Sainik School (AISSEE) Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Under the Scheme to Promote Manufacturing of Electric Passenger Cars in India, at what reduced customs duty can approved applicants import e-4W CBUs?
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Correct answer: D — 15%
Approved applicants can import CBUs of e-4W with a minimum CIF value of USD 35,000 at a reduced customs duty of 15% for five years from the Application Approval Date.
What is the minimum investment commitment required from approved applicants under SPMEPCI?
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Correct answer: A — ₹4,150 crore
Approved applicants must make a minimum investment of ₹4,150 crore (about USD 500 million) within a three-year window.
What is the annual cap on the number of e-4Ws that an approved applicant can import at the reduced duty under SPMEPCI?
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Correct answer: C — 8,000
The maximum number of e-4W allowed to be imported at the reduced duty rate is capped at 8,000 per year, with carryover of unutilised limits permitted.
Consider the following statements about the Scheme to Promote Manufacturing of Electric Passenger Cars in India (SPMEPCI): 1. Only e-4W CBUs with a minimum CIF value of USD 35,000 qualify for the reduced customs duty. 2. Approved applicants must commence manufacturing operations within five years of approval. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the reduced duty applies to e-4W CBUs with a minimum CIF value of USD 35,000. Statement 2 is incorrect: applicants must set up the facility and commence manufacturing of e-4W within three years.
What were India's gross GST collections for May 2025, according to data released on 1 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹2.01 lakh crore
Gross GST collections for May 2025 stood at ₹2,01,050 crore, or about ₹2.01 lakh crore.
By what percentage did gross GST collections in May 2025 grow over May 2024?
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Correct answer: D — 16.4%
Gross GST collections rose 16.4% year-on-year in May 2025, to ₹2,01,050 crore.
Consider the following statements about GST collections for May 2025: 1. GST revenue from imports grew faster than revenue from domestic transactions. 2. Collections in April 2025 had touched an all-time high of ₹2.37 lakh crore. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. Import GST grew 25.2% against 13.7% for domestic transactions, and collections in April 2025 had reached an all-time high of ₹2.37 lakh crore.
Which component accounted for the largest share of gross GST collections in May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — IGST
IGST, at ₹1,08,836 crore, was the largest component of the ₹2,01,050 crore gross GST collected in May 2025, making it the largest single component.
As per the NSO's Provisional Estimates released on 30 May 2025, India's real GDP grew by how much in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: B — 6.5%
Real GDP growth for 2024-25 was estimated at 6.5%; 9.8% was nominal GDP growth and 7.4% was Q4 real growth.
What was India's real GDP growth in the January–March quarter (Q4) of 2024-25, as per the NSO?
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Correct answer: D — 7.4%
The NSO estimated real GDP growth of 7.4% in Q4 of 2024-25; nominal growth was 10.8%.
Which sector recorded the highest growth rate (9.4%) in FY 2024-25 as per the Provisional Estimates?
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Correct answer: A — Construction
Construction was estimated to grow 9.4%, followed by Public Administration, Defence & Other Services (8.9%).
For how many kharif crops did the Cabinet approve increased MSPs for marketing season 2025-26?
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Correct answer: B — 14
The CCEA approved increased MSPs for 14 kharif crops.
Which kharif crop saw the highest absolute increase in MSP for marketing season 2025-26?
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Correct answer: D — Nigerseed
Nigerseed had the highest absolute increase (₹820 per quintal), followed by ragi (₹596), cotton (₹589) and sesamum (₹579).
What is the MSP of common paddy for kharif marketing season 2025-26?
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Correct answer: A — ₹2,369 per quintal
Common paddy MSP is ₹2,369 per quintal (up from ₹2,300); ₹2,389 is Grade A paddy and ₹2,400 is maize.
In its updated forecast of May 2025, what did IMD forecast for the 2025 southwest monsoon seasonal rainfall over the country as a whole?
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Correct answer: C — 106% of LPA
IMD forecast 106% of the Long Period Average with a model error of ±4%.
According to IMD's updated 2025 monsoon forecast, which region is likely to receive below-normal rainfall?
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Correct answer: A — Northeast India
Northeast India is likely to get below-normal rain (<94% of LPA); Central India and the South Peninsula above normal; Northwest India normal.
Consider the following statements about IMD's updated 2025 southwest monsoon forecast: 1. The Monsoon Core Zone is forecast to receive above-normal rainfall. 2. Northwest India is expected to receive normal rainfall in the range of 92–108% of LPA. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the Monsoon Core Zone is forecast above normal and Northwest India normal (92–108% of LPA).
Which agency will execute the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA) programme under the execution model approved in May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Aeronautical Development Agency
The Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) will execute the AMCA programme through industry partnership.
Consider the following statements about the AMCA Programme Execution Model approved in May 2025: 1. Only public sector undertakings are eligible to bid. 2. A bidder may bid independently, as a joint venture or as a consortium, but must be an Indian company. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: private and public sectors get equal opportunities on a competitive basis. Statement 2 is correct.
After approval of the AMCA execution model, what is the Aeronautical Development Agency to issue next for the AMCA Development Phase?
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Correct answer: D — Expression of Interest (EoI)
ADA is to shortly issue an Expression of Interest (EoI) for the AMCA Development Phase.
What was India's total FDI inflow (provisional) in FY 2024-25 as per the Commerce Ministry?
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Correct answer: B — USD 81.04 billion
FDI inflow was USD 81.04 billion (provisional) in FY 2024-25, up 14% from USD 71.28 billion in FY 2023-24.
Which country was the largest source of FDI equity inflows into India in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: C — Singapore
Singapore led with a 30% share, followed by Mauritius (17%) and the United States (11%).
Consider the following statements about FDI in FY 2024-25: 1. Maharashtra received the highest share of FDI equity inflows among states. 2. Computer software and hardware was the top sector for FDI equity, ahead of services. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct (Maharashtra 39%). Statement 2 is wrong: services led with 19%, ahead of computer software and hardware (16%).
What is the resolution of the Bharat Forecast System launched in May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 6 km
The Bharat Forecast System improves resolution from 12 km to 6 km.
Which institute developed the Bharat Forecast System?
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Correct answer: D — Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology, Pune
It was developed by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune.
Consider the following statements about the Bharat Forecast System: 1. Its development was spearheaded by four women scientists. 2. It is meant to enable village-specific forecasts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
What was the theme of the 10th Governing Council meeting of NITI Aayog held in May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Viksit Rajya for Viksit Bharat@2047
The theme was 'Viksit Rajya for Viksit Bharat@2047'.
How many States and Union Territories were represented at the 10th Governing Council meeting of NITI Aayog?
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Correct answer: D — 24 States and 7 UTs
Chief Ministers and Lt Governors of 24 States and 7 UTs attended.
At the 10th Governing Council meeting, the Prime Minister asked NITI Aayog to prepare which document for attracting investments?
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Correct answer: A — An Investment-friendly Charter
The PM asked NITI Aayog to prepare an 'Investment-friendly Charter'.
Consider the following statements about the 10th Governing Council meeting of NITI Aayog: 1. It was held at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi. 2. The PM urged each State to develop at least one global-standard tourist destination. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the NITI Aayog release.
Under the Ministry of Ayush–WHO agreement of 24 May 2025, a dedicated Traditional Medicine module is being developed under which WHO classification?
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Correct answer: C — International Classification of Health Interventions (ICHI)
The agreement begins work on a Traditional Medicine module under the International Classification of Health Interventions (ICHI).
The International Classification of Health Interventions (ICHI) complements which other WHO classification?
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Correct answer: A — ICD-11
ICHI, which documents treatments and health interventions, complements WHO's International Classification of Diseases (ICD-11).
Consider the following statements about the Traditional Medicine module under ICHI: 1. ICHI primarily records diagnoses of diseases. 2. The module will recognise therapies from Ayurveda, Yoga, Siddha and Unani in globally standardised terms. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: ICHI documents treatments and health interventions; diagnoses are classified in ICD-11. Statement 2 is correct.
At the Rising North East Investors Summit 2025, what did the Prime Minister say 'EAST' stands for in the government's policy for the region?
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Correct answer: B — Empower, Act, Strengthen, Transform
The PM said EAST means 'Empower, Act, Strengthen and Transform'.
According to the Prime Minister's address at the Rising North East Investors Summit 2025, what is the length of the Northeast Gas Grid?
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Correct answer: A — 1,600 km
The PM cited the establishment of a 1,600-km-long Northeast Gas Grid.
Consider the following statements made at the Rising North East Investors Summit 2025: 1. The Kaladan Multimodal Transit Project will link Kolkata Port to Myanmar's Sittwe Port, with a trade route through Mizoram. 2. Guwahati, Imphal and Agartala are being developed as Multi-Modal Logistics Hubs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are from the PM's address as published by PIB.
Rule 49M of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, mentioned in ECI's May 2025 instructions on mobile deposit facility, relates to:
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Correct answer: D — Secrecy of voting within the polling station
ECI said Rule 49M, which ensures secrecy of voting within the polling station, will continue to be strictly enforced.
Consider the following statements about ECI's instructions of 23 May 2025: 1. Voters may carry mobile phones inside the polling station if the phones are switched off. 2. Booths set up by candidates for issuing unofficial identity slips can now be set up just beyond 100 metres of a polling station. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: phones are allowed within 100 m only switched off and must be deposited; they cannot be carried inside. Statement 2 is correct.
Under ECI's May 2025 mobile deposit instructions, who can exempt certain polling stations from the provision based on adverse local circumstances?
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Correct answer: C — Returning Officer
The Returning Officer can exempt certain polling stations based on adverse local circumstances.
How many Kirti Chakras were conferred at Phase-I of the Defence Investiture Ceremony 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Six (four posthumous)
Six Kirti Chakras, including four posthumous, were conferred.
Consider the following statements about Phase-I of the Defence Investiture Ceremony 2025: 1. 33 Shaurya Chakras, including seven posthumous, were conferred. 2. The ceremony was held at the Manekshaw Centre, New Delhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the ceremony was held at Rashtrapati Bhavan.
'Heart Lamp', the winner of the International Booker Prize 2025, was originally written in which language?
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Correct answer: B — Kannada
Heart Lamp by Banu Mushtaq was translated from Kannada by Deepa Bhasthi.
Consider the following statements about the International Booker Prize 2025: 1. Heart Lamp is the first collection of short stories to win the prize. 2. Banu Mushtaq is the first Indian author to win the International Booker Prize. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: Mushtaq is the second Indian author to win, after Geetanjali Shree in 2022.
Who translated Banu Mushtaq's 'Heart Lamp', becoming the first Indian translator to win the International Booker Prize?
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Correct answer: C — Deepa Bhasthi
Deepa Bhasthi translated Heart Lamp and became the first Indian translator to win the prize. (Polly Barton and Asa Yoneda translated other 2025 longlisted/shortlisted books; Sana Goyal was a 2025 judge.)
How is the £50,000 prize money of the International Booker Prize distributed?
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Correct answer: D — Equally between the author and the translator
The prize money is divided equally between the author and the translator.
Justice Bhushan Ramkrishna Gavai, sworn in on 14 May 2025, is which Chief Justice of India?
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Correct answer: C — 52nd
Justice B.R. Gavai is the 52nd Chief Justice of India; he succeeded Justice Sanjiv Khanna.
Consider the following statements about Chief Justice B.R. Gavai: 1. He succeeded Justice Sanjiv Khanna as Chief Justice of India. 2. He is the second Chief Justice of India from the Scheduled Caste community, after Justice K.G. Balakrishnan. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.
Where was Justice B.R. Gavai sworn in as Chief Justice of India on 14 May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Ganatantra Mandap, Rashtrapati Bhavan
The ceremony was held in the Ganatantra Mandap, Rashtrapati Bhavan, where he took the oath before the President.
All-India CPI-based headline inflation for April 2025 (provisional) was:
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Correct answer: C — 3.16%
Headline CPI inflation was 3.16%. 2.92% was rural inflation and 1.78% was food inflation.
Consider the following statements about CPI data for April 2025: 1. Headline CPI inflation was the lowest year-on-year rate since July 2019. 2. Food inflation (CFPI) was the lowest since October 2021. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per MoSPI's release of 13 May 2025.
The Consumer Price Index released by MoSPI for April 2025 uses which base year?
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Correct answer: D — 2012
The CPI numbers are on base 2012=100.
In his address to the nation on 12 May 2025, the Prime Minister said Operation Sindoor was carried out on:
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Correct answer: B — 6–7 May
As per the PIB release, the PM said the pledge of Operation Sindoor was fulfilled on 6-7 May.
In the address of 12 May 2025, the Prime Minister said any talks with Pakistan would focus on:
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Correct answer: C — Terrorism and PoK
The PM said any discussions with Pakistan would focus on terrorism and Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (PoK).
Consider the following statements about the Prime Minister's address of 12 May 2025: 1. One of the three pillars he outlined was no tolerance for nuclear blackmail. 2. He said India had permanently ended its counter-operations against Pakistan. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only statement 1 is correct. The PM said India had decided to temporarily suspend its counter-operations and would assess Pakistan's every move.
In his address of 12 May 2025, the Prime Minister referred to the terrorist attack in Pahalgam that took place on:
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Correct answer: D — 22 April
The PM referred to the terrorist attack in Pahalgam on 22 April 2025.
As per the Foreign Secretary's statement of 10 May 2025, from what time were both sides to stop all firing and military action?
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Correct answer: C — 1700 hours IST
Both sides were to stop all firing and military action from 1700 hours IST on 10 May 2025; the call itself was at 1535 hours.
Consider the following statements about the Foreign Secretary's statement of 10 May 2025: 1. The DGMO of Pakistan called the DGMO of India at 1535 hours IST. 2. The DGMOs were to talk again on 11 May at 1700 hours. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. The DGMOs were to talk again on 12 May at 1200 hours, so statement 2 is wrong.
The understanding announced on 10 May 2025 covered stopping firing and military action in which domains?
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Correct answer: D — Land, air and sea
The statement said both sides would stop all firing and military action on land and in the air and sea.
Pope Leo XIV, elected on 8 May 2025, is which Pope in history according to the Vatican?
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Correct answer: C — 267th
The Vatican described him as the 267th Pope (267th Bishop of Rome).
Consider the following statements about Pope Leo XIV: 1. He is the first Pope from the United States of America. 2. He was born in Lima, Peru. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. He was born in Chicago, Illinois, on 14 September 1955; he served as a missionary in Peru.
Who announced 'Habemus Papam' and the name of the new Pope from the central loggia of St Peter's Basilica on 8 May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Cardinal Dominique Mamberti
Cardinal Protodeacon Dominique Mamberti made the announcement.
How many cardinal electors gathered in the Conclave that elected Pope Leo XIV?
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Correct answer: D — 133
As per L'Osservatore Romano, 133 cardinal electors gathered in the Sistine Chapel.
As per the SRS Special Bulletin on Maternal Mortality 2019-21, released with the SRS 2021 report on 7 May 2025, India's Maternal Mortality Ratio is:
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Correct answer: B — 93
MMR fell from 130 per lakh live births in 2014-16 to 93 in 2019-21. 70 is the SDG target and 45 is Telangana's MMR.
According to the SRS Statistical Report 2021, India's Infant Mortality Rate in 2021 was (per 1,000 live births):
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Correct answer: D — 27
IMR was 27 in 2021, down from 39 in 2014. 19 is the Neonatal Mortality Rate and 31 the Under-Five Mortality Rate for 2021.
Consider the following statements based on the SRS 2021 data released on 7 May 2025: 1. Among the States that have met the SDG target for MMR, Kerala has the lowest MMR. 2. India's Total Fertility Rate was 2.0 in 2021. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. Kerala's MMR is 20, and the TFR was 2.0 in 2021.
What is the total outlay of the National Scheme for ITI Upgradation approved by the Union Cabinet on 7 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — ₹60,000 crore
The total outlay is ₹60,000 crore, of which ₹30,000 crore is the Central share, ₹20,000 crore the State share and ₹10,000 crore the industry share.
How many government ITIs are to be upgraded in a hub-and-spoke arrangement under the scheme approved on 7 May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 1,000
The scheme covers upgradation of 1,000 government ITIs; 50,000 is the number of trainers to be trained and 5 the number of NSTIs.
Consider the following statements about the National Scheme for ITI Upgradation: 1. The Asian Development Bank and the World Bank will co-finance 50% of the Central share equally. 2. The National Skill Training Institutes to be augmented include Pune and Kolkata. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The five NSTIs are at Bhubaneswar, Chennai, Hyderabad, Kanpur and Ludhiana.
The nationwide civil defence mock drill of 7 May 2025 was directed to be held in how many categorised Civil Defence districts?
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Correct answer: A — 244
The MHA directed the drill across 244 categorised Civil Defence districts.
Consider the following statements about the civil defence mock drill of 7 May 2025: 1. It was directed by the Ministry of Defence. 2. NCC, NSS and NYKS volunteers along with school and college students were to participate. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The drill was directed by the Ministry of Home Affairs, not the Ministry of Defence.
According to the Ministry of Defence, how many sites were targeted under Operation Sindoor on 7 May 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Nine
The Ministry of Defence said that altogether nine sites were targeted in Pakistan and Pakistan-occupied Jammu and Kashmir.
Consider the following statements about Operation Sindoor (7 May 2025): 1. The Ministry of Defence stated that no Pakistani military facilities were targeted. 2. At the MEA briefing, Foreign Secretary Vikram Misri was joined by Colonel Sofia Qureshi and Wing Commander Vyomika Singh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The MoD release said no Pakistani military facilities were targeted, and the Foreign Secretary's statement names the two officers who joined the briefing.
Markaz Taiba, one of the nine sites named at the Operation Sindoor briefing, is located at:
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Correct answer: B — Muridke
Markaz Taiba is at Muridke. Bahawalpur was the location of Markaz Subhanallah, Kotli of the Gulpur and Abbas camps, and Sialkot of the Sarjal and Mehmoona Joya camps.
Under the India–UK FTA concluded on 6 May 2025, India will gain from tariff elimination on about what share of tariff lines?
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Correct answer: B — 99%
India will gain from tariff elimination on about 99% of tariff lines, covering almost 100% of trade value.
Under the India–UK Double Contribution Convention, Indian workers temporarily in the UK and their employers are exempt from UK social security contributions for:
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Correct answer: D — Three years
The exemption is for a period of three years.
Consider the following statements about the India–UK FTA: 1. FTA negotiations resumed in February 2025 after the two Prime Ministers met at the G20 Summit in Rio de Janeiro in November 2024. 2. India–UK bilateral trade of about USD 60 billion is projected to double by 2030. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as per the Ministry of Commerce release of 6 May 2025.
Consider the following statements about the India–UK FTA: 1. India will gain tariff elimination on about 90% of tariff lines. 2. The FTA eases mobility for independent professionals such as yoga instructors, musicians and chefs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. Tariff elimination is on about 99% of tariff lines.
Which two genome-edited rice varieties were announced by ICAR on 4 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — DRR Rice 100 (Kamla) and Pusa DST Rice 1
The varieties are DRR Rice 100 (Kamla) and Pusa DST Rice 1, developed by editing Samba Mahsuri and MTU 1010 respectively.
The genome-edited rice variety DRR Rice 100 (Kamla) is based on which parent variety?
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Correct answer: B — Samba Mahsuri (BPT 5204)
DRR Rice 100 (Kamla), developed by ICAR-IIRR Hyderabad, is based on Samba Mahsuri (BPT 5204).
Consider the following statements about India's genome-edited rice varieties: 1. They were developed using CRISPR-Cas based genome editing without adding foreign DNA. 2. Pusa DST Rice 1 was developed by ICAR-IIRR, Hyderabad. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Pusa DST Rice 1 was developed by ICAR-IARI, New Delhi; DRR Rice 100 (Kamla) is from ICAR-IIRR, Hyderabad.
According to the Agriculture Ministry, the two genome-edited rice varieties offer an increase in yield of about:
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Correct answer: D — 19%
The Ministry cited a 19% increase in yield. 9.66–30.4% is the range for Pusa DST Rice 1 in saline and alkaline soils.
Anuradha Prasad, who took oath as UPSC Member on 2 May 2025, belongs to which service?
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Correct answer: C — Indian Defence Accounts Service
She belongs to the 1986 batch of the Indian Defence Accounts Service.
Arvind Shrivastava, who took charge on 1 May 2025, became Secretary of which department?
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Correct answer: C — Department of Revenue
He took charge as Secretary, Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
What was India's provisional coal production in April 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 81.57 MT
Coal production in April 2025 was 81.57 MT (provisional), against 78.71 MT in April 2024.
Consider the following statements about coal in April 2025: 1. Production from captive and other mines was 14.51 MT. 2. Total coal dispatch was 86.64 MT. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Ministry of Coal.
India Post's network, cited in its 29 April 2025 MoU with SBI Funds Management, has over how many post offices?
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Correct answer: B — 1.64 lakh
India Post has a network of over 1.64 lakh post offices.
What service will India Post provide under its MoU with SBI Funds Management Limited signed on 29 April 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Doorstep KYC verification for SBI Mutual Fund investors
India Post will provide doorstep KYC verification by collecting KYC forms and documents from SBI Mutual Fund investors.
At which event was the PSA's Round 2 report on 'Evaluation of Innovation Excellence Indicators of Public Funded R&D Organizations' released on 29 April 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 15th CII Global Innovation and IP Summit 2025
PSA Prof. Ajay Kumar Sood released the report at the 15th CII Global Innovation and IP Summit 2025 in New Delhi.
The evaluation framework of the PSA's Round 2 report on public-funded R&D organisations focused on how many key dimensions?
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Correct answer: C — Six
The framework focused on six key dimensions, from research output and quality to human resource development.