2024, is the fourth and final ship of which project?
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Correct answer: B — Project 15B
PIB (Defence): Yard 12707 Surat is the fourth and final Project 15B stealth guided missile destroyer, following Visakhapatnam, Mormugao and Imphal.
Which propulsion arrangement powers the destroyer Surat?
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Correct answer: D — COGAG (Combined Gas and Gas) with four gas turbines
PIB (Defence): Surat is powered by a Combined Gas and Gas (COGAG) propulsion set comprising four gas turbines, and exceeded 30 knots during sea trials.
The Project 17A frigate Nilgiri is a follow-on of which class of frigates already in service?
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Correct answer: A — Shivalik class (Project 17)
PIB (Defence): Yard 12651 Nilgiri, the first Project 17A stealth frigate, is a follow-on of the Shivalik class (Project 17) frigates active in service.
Consider the following statements about the warships delivered to the Indian Navy on 20 December 2024: 1. Surat has a displacement of 7,400 tonnes. 2. Surat is poised to be the Indian Navy's first AI-enabled warship. 3. The seven Project 17A frigates are being built at MDL, Mumbai and Cochin Shipyard, Kochi. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Defence): statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong because the seven P17A frigates are under construction at MDL, Mumbai and GRSE, Kolkata.
INS Nirdeshak, commissioned on 18 December 2024, belongs to which class of naval ships?
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Correct answer: D — Survey Vessel (Large)
PIB (Defence): INS Nirdeshak is the second ship of the Survey Vessel (Large) project.
Which shipyard is building the four ships of the Survey Vessel (Large) project, including INS Nirdeshak?
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Correct answer: D — Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers, Kolkata
PIB (Defence): INS Nirdeshak is the second of four Survey Vessel (Large) ships under construction at GRSE, Kolkata.
Where was INS Nirdeshak commissioned into the Indian Navy?
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Correct answer: A — Naval Dockyard, Visakhapatnam
PIB (Defence): INS Nirdeshak was commissioned on 18 December 2024 at Naval Dockyard, Visakhapatnam, in a ceremony presided over by Raksha Rajya Mantri Sanjay Seth.
Along with the Constitution (One Hundred and Twenty-Ninth Amendment) Bill, 2024, which other Bill was introduced in the Lok Sabha on 17 December 2024 for simultaneous elections?
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Correct answer: B — Union Territories Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2024
PIB (Parliamentary Affairs): the Constitution (One Hundred and Twenty-Ninth Amendment) Bill, 2024 and the Union Territories Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2024 were introduced in the Lok Sabha on 17 December 2024.
Who headed the High-Level Committee on Simultaneous Elections whose recommendations were accepted by the Union Cabinet on 18 September 2024?
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Correct answer: D — Ram Nath Kovind
PIB (Law and Justice): the High-Level Committee on Simultaneous Elections was headed by former President Ram Nath Kovind; its recommendations were accepted by the Union Cabinet on 18 September 2024.
Under the High-Level Committee's phased approach to simultaneous elections, elections to municipalities and panchayats are to be synchronised with Lok Sabha and State Assembly elections within how many days?
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Correct answer: A — 100 days
PIB (Law and Justice): Phase 1 synchronises Lok Sabha and State Assembly elections; Phase 2 synchronises elections for municipalities and panchayats with them within 100 days.
What is Kisan Kavach, launched by the Ministry of Science and Technology in December 2024?
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Correct answer: A — An anti-pesticide bodysuit for farmers
PIB (Science & Technology): Kisan Kavach is Bharat's first-of-its-kind anti-pesticide bodysuit, designed to protect farmers from the harmful effects of pesticide exposure.
Kisan Kavach was developed by BRIC-inStem, Bengaluru in collaboration with which company?
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Correct answer: C — Sepio Health Pvt Ltd
PIB (Science & Technology): Kisan Kavach was developed by BRIC-inStem, Bangalore, in collaboration with Sepio Health Pvt Ltd.
Consider the following statements about Kisan Kavach: 1. It is priced at ₹4,000. 2. It is washable and reusable and can last up to a year. 3. Its fabric deactivates pesticides on contact. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (Science & Technology): the washable and reusable suit is priced at ₹4,000, can last up to a year, and uses fabric technology that deactivates harmful pesticides upon contact. All three statements are correct.
What is the corpus of the Credit Guarantee Scheme for e-NWR based Pledge Financing (CGS-NPF) launched on 16 December 2024?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1,000 crore
PIB (Consumer Affairs, Food & PD): the scheme provides a corpus of ₹1,000 crore for post-harvest finance availed by farmers against e-NWRs.
CGS-NPF provides guarantee cover for loans against electronic negotiable warehouse receipts for produce stored in warehouses registered with which body?
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Correct answer: D — Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority
PIB (Consumer Affairs, Food & PD): the scheme covers pledge finance against e-NWRs for farmers/traders who store produce in warehouses registered with the Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority (WDRA).
Consider the following statements about CGS-NPF: 1. It was launched by Union Minister Pralhad Joshi. 2. It addresses default arising from both credit risk and warehouseman risk. 3. It is expected to boost post-harvest lending to ₹55,000 crore in the next 10 years. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (Consumer Affairs, Food & PD): Pralhad Joshi launched the scheme, and it addresses default arising from both credit risk and warehouseman risk. Statement 3 is incorrect: the Food Secretary said it is expected to boost post-harvest lending to ₹5.5 lakh crore in the next 10 years.
Under the India–Sri Lanka Joint Statement of 16 December 2024, how many Sri Lankan civil servants are to be trained over five years through India's National Centre for Good Governance?
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Correct answer: B — 1,500
PIB (PMO): the leaders agreed to organise focused training of 1500 Sri Lankan civil servants across ministries and departments over a period of five years through the National Centre for Good Governance in India.
In the India–Sri Lanka Joint Statement of December 2024, the leaders agreed that officials should work towards the early recommencement of the passenger ferry service between:
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Correct answer: B — Rameshwaram and Talaimannar
PIB (PMO): while expressing satisfaction at the resumption of the Nagapattinam–Kankesanthurai ferry, the leaders agreed that officials should work towards the early recommencement of the passenger ferry service between Rameshwaram and Talaimannar.
Consider the following statements about the India–Sri Lanka Joint Statement of 16 December 2024: 1. The leaders agreed to take steps towards implementing the solar power project in Sampur. 2. India extended USD 20.66 million to settle payments due for projects completed under existing Lines of Credit. 3. The leaders decided to support the development of Hambantota as a regional energy and industrial hub. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB (PMO): statements 1 and 2 are in the joint statement. Statement 3 is incorrect: the leaders decided to support the development of Trincomalee, not Hambantota, as a regional energy and industrial hub.
Ustad Zakir Hussain, whose death the Prime Minister condoled on 16 December 2024, was a maestro of which instrument?
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Correct answer: B — Tabla
PIB (PMO): the Prime Minister condoled the passing of legendary tabla maestro Ustad Zakir Hussain, saying he brought the tabla to the global stage.
According to his family, Ustad Zakir Hussain died in San Francisco from complications of which condition?
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Correct answer: D — Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
The Hindu and Hindustan Times: his family said Zakir Hussain died at a hospital in San Francisco from complications of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, at the age of 73.
In December 2024, the RBI raised the limit for collateral-free agricultural loans per borrower to:
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Correct answer: B — ₹2 lakh
PIB (Agriculture): the existing collateral-free agricultural loan limit of ₹1.6 lakh per borrower has been raised to ₹2 lakh, effective 1 January 2025.
Consider the following statements about the RBI's revised collateral-free agricultural loan limit: 1. The limit also applies to loans for allied activities. 2. The revised limit is effective from 1 April 2025. 3. The Modified Interest Subvention Scheme offers loans up to ₹3 lakh at a 4% effective interest rate. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
PIB (Agriculture): the limit covers agricultural loans including allied activities, and the MISS offers loans up to ₹3 lakh at a 4% effective rate. Statement 2 is incorrect: the change is effective from 1 January 2025.
Small and marginal farmers, expected to benefit most from the RBI's December 2024 increase in the collateral-free agricultural loan limit, make up over what share of the farm sector?
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Correct answer: D — 86%
The Agriculture Ministry said the move would benefit small and marginal farmers, who make up over 86% of the sector.
The 'District-level Climate Risk Assessment for India' report released on 13 December 2024 analysed flood and drought risks across how many districts?
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Correct answer: B — 698
PIB (Science & Technology): the report contains an in-depth analysis of flood and drought risks across 698 districts in India and was released on 13 December 2024 at IIT Delhi.
Which institutions developed the 'District-level Climate Risk Assessment for India' report released in December 2024?
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Correct answer: A — IIT Mandi, IIT Guwahati and CSTEP Bengaluru
PIB (Science & Technology): the report was developed by IIT Mandi, IIT Guwahati and CSTEP Bengaluru, supported by DST in collaboration with the Swiss Agency for Development and Cooperation.
According to the District-level Climate Risk Assessment report (December 2024), which of the following districts is NOT among the 11 districts at 'Very High' risk of both flood and drought?
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Correct answer: D — Barmer
PIB (Science & Technology): the 11 dual-risk districts are Patna (Bihar); Alappuzha (Kerala); Charaideo, Dibrugarh, Sibsagar, South Salmara Mankachar and Golaghat (Assam); Kendrapara (Odisha); and Murshidabad, Nadia and Uttar Dinajpur (West Bengal). Barmer is not on the list.
Under India's Green Steel Taxonomy (December 2024), five-star green-rated steel must have an emission intensity lower than how many tonnes of CO2e per tonne of finished steel?
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Correct answer: A — 1.6
PIB (Steel): five-star green-rated steel has emission intensity lower than 1.6 t-CO2e/tfs; four-star is 1.6-2.0, three-star 2.0-2.2, and steel above 2.2 is not eligible.
Which body is the nodal agency for measurement, reporting and verification and for issuing greenness certificates under India's Green Steel Taxonomy?
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Correct answer: D — National Institute of Secondary Steel Technology
PIB (Steel): the National Institute of Secondary Steel Technology (NISST) shall serve as the nodal agency for MRV and for issuing greenness certificates and star ratings, on a yearly basis.
Consider the following statements about India's Green Steel Taxonomy: 1. India is the first nation to release a taxonomy of green steel. 2. The star-rating thresholds will be reviewed every five years. 3. Steel with emission intensity above 2.2 t-CO2e per tonne of finished steel is not eligible for a green rating. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
PIB (Steel): India is the first nation to release a green steel taxonomy, and steel above 2.2 t-CO2e/tfs is not eligible for green rating. Statement 2 is incorrect: thresholds will be reviewed every three years.
As announced in December 2024, India's gross FDI inflows since April 2000 have reached:
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Correct answer: C — $1 trillion
PIB (Commerce & Industry): India's gross FDI inflows have reached $1 trillion since April 2000.
How much FDI did India receive in the first half of FY 2024-25, according to the Commerce Ministry?
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Correct answer: B — $42.1 billion
PIB (Commerce & Industry): FDI rose nearly 26% to $42.1 billion during the first half of the current fiscal year (2024-25).
Which session of the India-Russia Inter-Governmental Commission on Military & Military Technical Cooperation was held in Moscow on 10 December 2024?
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Correct answer: C — 21st
PIB (10 Dec 2024): the 21st session of the IRIGC-M&MTC was co-chaired by Rajnath Singh and Andrey Belousov in Moscow on December 10, 2024.
Who co-chaired the 21st IRIGC-M&MTC with Rajnath Singh on 10 December 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Andrey Belousov
PIB (10 Dec 2024): the session was co-chaired by Raksha Mantri Rajnath Singh and Russian Defence Minister Andrey Belousov.
The India-Russia Military Technical Cooperation agreement mentioned at the 21st IRIGC-M&MTC covers which period?
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Correct answer: D — 2021-31
PIB (10 Dec 2024): Belousov said the operationalisation of the Military Technical Cooperation agreement for 2021-31 will give necessary impetus to 'Make in India'.
Whom did Rajnath Singh call on in Moscow on 10 December 2024, on the margins of the IRIGC-M&MTC?
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Correct answer: B — Vladimir Putin
PIB (10 Dec 2024): Rajnath Singh called on the President of the Russian Federation Vladimir Putin in Moscow on the margins of the 21st IRIGC-M&MTC.
Consider the following about Rajnath Singh's visit to Moscow on 10 December 2024: 1. He laid a wreath at the Tomb of the Unknown Soldier. 2. The Russian Defence Minister congratulated him on the commissioning of INS Tushil. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. PIB (10 Dec 2024): before the meeting Rajnath Singh laid a wreath at 'The Tomb of the Unknown Soldier' in Moscow, and Belousov congratulated him on the commissioning of INS Tushil.
Where was INS Tushil commissioned into the Indian Navy on 9 December 2024?
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Correct answer: C — Yantar Shipyard, Kaliningrad
PIB (9 Dec 2024): INS Tushil (F 70) was commissioned in the presence of Rajnath Singh at the Yantar Shipyard in Kaliningrad, Russia on December 09, 2024.
What is the pennant number of INS Tushil?
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Correct answer: B — F 70
PIB (9 Dec 2024): INS Tushil (F 70), the latest multi-role stealth guided missile frigate, was commissioned into the Indian Navy.
INS Tushil is an upgraded frigate of which class and project?
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Correct answer: D — Krivak III class, Project 1135.6
PIB (9 Dec 2024): INS Tushil is an upgraded Krivak III class frigate of Project 1135.6.
What is INS Tushil's position in the Project 1135.6 series of frigates?
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Correct answer: A — Seventh
PIB (9 Dec 2024): six Project 1135.6 ships are already in service (three Talwar class and three Teg class); INS Tushil is the seventh in the series and the first of two upgraded additional follow-on ships.
Consider the following about INS Tushil: 1. Its keel was laid on 12 July 2013. 2. It is the first of the three Teg class ships built at Yantar Shipyard. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the keel was laid on July 12, 2013. Statement 2 is incorrect: the three Teg class ships are already in service; INS Tushil is the first of two upgraded additional follow-on ships.
Which capital city did Syrian rebel forces seize on 8 December 2024, ending Bashar al-Assad's rule?
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Correct answer: D — Damascus
Reuters (8 Dec 2024): Syrian rebels seized the capital Damascus unopposed on Sunday, sending President Bashar al-Assad fleeing to Russia; The Hindu also reports rebels claimed control of Damascus.
To which country did Bashar al-Assad flee after rebels took Damascus on 8 December 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Russia
Reuters (8 Dec 2024) and The Hindu (9 Dec 2024): President Bashar al-Assad fled to Russia; Reuters reports Moscow gave asylum to Assad and his family.
In its statement of 9 December 2024 on Syria, India's Ministry of External Affairs advocated:
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Correct answer: B — A peaceful and inclusive Syrian-led political process
The Hindu and Indian Express (9 Dec 2024): the MEA said 'We advocate a peaceful and inclusive Syrian-led political process respecting the interests and aspirations of all sections of Syrian society.'
The fall of Bashar al-Assad on 8 December 2024 ended his family's rule over Syria that had lasted roughly:
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Correct answer: C — Five decades
Reuters (8 Dec 2024): the capture of Damascus ended more than five decades of the Assad family's rule; The Hindu (9 Dec 2024) calls it the end of the 50-year-long Assad family rule.
Consider the following about the developments in Syria in December 2024: 1. President Bashar al-Assad fled to Russia after rebels took Damascus. 2. India's MEA underlined the need for all parties to work towards preserving Syria's unity, sovereignty and territorial integrity. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. Reuters (8 Dec 2024): Assad fled to Russia as rebels seized Damascus. The Hindu and Indian Express (9 Dec 2024): the MEA underlined the need for all parties to work towards preserving the unity, sovereignty and territorial integrity of Syria.
At what level did the RBI's Monetary Policy Committee keep the policy repo rate on 6 December 2024?
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Correct answer: B — 6.50%
RBI Governor's Statement (6 Dec 2024): the MPC decided by a 4 to 2 majority to keep the policy repo rate unchanged at 6.50 per cent; the SDF rate remains 6.25% and the MSF rate and Bank Rate 6.75%.
To what level did the RBI decide on 6 December 2024 to reduce the cash reserve ratio (CRR) of banks?
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Correct answer: D — 4.00% of NDTL
RBI (6 Dec 2024): the CRR of all banks is reduced by 50 bps in two equal tranches of 25 bps each to 4.0 per cent of NDTL, from the fortnights beginning December 14 and December 28, 2024, releasing about Rs 1.16 lakh crore.
What real GDP growth did the RBI project for 2024-25 in its policy of 6 December 2024?
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Correct answer: A — 6.6%
RBI Governor's Statement (6 Dec 2024): real GDP growth for 2024-25 is now projected at 6.6 per cent, with Q3 at 6.8 per cent and Q4 at 7.2 per cent.
On 6 December 2024, the RBI raised the limit for collateral-free agriculture loans to how much per borrower?
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Correct answer: C — Rs 2 lakh
RBI Governor's Statement (6 Dec 2024): the limit for collateral-free agriculture loans, last revised in 2019, is increased from Rs 1.6 lakh to Rs 2 lakh per borrower.
Consider the following about the RBI MPC decision of 6 December 2024: 1. The decision to keep the repo rate unchanged was taken by a 4 to 2 majority. 2. The MPC changed its stance from 'neutral' to 'accommodative'. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. RBI (6 Dec 2024): the MPC decided by a 4 to 2 majority to keep the repo rate at 6.50 per cent and decided unanimously to continue with the 'neutral' stance.
Which French Prime Minister was ousted in a no-confidence vote on 4 December 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Michel Barnier
BBC and Reuters (4 Dec 2024): French lawmakers passed a no-confidence motion against Prime Minister Michel Barnier, bringing down his government.
How many votes were cast in support of the no-confidence motion against Michel Barnier's government on 4 December 2024?
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Correct answer: A — 331
BBC and Reuters (4 Dec 2024): a total of 331 lawmakers voted in support of the no-confidence motion against Prime Minister Michel Barnier.
The fall of Michel Barnier's government on 4 December 2024 was the first time a French government lost a no-confidence vote since:
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Correct answer: C — 1962
BBC and Reuters (4 Dec 2024): it was the first time a French government had collapsed in a no-confidence vote since 1962.
Consider the following statements about the French no-confidence vote of 4 December 2024: 1. It followed Michel Barnier's use of special powers to push through his budget without a vote. 2. President Emmanuel Macron resigned after the vote. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
BBC and Reuters (4 Dec 2024): the motion followed Barnier's use of special powers to force through his budget without a vote, so statement 1 is correct. BBC reports Macron had said he would not resign whatever the outcome and was due to address the nation, so statement 2 is wrong. Answer: 1 only.
Where did the 4th edition of the India–Malaysia joint military exercise Harimau Shakti begin on 2 December 2024?
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Correct answer: C — Bentong camp, Pahang, Malaysia
PIB (2 Dec 2024): the 4th edition of Harimau Shakti commenced at Bentong camp, Pahang district, Malaysia.
Which edition of the India–Malaysia exercise Harimau Shakti commenced on 2 December 2024?
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Correct answer: A — 4th
PIB (2 Dec 2024): the 4th edition of India–Malaysia Joint Military Exercise HARIMAU SHAKTI commenced at Bentong camp.
Which regiment represented the Indian contingent at Exercise Harimau Shakti 2024?
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Correct answer: B — MAHAR Regiment
PIB (2 Dec 2024): the 78-member Indian contingent is represented by a Battalion of the MAHAR Regiment.
Exercise Harimau Shakti 2024 aims to enhance joint capability for counter-insurgency operations in jungle terrain under which chapter of the UN mandate?
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Correct answer: D — Chapter VII
PIB (2 Dec 2024): the aim is to enhance joint military capability to undertake counter-insurgency operations in jungle terrain under Chapter VII of the United Nations Mandate.
Consider the following statements about Exercise Harimau Shakti: 1. The 2024 edition is scheduled from 2 to 15 December 2024. 2. The previous edition was held in November 2023 at Umroi Cantonment in Meghalaya. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (2 Dec 2024): the exercise is scheduled from 2nd to 15th December 2024, and the last edition was conducted in Nov 2023 at Umroi Cantonment in Meghalaya. Both statements are correct. Answer: Both 1 and 2.
Consider the following statements about the 236th CBT meeting of EPFO (30 November 2024): 1. It amended paragraph 60(2)(b) of the EPF Scheme, 1952 so that interest is paid up to the date of settlement. 2. It was informed that the limit for auto claim settlement had been raised to ₹2 lakh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (Labour): the CBT amended para 60(2)(b) so that interest is paid up to the date of settlement (1 is correct). The auto claim settlement limit was extended to ₹1 lakh from ₹50,000, not ₹2 lakh (2 is wrong).
As ratified by EPFO's CBT on 30 November 2024, what are the minimum and maximum benefits under the extended EDLI scheme?
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Correct answer: D — ₹2.5 lakh and ₹7 lakh
PIB (Labour): the ratified EDLI extension provides a minimum benefit of Rs. 2.5 lakh and a maximum of up to Rs. 7 lakh.
The first pilot of EPFO's Centralised Pension Payment System (CPPS), completed in October 2024, was carried out in which places?
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Correct answer: B — Karnal, Jammu and Srinagar
PIB (Labour): the first CPPS pilot was completed in October 2024 in Karnal, Jammu and Srinagar; a second pilot covered 20 more Regional Offices in November.
According to NSO estimates released on 29 November 2024, India's real GDP grew by how much in Q2 (July–September) of 2024-25?
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Correct answer: B — 5.4%
PIB (MoSPI): real GDP grew 5.4% in Q2 of 2024-25, against 8.1% in Q2 of 2023-24. 6.0% was the H1 growth.
Consider the following statements about the Q2 2024-25 GDP estimates: 1. Manufacturing grew by 2.2% in Q2 of 2024-25. 2. Agriculture and allied sector grew by 3.5%, after growth of 0.4% to 2.0% in the previous four quarters. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (MoSPI): manufacturing grew 2.2%, and agriculture bounced back to 3.5% after sub-optimal growth of 0.4% to 2.0% in the previous four quarters. Both are correct.
What was the growth rate of nominal GDP (GDP at current prices) in Q2 of 2024-25, as estimated on 29 November 2024?
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Correct answer: A — 8.0%
PIB (MoSPI): nominal GDP in Q2 of 2024-25 was ₹76.60 lakh crore against ₹70.90 lakh crore, a growth of 8.0%. 8.9% was H1 nominal growth.
How many mineral blocks were offered in the first-ever tranche of offshore mineral block auctions launched on 28 November 2024?
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Correct answer: D — 13
PIB (Mines): the first tranche includes 13 mineral blocks spanning the Arabian Sea and the Andaman Sea.
The blocks in the first tranche of offshore mineral auctions (November 2024) are located in which seas?
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Correct answer: B — Arabian Sea and Andaman Sea
PIB (Mines): the 13 blocks span the Arabian Sea and the Andaman Sea.
Consider the following statements about the first offshore mineral auction tranche: 1. The blocks feature construction sand, lime-mud and polymetallic nodules and crusts. 2. The Geological Survey of India has identified about six lakh sq km of offshore area with potential for offshore mining. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (Mines): the tranche features construction sand, lime-mud and polymetallic nodules and crusts, and the Mines Secretary said GSI has identified about six lakh sq km of offshore area with mining potential. Both are correct.
Who launched the national 'Bal Vivah Mukt Bharat' campaign in New Delhi on 27 November 2024?
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Correct answer: C — Annapurna Devi
PIB (MWCD): Union Minister for Women and Child Development Annapurna Devi launched the campaign; MoS Savitri Thakur was also present.
Consider the following statements cited at the launch of 'Bal Vivah Mukt Bharat': 1. Under the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006, marriages of girls under 18 and boys under 21 are prohibited. 2. The sex ratio at birth improved from 918 in 2014-15 to 930 in 2023-24. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (MWCD): the Minister cited both — the PCMA 2006 age limits (girls under 18, boys under 21) and the improvement in sex ratio at birth from 918 to 930. Both are correct.
The 'Bal Vivah Mukt Bharat' launch coincided with the 16 Days of Activism Against Gender-Based Violence. This global campaign runs between which two days?
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Correct answer: A — 25 November to 10 December
PIB (MWCD): the 16 Days of Activism run from 25 November (International Day for the Elimination of Violence Against Women) to 10 December (Human Rights Day).
According to Basic Animal Husbandry Statistics 2024, released on 26 November 2024, what was India's milk production in 2023-24?
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Correct answer: D — 239.30 million tonnes
PIB (DAHD): milk production in 2023-24 was 239.30 million tonnes, up 3.78% over 2022-23; it was 146.3 million tonnes in 2014-15.
As per BAHS 2024, which State had the largest share of India's milk production in 2023-24?
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Correct answer: A — Uttar Pradesh
PIB (DAHD): Uttar Pradesh led with 16.21%, followed by Rajasthan (14.51%), Madhya Pradesh (8.91%), Gujarat (7.65%) and Maharashtra (6.71%).
Consider the following statements based on BAHS 2024: 1. Andhra Pradesh had the largest share of India's egg production in 2023-24. 2. Rajasthan had the largest share of India's wool production in 2023-24. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (DAHD): Andhra Pradesh led egg production with 17.85% and Rajasthan led wool production with 47.53%. Both are correct.
What total amount did the High-Level Committee chaired by Amit Shah approve for disaster mitigation and capacity-building projects (announced 26 November 2024)?
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Correct answer: B — ₹1,115.67 crore
PIB (MHA): the HLC approved ₹1,115.67 crore — ₹1,000 crore for landslide mitigation and ₹115.67 crore for Civil Defence training.
The ₹1,000-crore National Landslide Risk Mitigation project approved by the HLC in November 2024 is to be funded from which fund?
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Correct answer: C — National Disaster Mitigation Fund
PIB (MHA): the landslide proposal was considered for funding from the National Disaster Mitigation Fund (NDMF).
Consider the following statements about the HLC approvals announced on 26 November 2024: 1. The National Landslide Risk Mitigation project covers 15 States. 2. The Civil Defence training and capacity-building project covers only the North Eastern States. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (MHA): the landslide project covers 15 States, but the ₹115.67-crore Civil Defence project covers all States and UTs. Only 1 is correct.