RBI Grade B Current Affairs Quiz — Last 12 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2026 proposes to amend how many provisions of Central Acts?
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Correct answer: D — 784
It proposes amending 784 provisions of 79 Central Acts, of which 717 are to be decriminalised.
Who chaired the Select Committee that examined the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Tejasvi Surya
The Select Committee chaired by Tejasvi Surya held 49 sittings and reported on 13 March 2026.
Consider the following statements: 1. The Jan Vishwas Act, 2023 decriminalised 183 provisions in 42 Central Acts. 2. The Jan Vishwas Bill, 2026 was introduced in the Rajya Sabha. 3. The 2026 Bill proposes replacing imprisonment for minor defaults with monetary penalties or warnings. Which of the above are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
The 2023 Act decriminalised 183 provisions in 42 Acts, and the 2026 Bill replaces imprisonment with penalties or warnings. It was introduced in the Lok Sabha, not the Rajya Sabha.
As of 31 December 2025, PLI schemes had generated investment of over:
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Correct answer: A — ₹2.16 lakh crore
PLI schemes attracted investment of over ₹2.16 lakh crore; ₹20.41 lakh crore is incremental production and sales.
Production Linked Incentive (PLI) schemes are being implemented across how many key sectors?
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Correct answer: C — 14
PLI schemes are implemented across 14 key sectors. Make in India 2.0 covers 27 sectors.
Kavach, reviewed by the Railway Minister in March 2026, is India's indigenous:
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Correct answer: A — Automatic Train Protection system
Kavach is the indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system of Indian Railways.
What is 'SURAKSHA', announced in the March 2026 Kavach review?
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Correct answer: B — An AI-based centralised monitoring platform for Kavach
SURAKSHA is being developed as an AI-based centralised Operations Management System for real-time monitoring and predictive maintenance of Kavach.
As of March 2026, Kavach had been installed on approximately how many route kilometres?
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Correct answer: B — 3,103
Kavach has been installed on 3,103 route km; work is in progress on 24,427 route km, and 1,638 route km are commissioned under version 4.0.
As per IRDAI's prescribed timelines, final authorisation of a cashless health insurance claim must be given within:
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Correct answer: A — Three hours
IRDAI prescribes cashless pre-authorisation within one hour and final authorisation within three hours.
Total health insurance premiums in India in 2024-25 exceeded:
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Correct answer: B — ₹1.2 lakh crore
Total health insurance premiums exceeded ₹1.2 lakh crore in 2024-25, growing at around 9%.
Under IRDAI's timelines, an insurer must decide on a request for cashless pre-authorisation within:
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Correct answer: D — One hour
IRDAI prescribes cashless pre-authorisation within one hour; final authorisation within three hours.
Who chairs the Governing Body of the National Mineral Exploration and Development Trust (NMET)?
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Correct answer: A — Minister of Coal and Mines
The NMET Governing Body is chaired by the Union Minister of Coal and Mines, G. Kishan Reddy.
The Gruh Sugam Portal, launched in March 2026 to ease home loans for defence and government personnel, was launched by:
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Correct answer: D — National Housing Bank
The National Housing Bank (NHB) launched the Gruh Sugam Portal on 26 March 2026.
Consider the following about the Gruh Sugam Portal: 1. Defence, paramilitary and government employees can apply for home loans through their administrative units. 2. It works as a unified digital marketplace for comparing lenders' offers. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Applicants apply digitally through their administrative units, and the portal is a unified digital marketplace for discovering the best-suited offer.
What is the total outlay of the Modified UDAN scheme approved by the Union Cabinet in March 2026?
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Correct answer: A — ₹28,840 crore
Modified UDAN has a total outlay of ₹28,840 crore for FY 2026-27 to FY 2035-36. ₹12,159 crore is the airport-development component.
Consider the following about the Modified UDAN scheme (2026): 1. It proposes to develop 100 airports from existing unserved airstrips. 2. It proposes 200 modern helipads focused on priority and aspirational districts. 3. It will run for five years from FY 2026-27. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
The scheme runs for ten years (FY 2026-27 to 2035-36), so statement 3 is wrong; 100 airports and 200 helipads are both components.
Under Modified UDAN, aircraft are to be procured from HAL for which two operators?
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Correct answer: A — Pawan Hans and Alliance Air
Two HAL Dhruv helicopters will go to Pawan Hans and two HAL Dornier aircraft to Alliance Air, under the Atmanirbhar Bharat component.
Under its NDC for 2031-2035 approved in March 2026, India aims to reduce the emissions intensity of its GDP by 2035, from the 2005 level, by:
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Correct answer: C — 47%
The new NDC targets a 47% reduction in emissions intensity of GDP by 2035 over 2005. 33-35% was the 2015 NDC target for 2030.
Consider the following about India's NDC for 2031-2035: 1. It targets 60% of cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil sources by 2035. 2. It targets an additional carbon sink of 3.5-4.0 billion tonnes of CO₂ equivalent through forest and tree cover by 2035 from the 2005 level. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are targets of the NDC 2031-35, alongside the 47% emissions-intensity target.
According to the government (March 2026), what share of India's installed electric power capacity was from non-fossil sources in February 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 52.57%
Non-fossil capacity reached 52.57% in February 2026, meeting the updated NDC target five years ahead of the timeline; the new target is 60% by 2035.
How many entries did India record in the global top 50 of the QS World University Rankings by Subject 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 27
India recorded a record 27 top-50 entries in 2026, more than double the 12 in both 2024 and 2025.
In the QS Subject Rankings 2026, India's highest-ranked subject (21st globally) was Mineral & Mining Engineering at:
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Correct answer: A — ISM Dhanbad
ISM Dhanbad's Mineral & Mining Engineering was ranked 21st – India's highest-ranked subject. IIM Ahmedabad was also 21st in Business & Management Studies and Marketing.
Consider the following about India in the QS Subject Rankings 2026: 1. 99 Indian institutions featured, with 599 subject entries. 2. IIT Delhi was the leading Indian institution with six top-50 entries. 3. The rankings covered 55 subjects. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct as per the Ministry of Education release on the rankings released on 25 March 2026.
Under the 'Nasha Mukt Vidyalaya' action plan (March 2026), the area within what radius of schools is to be declared a drug-free zone?
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Correct answer: C — 500 metres
The three-year action plan provides for declaring the area within a 500-metre radius of schools as drug-free zones.
The 'Nasha Mukt Vidyalaya' action plan followed directions from the 9th Apex meeting of which body, chaired by the Union Home Minister?
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Correct answer: B — Narco-Coordination Centre (NCORD)
The 9th Apex meeting of the Narco-Coordination Centre (NCORD), chaired by Amit Shah, asked all departments to prepare a roadmap up to 2029.
Which ICAR institution was the only Indian university in the top 100 for Veterinary Science in the QS Subject Rankings 2026?
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Correct answer: D — ICAR-IVRI, Bareilly
ICAR-Indian Veterinary Research Institute, Bareilly, entered the 51-100 band – the only Indian university in the Veterinary Science top 100.
Consider the following about the Agriculture & Forestry subject in the QS Rankings 2026: 1. ICAR-IARI, New Delhi debuted in the 151-200 band. 2. 10 Indian universities featured among 475 ranked globally. 3. CCS Haryana Agricultural University, Hisar was placed in the 51-100 band. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
CCS HAU Hisar made its maiden entry in the 301-350 band, not 51-100; statements 1 and 2 are correct.
The IVFRT scheme, extended by the Union Cabinet in March 2026, relates to:
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Correct answer: D — Immigration, visa and foreigners' registration
IVFRT stands for Immigration, Visa, Foreigners Registration & Tracking; it was extended to 31 March 2031 with ₹1,800 crore.
Consider the following about the IVFRT scheme: 1. Its continuation for 2026-2031 carries an outlay of ₹1,800 crore. 2. It was first approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs in 2010. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The 2026-31 continuation is ₹1,800 crore; the CCEA first approved the project on 13 May 2010.
About how much green hydrogen production capacity had India commissioned till February 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 8,000 tonnes per annum
Around 8,000 TPA had been commissioned till February 2026; 5 million tonnes per annum is the likely capacity by 2030.
Under the National Green Hydrogen Mission, the price discovered through competitive bidding for green hydrogen supply to Indian Oil's refinery was:
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Correct answer: B — ₹397 per kg
₹397/kg (including 18% GST) for IOCL's refinery; ₹387/kg for BPCL and HPCL refineries. ₹235/kg is the estimated renewable-power share of cost.
From 26 March 2026, Akashvani stations broadcast the full version of 'Vande Mataram' containing how many stanzas?
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Correct answer: D — Six
The full six-stanza version (3 min 10 sec) replaced the two-stanza version (65 sec), following an MHA guideline of 28 January 2026.
The first version of the full 'Vande Mataram' broadcast by Akashvani from March 2026 is sung in which raga?
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Correct answer: A — Raag Des
It is sung by Pt. Chandrashekhar Vaze in Raag Des.
Through which two countries were Indian nationals in Iran being assisted to travel to India, as stated on 25 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Armenia and Azerbaijan
MEA said Indians in Iran were being assisted to travel to India via Armenia and Azerbaijan; 1,043 had crossed out with the Mission's help.
According to the inter-ministerial briefing of 25 March 2026, about how many passengers had returned to India from West Asia since 28 February?
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Correct answer: C — 4,26,000
Around 4,26,000 passengers had returned from the region to India since 28 February.
Consider the following statements about Operation Sindhu: 1. It was launched in June 2025 to evacuate Indian nationals from Iran and Israel. 2. More Indians were evacuated from Israel than from Iran under the operation. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Operation Sindhu, launched on 18 June 2025, evacuated 4,415 Indians — 3,597 from Iran and 818 from Israel.
As per ASUSE 2025, the estimated number of unincorporated non-agricultural establishments in India was about:
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Correct answer: C — 7.92 crore
Establishments rose from 7.34 crore in ASUSE 2023-24 to 7.92 crore in ASUSE 2025, about 7.97% growth.
In ASUSE 2025, which sector recorded the highest growth in Gross Value Added over ASUSE 2023-24?
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Correct answer: A — Trade
GVA growth was led by trade (16.77%), followed by manufacturing (8.52%) and other services (7.36%). Construction is excluded from ASUSE.
Consider the following about ASUSE 2025: 1. The share of establishments using the internet rose to 39.4%. 2. Women-owned proprietary establishments declined compared with ASUSE 2023-24. 3. The survey covers construction along with manufacturing, trade and other services. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Women-owned proprietary establishments rose from 26.2% to 27%, and ASUSE excludes construction; only statement 1 is correct.
What is the theme of World TB Day 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Yes! We Can End TB!
The 2026 theme is 'Yes! We Can End TB!'. World TB Day is observed every year on 24 March.
According to the Health Ministry (March 2026), by how much did TB incidence in India decline over the past decade?
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Correct answer: C — 21%
TB incidence fell 21% and TB mortality 25% over the past decade, both outpacing global averages.
Consider the following launched or reported on World TB Day 2026: 1. A 100-day TB Mukt Bharat campaign covering 1.58 lakh villages and urban wards. 2. An AI-enabled chatbot named 'Khushi' in the TB Mukt Bharat App. 3. About 10.9 lakh asymptomatic TB patients detected since the intensified Abhiyaan began in December 2024. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
All three are correct. Of 32.65 lakh patients detected after screening over 20 crore people, about 10.9 lakh had no classical symptoms.
India's total exports (merchandise and services) in April–January of FY 2025-26 were about:
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Correct answer: B — USD 714.73 billion
Exports were USD 714.73 billion, up 5.26% from USD 679.02 billion in April–January 2024-25. USD 828.25 billion was the full-year 2024-25 figure.
Which of the following is NOT one of the four pillars of India's Foreign Trade Policy 2023 as cited by the Commerce Ministry?
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Correct answer: C — Import substitution
The four pillars are trade facilitation, export promotion, state-level partnerships and digital integration; import substitution is not one of them.
'MuleHunter.AI', mentioned by the Finance Ministry in March 2026, is used to:
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Correct answer: D — Detect mule accounts used in cyber frauds
MuleHunter.AI is RBI's AI/ML-based solution to detect mule accounts used to divert and layer money from cyber frauds; it is live in 26 banks.
Consider the following about the Indian Digital Payment Intelligence Corporation (IDPIC): 1. It was incorporated as a Section 8 company under the Companies Act, 2013. 2. Its mandate is real-time detection and prevention of fraud in digital payments. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
IDPIC was incorporated on 16 October 2025 as a Section 8 company, with the mandate to detect, prevent and analyse digital payment fraud in real time using AI, ML and big data.
The 'Clinical Study on Ayurveda as an Adjunct Therapy for Tuberculosis', announced on World TB Day 2026, is a collaboration between the Ministry of Ayush and:
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Correct answer: C — Department of Biotechnology
The study is a collaboration of the Ministry of Ayush and the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Ministry of Science & Technology.
In the Ayush–DBT TB study announced in March 2026, Ayurveda is being tested as:
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Correct answer: D — An adjunct (add-on) to anti-TB treatment
The study evaluates Ayurveda as an adjunct therapy alongside standard anti-TB treatment, not as a replacement.
How many Farmer IDs had been generated under the AgriStack Farmers Registry as of 19 March 2026?
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Correct answer: A — More than 9.20 crore
More than 9.20 crore Farmer IDs had been generated, including 47.63 lakh in Bihar.
As cited by the Agriculture Ministry (March 2026), which state used AgriStack to transfer over ₹14,000 crore to 89 lakh farmers for Kharif 2025 crop losses within 5 days?
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Correct answer: B — Maharashtra
Maharashtra used AgriStack for this disaster-relief transfer; Chhattisgarh used Farmer ID for MSP paddy procurement covering 32 lakh+ farmers.
According to the NSO CAPEX survey released in March 2026, aggregate provisional private corporate capex for 2025-26 is estimated at about:
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Correct answer: D — ₹11.44 lakh crore
Provisional capex for 2025-26 is ₹11,43,879 crore; ₹9,55,281 crore is the investment intention for 2026-27.
As per the NSO CAPEX survey, the largest source of financing for private corporate capex in 2025-26 is:
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Correct answer: B — Internal accruals
About 65.35% of 2025-26 capex is sourced from internal accruals, while 23.25% comes from domestic debt.
In the NSO CAPEX survey, the 'realisation ratio' for 2024-25 was 96.3%. This means:
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Correct answer: D — Actual capex per enterprise was 96.3% of what was planned
Estimated capex per enterprise for 2024-25 was ₹180.2 crore and actual capex ₹173.5 crore – a realisation ratio of 96.3%.
The RoDTEP scheme, whose rates were restored in March 2026, relates to:
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Correct answer: D — Remission of duties and taxes on exported products
RoDTEP stands for Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products; its rates and value caps were restored from 23 March 2026.
By the decision of 23 March 2026, RoDTEP rates were restored to the levels in force on:
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Correct answer: C — 22 February 2026
The restored rates are those in force on 22 February 2026, withdrawing the 50% restriction imposed on 23 February 2026.
Consider the following about the RoDTEP restoration of March 2026: 1. It withdrew a 50% restriction on RoDTEP rates imposed in February 2026. 2. It applies only to exports bound for West Asian countries. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The restoration covers all eligible export products, not only West Asia-bound exports; it withdrew the 50% restriction of Notification No. 60/2025-26.
How many blocks are on offer in the seventh tranche of critical and strategic mineral auctions launched on 23 March 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 19
The 7th tranche offers 19 blocks across 10 States; 46 is the number auctioned in the earlier six tranches and 24 the number of notified critical and strategic minerals.
Consider the following about auctions of critical and strategic minerals: 1. The MMDR Act was amended on 17 August 2023 to notify 24 minerals as critical and strategic and let the Centre auction them. 2. The Mineral (Auction) Amendment Rules, 2026 allow an Insurance Surety Bond as an alternative to a bank guarantee. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Ministry of Mines releases of 22 and 23 March 2026.
Shaheed Diwas on 23 March marks the martyrdom of Bhagat Singh, Rajguru and Sukhdev in which year?
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Correct answer: C — 1931
They laid down their lives on 23 March 1931, as recalled by the Rajya Sabha Chairman on 23 March 2026.
Whose birth anniversary, besides Shaheed Diwas, did the Prime Minister mark on 23 March 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia
The PM paid tribute to socialist leader Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia on his birth anniversary on 23 March.
Under which provision does the Election Commission allot free broadcast and telecast time on Doordarshan and AIR to recognised parties?
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Correct answer: B — Section 39A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951
The ECI issued the directions under Section 39A of the RP Act, 1951, for the 2026 Assembly elections.
For the 2026 Assembly elections, what base broadcast time has the ECI allotted to each recognised party on both Doordarshan and All India Radio?
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Correct answer: C — 45 minutes
Each party gets a base time of 45 minutes on both Doordarshan and AIR, plus extra time based on its previous Assembly poll performance.
Through which portal does MoSPI's Model Context Protocol (MCP) server give AI tools access to official statistics?
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Correct answer: B — eSankhyiki
The MCP server allows AI applications to access verified Government data through the National Statistical Portal, eSankhyiki.
Consider the following about MoSPI's MCP server (March 2026): 1. Its beta version covered 7 statistical products, including PLFS and CPI. 2. It has now been extended to 21 products on eSankhyiki. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the beta's 7 products (PLFS, CPI, ASI, IIP, National Accounts, etc.) have been extended to 21 products.
The GARBH-INi programme, highlighted in March 2026, focuses on developing AI tools to predict:
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Correct answer: A — Preterm births
GARBH-INi aims at indigenous, AI-driven solutions for preterm births, a leading cause of neonatal mortality.
Consider the following about GARBH-INi: 1. It is an initiative of the Department of Biotechnology. 2. It has enrolled around 12,000 pregnant women. 3. It is run by the Indian Council of Medical Research under the Ministry of Health. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
GARBH-INi is a Department of Biotechnology initiative, not an ICMR programme; it has enrolled about 12,000 pregnant women.
On 22 March 2026 Narendra Modi surpassed whose record to become the longest-serving head of a government in India?
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Correct answer: D — Pawan Kumar Chamling
Modi passed the 8,930-day record of former Sikkim Chief Minister Pawan Kumar Chamling.
The record surpassed by Narendra Modi on 22 March 2026 was of how many days as head of a government?
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Correct answer: B — 8,930 days
Chamling's record was 8,930 days; Modi reached 8,931 days.
Consider the following about the record set on 22 March 2026: 1. The count includes Narendra Modi's tenure as Chief Minister of Gujarat. 2. The previous record-holder was a former Chief Minister of Arunachal Pradesh. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The 8,931 days cover Modi's time as Gujarat CM and then as PM; the previous record-holder, Pawan Kumar Chamling, was Chief Minister of Sikkim.
Which body, chaired by the Prime Minister, met on 22 March 2026 to review mitigating measures for the West Asia conflict?
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Correct answer: A — Cabinet Committee on Security
The Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS), chaired by PM Narendra Modi, reviewed the situation and mitigating measures.
At the CCS meeting of 22 March 2026, the Prime Minister directed the creation of:
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Correct answer: D — A group of Ministers and Secretaries working in a whole-of-government approach
The PM directed that a group of Ministers and Secretaries be created to work dedicatedly in a whole-of-government approach, with sectoral groups consulting stakeholders.