Punjab Police Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Under the India–New Zealand FTA concluded in December 2025, New Zealand will provide zero-duty access on what share of its tariff lines for Indian exports?
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Correct answer: C — 100%
PIB 2207300: New Zealand will eliminate tariffs on 100% of its tariff lines, giving duty-free access to all Indian exports.
How much investment has New Zealand committed to facilitate into India under the FTA concluded in December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — USD 20 billion over 15 years
PIB 2207300: New Zealand has committed to facilitate investments of USD 20 billion into India over the next fifteen years.
Consider the following statements about the India–New Zealand FTA: 1. Negotiations were formally launched on 16 March 2025. 2. India has kept dairy products out of its market access offer. 3. The FTA provides a quota of 5,000 Temporary Employment Entry visas for Indian professionals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2207300: talks were launched on 16 March 2025, market access excludes dairy, and there is a quota of 5,000 Temporary Employment Entry visas. All three are correct.
Which core industry recorded the highest growth in November 2025, as per the Index of Eight Core Industries?
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Correct answer: D — Cement
PIB 2207434: cement production rose 14.5% in November 2025, the highest among the eight core industries.
The eight core industries together make up what share of the weight of items in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP)?
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Correct answer: B — 40.27%
PIB 2207434: the Eight Core Industries comprise 40.27% of the weight of items included in the IIP. (28.04% is refinery products' weight within the ICI; 19.85% is electricity's.)
Which of the eight core industries carries the largest weight in the Index of Eight Core Industries (base 2011-12)?
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Correct answer: D — Petroleum Refinery Products
PIB 2207434: petroleum refinery products carry a weight of 28.04%, followed by electricity (19.85%), steel (17.92%) and coal (10.33%).
How many articles does the Financial Services Annex of the India–New Zealand FTA, concluded in December 2025, contain?
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Correct answer: B — 18
PIB 2207641: the annex text evolved into 18 articles, a notable advancement over standard GATS commitments.
Consider the following statements about the Financial Services Annex of the India–New Zealand FTA: 1. Negotiations on the annex began in May 2025. 2. It provides for cooperation on cross-border payments through Fast Payment Systems. 3. It requires India to allow unrestricted transfer of all financial data abroad. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2207641: annex talks began in May 2025 and cover Fast Payment Systems cooperation. On financial information, each party keeps the right to maintain its own rules on transfer, processing and storage, so statement 3 is wrong.
NITI Aayog's December 2025 report on internationalisation of higher education was prepared in collaboration with a consortium led by which institution?
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Correct answer: A — IIT Madras
PIB 2207555: the report is an outcome of collaboration between NITI Aayog and an IIT Madras-led consortium of knowledge partners.
At the launch of NITI Aayog's internationalisation report, what target for hosting international students by 2030 was suggested?
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Correct answer: D — 1 lakh
PIB 2207555: Dr. V.K. Paul said India must target to host 1 lakh international students across Central and State Universities by 2030.
Which shipyard designed and built 'Anjadip', the third Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft delivered to the Navy in December 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers
PIB 2207446: Anjadip was indigenously designed and built by GRSE, Kolkata, in partnership with L&T Shipyard, Kattupalli.
The ASW SWC 'Anjadip' is named after an island located off the coast of which place?
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Correct answer: A — Karwar, Karnataka
PIB 2207446: the ship derives its name from Anjadip Island located off the coast of Karwar, Karnataka.
Consider the following statements about the Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft 'Anjadip': 1. It is the third of eight such craft. 2. These craft are the largest Indian naval warships propelled by waterjets. 3. It has about 60% indigenous content. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2207446: Anjadip is the third of eight ASW SWC, and these are the largest Indian naval warships propelled by waterjets. Its indigenous content is over 80%, so statement 3 is wrong.
On which date is World Meditation Day observed?
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Correct answer: D — 21 December
PIB 2207153 and 2207225: the UN General Assembly declared 21 December as World Meditation Day. 21 June is International Day of Yoga.
Kanha Shanti Vanam, where the Vice-President attended World Meditation Day celebrations in December 2025, is in which state?
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Correct answer: A — Telangana
PIB 2207153: the Vice-President participated in the celebrations at Kanha Shanti Vanam in Telangana.
Consider the following statements about World Meditation Day: 1. The United Nations General Assembly declared 21 December as World Meditation Day. 2. India co-sponsored the UNGA resolution on World Meditation Day. 3. The Morarji Desai National Institute of Yoga, which marked the day, works under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2207153: India co-sponsored the UNGA resolution declaring 21 December as World Meditation Day. PIB 2207225: MDNIY is under the Ministry of Ayush, so statement 3 is wrong.
By what margin did Pakistan beat India in the Under-19 Asia Cup final played in Dubai on 21 December 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 191 runs
ESPNcricinfo, The Hindu and Indian Express: Pakistan made 347/8 and bowled India out for 156, winning by 191 runs.
Which Pakistan batter scored 172 off 113 balls in the Under-19 Asia Cup final against India in December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Sameer Minhas
ESPNcricinfo and The Hindu: opener Sameer Minhas made 172 off 113 balls. Ali Raza took 4/42.
As of 30 November 2025, what share of total order value on the Government e-Marketplace (GeM) was secured by Micro and Small Enterprises?
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Correct answer: A — 44.8%
PIB 2207151: MSEs secured ₹7.44 lakh crore, 44.8% of total order value on GeM. 25% is the mandated annual procurement target.
The 'Womaniya' initiative on the Government e-Marketplace is aimed at which group?
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Correct answer: C — Women entrepreneurs selling to the government
PIB 2207151: Womaniya focuses on onboarding, training and improving access to procurement opportunities for women entrepreneurs.
Consider the following statements about the Government e-Marketplace (GeM): 1. Its Forward Auction module is used to sell government assets such as scrap, e-waste and old vehicles to the highest bidder. 2. Between December 2021 and November 2025, Forward Auctions worth more than ₹2,200 crore were facilitated. 3. Women-owned MSEs on GeM have secured cumulative orders worth over ₹78,000 crore. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2207152 covers the Forward Auction module and the ₹2,200 crore figure; PIB 2207151 gives ₹78,066 crore for women-owned MSEs. All three are correct.
Under the definition accepted by the Supreme Court in November 2025, a landform in the Aravalli districts is an 'Aravalli Hill' if it rises how high above local relief?
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Correct answer: B — 100 metres or more
PIB 2207176: any landform in the Aravalli districts with an elevation of 100 metres or more from the local relief is an Aravalli Hill. 500 m is the proximity used to define a range.
Which state was the only one with a formally established definition of the Aravallis for regulating mining, in force since 9 January 2006?
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Correct answer: A — Rajasthan
PIB 2207176: only Rajasthan had a formal definition, based on its 2002 committee report using the Richard Murphy landform classification, followed since 9 January 2006.
Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court's 20 November 2025 judgment on the Aravallis: 1. Two or more Aravalli Hills within 500 metres of each other form an Aravalli Range. 2. MoEFCC was directed to prepare a Management Plan for Sustainable Mining through ICFRE for the entire Aravallis. 3. New mining leases were allowed to continue while the plan is prepared. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2207176: the range definition uses 500 m proximity and the Court directed an MPSM through ICFRE. It imposed an interim moratorium on new leases until the MPSM is prepared, so statement 3 is wrong.
How many days of wage employment per rural household per financial year does the VB—G RAM G Act, 2025 guarantee?
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Correct answer: B — 125
PIB 2207187 and the Act's Section 5(1): not less than 125 days, up from the earlier 100-day entitlement under MGNREGA.
Which law does the VB—G RAM G Act, 2025, which received Presidential assent in December 2025, replace?
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Correct answer: D — Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005
PIB 2207187: the Act replaces MGNREGA, 2005. The Gazette text says MGNREGA stands repealed from an appointed date notified by the Centre.
Consider the following statements about the VB—G RAM G Act, 2025: 1. Centre–State cost sharing is 60:40, and 90:10 for North Eastern and Himalayan States. 2. States may notify a pause aggregating to sixty days in a financial year during peak sowing and harvesting seasons. 3. The ceiling on administrative expenditure has been reduced from 9% to 6%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2207187: cost sharing is 60:40 (90:10 for NE and Himalayan States) and States may notify a 60-day aggregate pause. The administrative ceiling was raised from 6% to 9%, so statement 3 is wrong.
Consider the following statements about the Gazette text of the VB—G RAM G Act, 2025: 1. It is Act No. 36 of 2025. 2. MGNREGA, 2005 stood repealed on the date of the President's assent. 3. The cost of the material component of works shall not exceed 40% at the district level. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
Gazette (PRS copy): Act No. 36 of 2025, and the material component is capped at 40% at district level. MGNREGA stands repealed from an appointed date notified by the Centre, not on the date of assent, so statement 2 is wrong.
In which year did Japan launch the 'Central Asia plus Japan' Dialogue, whose first leaders' summit was held in Tokyo in December 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 2004
MOFA Japan: Japan established the CA+JAD framework in 2004; the first Foreign Ministers' Meeting was held in Kazakhstan in August 2004.
According to the Tokyo Declaration of December 2025, which country will host the next 'Central Asia plus Japan' summit under the agreed rotation?
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Correct answer: A — Kazakhstan
Tokyo Declaration, para 53: the host country thereafter will be in English alphabetical order starting with Kazakhstan.
Consider the following statements about the 'Central Asia plus Japan' Dialogue summit of 20 December 2025: 1. It was the first meeting of the dialogue at the leaders' level. 2. It was chaired by Japanese Prime Minister Sanae Takaichi. 3. Afghanistan attended as a full member of the dialogue. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
MOFA Japan: the summit was held for the first time at leaders' level and chaired by PM Takaichi. Attendees were the presidents of Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan and Uzbekistan; Afghanistan was not a participant, so statement 3 is wrong.
What is the theme of Swachh Survekshan 2025-26, launched in December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Swacchata Ki Nayi Pehel – Badhayein Haath, Karein Safai Saath
PIB 2207000: the SS 2025-26 theme is 'Swacchata Ki Nayi Pehel – Badhayein Haath, Karein Safai Saath'.
Swachh Survekshan assessed 73 urban local bodies in 2016. About how many did it assess in 2024?
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Correct answer: C — 4,900
PIB 2207000: from 73 ULBs in 2016 to assessing about 4,900 ULBs in 2024.
Consider the following statements about Swachh Survekshan 2025-26: 1. Citizens can give feedback round the year through platforms including the Vote For My City app and QR codes. 2. Assessment has been expanded from Ganga towns to river towns across the country. 3. The on-ground survey will be conducted by about 300 assessors over 15 days. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2207000: feedback is open round the year and river towns are now covered. The survey uses over 3,000 trained assessors for 45 days, so statement 3 is wrong.
Under the MoU exchanged in December 2025, the National Maritime Heritage Complex at Lothal will collaborate with which Dutch institution?
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Correct answer: D — National Maritime Museum, Amsterdam
PIB 2207128: the MoU brings together the NMHC and the National Maritime Museum in Amsterdam.
The National Maritime Heritage Complex at Lothal is envisioned to showcase India's maritime legacy of about how many years?
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Correct answer: C — 4,500
PIB 2207128: the NMHC is envisioned as a world-class complex showcasing India's 4,500-year-old maritime legacy.
Who was named vice-captain of India's squad for the ICC Men's T20 World Cup 2026, announced on 20 December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Axar Patel
BCCI media advisory: Suryakumar Yadav (C) and Axar Patel (VC). ESPNcricinfo and The Hindu: Shubman Gill, the previous vice-captain, was left out.
The ICC Men's T20 World Cup 2026 is to be co-hosted by India and which country?
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Correct answer: A — Sri Lanka
The Hindu: the tournament is to be played in India and Sri Lanka from 7 February.
How did the Rajya Sabha pass the VB-G RAM G Bill, 2025 after midnight on 19 December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — By voice vote
The Hindu and Scroll: the Rajya Sabha passed the Bill by voice vote after midnight amid Opposition protests.
During the December 2025 debate on the VB-G RAM G Bill, the Rural Development Minister said Mahatma Gandhi's name was added to the 2005 rural employment guarantee law in which year?
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Correct answer: C — 2009
The Hindu and The Times of India: Shivraj Singh Chouhan said Gandhi's name was not in the original 2005 law and was added in 2009.
Consider the following statements about the passage of the VB-G RAM G Bill, 2025: 1. The Lok Sabha passed the Bill on 18 December 2025. 2. The Rajya Sabha passed the Bill after midnight, on 19 December 2025. 3. The Bill was referred to a parliamentary committee before it was passed. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
The Hindu, Scroll and TOI: the Lok Sabha passed the Bill on Thursday, 18 December, and the Rajya Sabha after midnight on Friday, 19 December. The demand to refer it to a committee was rejected, so statement 3 is wrong.
The proposed Bureau of Port Security (BoPS), discussed at a meeting chaired by Amit Shah on 19 December 2025, is being modelled on which body?
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Correct answer: C — Bureau of Civil Aviation Security
PIB 2206443: the Bureau is being modelled on the lines of the Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS).
Which force has been designated as the Recognised Security Organisation (RSO) for port facilities, as announced on 19 December 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Central Industrial Security Force
PIB 2206443: CISF has been designated as the RSO for port facilities, responsible for security assessments and port security plans.
Consider the following statements about the Bureau of Port Security (BoPS): 1. It is to be constituted as a statutory body under Section 13 of the Merchant Shipping Act, 2025. 2. It will function under the Ministry of Home Affairs. 3. During a one-year transition, the Director General of Shipping will function as its Director General. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
PIB 2206443: BoPS will be a statutory body under Section 13 of the Merchant Shipping Act, 2025 and the DG Shipping will head it during the one-year transition. It will function under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, not the MHA, so statement 2 is wrong.
Where was the closing ceremony of the Second WHO Global Summit on Traditional Medicine held on 19 December 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
PIB 2206859: the Prime Minister addressed the closing ceremony at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
What is the 'Ayush Mark' launched by the Prime Minister at the WHO traditional medicine summit in December 2025?
Show answer
Correct answer: B — A global benchmark for quality Ayush products and services
PIB 2206859: the Ayush Mark is envisioned as a global benchmark for quality Ayush products and services.
Consider the following statements in the context of the Second WHO Global Summit on Traditional Medicine (December 2025): 1. The new WHO South-East Asia Regional Office building in New Delhi will also house the WHO India Country Office. 2. The WHO Global Centre for Traditional Medicine is located in Jamnagar, Gujarat. 3. The summit's theme was 'Health for All through Traditional Medicine'. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2206859: the SEARO building will also house the WHO India Country Office, and the WHO GCTM is in Jamnagar. The theme was 'Restoring Balance: The Science and Practice of Health and Well-being', so statement 3 is wrong.
Under the PFRDA amendments notified on 19 December 2025, what is the maximum lump sum a non-government NPS subscriber can take at normal exit?
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Correct answer: C — 80%
PIB 2206763: for the All Citizen Model and Corporate Sector, up to 80% lump sum with at least 20% annuity, up from 60%.
To what age have the maximum entry and exit ages under the NPS been raised by the PFRDA amendments of December 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 85 years
PIB 2206763: entry and exit age increased to 85 years, from a maximum entry age of 70 and exit age of 75.
Consider the following statements about the NPS exit amendments notified by PFRDA on 19 December 2025: 1. Government sector subscribers can now take up to 80% as lump sum at normal exit. 2. The minimum lock-in period of five years for premature exit under the All Citizen Model has been removed. 3. A regulated lender may mark a lien of up to 25% of the subscriber's own contribution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 and 3 only
PIB 2206763: the five-year lock-in was removed for the All Citizen Model, and lenders may mark a lien up to 25% of the subscriber's own contribution. For the government sector, normal exit remains up to 60% lump sum, so statement 1 is wrong.
According to Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla, what was the productivity of the Lok Sabha during the Winter Session that ended on 19 December 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 111 percent
PIB 2206501: the productivity of the House during the Sixth Session was 111 percent.
Which Bill was referred to a Joint Committee of the Houses after its introduction in the Lok Sabha during the Winter Session 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan Bill, 2025
PIB 2206655: the Viksit Bharat Shiksha Adhishthan Bill, 2025 was referred to a Joint Committee after introduction. The other three were passed by both Houses.
Consider the following statements about the Winter Session 2025 of Parliament: 1. The session provided 15 sittings spread over 19 days. 2. The Prime Minister initiated the special discussion on 150 years of 'Vande Mataram' in the Lok Sabha. 3. The discussion on electoral reforms was held only in the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2206655: 15 sittings over 19 days, and the PM initiated the Vande Mataram discussion in the Lok Sabha. Electoral reforms were discussed in the Lok Sabha (9–10 December) and the Rajya Sabha (11, 15 and 16 December), so statement 3 is wrong.
Where did ISRO conduct the drogue parachute qualification tests for the Gaganyaan crew module on 18–19 December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Rail Track Rocket Sled facility, TBRL, Chandigarh
ISRO: the tests were held at the Rail Track Rocket Sled (RTRS) facility of the Terminal Ballistics Research Laboratory (TBRL), Chandigarh.
Consider the following statements about the deceleration system of the Gaganyaan crew module: 1. It has a total of 10 parachutes of four types. 2. Two drogue parachutes stabilise and decelerate the module. 3. Four main parachutes are used for the final descent. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
ISRO: the system has 10 parachutes of 4 types, including two drogues that stabilise and decelerate the module. Three pilot parachutes extract three main parachutes, not four, so statement 3 is wrong.
During which period is Good Governance Week 2025, launched by DARPG on 19 December 2025, being observed?
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Correct answer: B — 19–25 December
PIB 2206518: Good Governance Week 2025 is observed from 19 to 25 December; 11–18 December was the preparatory phase.
What is the name of the nationwide grassroots campaign at the core of Good Governance Week 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Prashasan Gaon Ki Ore
PIB 2206518: the 'Prashasan Gaon Ki Ore' initiative forms the core of the Good Governance Week campaign.
Who will co-chair the India–Netherlands Joint Trade and Investment Committee (JTIC) from the Indian side, as per the MoU announced on 19 December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Additional Secretary, Department of Commerce
PIB 2206805: the JTIC will be co-chaired by the Additional Secretary, Department of Commerce and the Dutch Director General (Foreign Economic Relations).
Consider the following statements about the India–Netherlands JTIC announced in December 2025: 1. It will meet annually, alternately in India and the Netherlands. 2. The MoU was signed between India's Ministry of Commerce and Industry and the Dutch Ministry of Economic Affairs. 3. It was announced during the visit of Dutch Foreign Minister David van Weel. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 3 only
PIB 2206805: the JTIC meets annually, alternately in each country, and was announced during David van Weel's visit. The Dutch signatory was the Ministry of Foreign Affairs, so statement 2 is wrong.
Under the India–Oman CEPA signed on 18 December 2025, Indian goods get zero-duty access on what share of Oman's tariff lines?
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Correct answer: C — 98.08%
PIB 2205889: zero-duty access on 98.08% of Oman's tariff lines, covering 99.38% of India's exports by value.
Who signed the India–Oman CEPA on behalf of India on 18 December 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Piyush Goyal
PIB 2205889: Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal signed with Oman's Minister of Commerce, Industry and Investment Promotion Qais bin Mohammed Al Yousef.
The India–Oman CEPA is India's second Free Trade Agreement signed in six months. With which country was the earlier one signed?
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Correct answer: B — United Kingdom
PIB 2205889: the CEPA is the second FTA signed in the last six months after the United Kingdom.
Consider the following statements about the India–Oman CEPA: 1. Oman has offered 127 services sub-sectors. 2. It contains the first-ever commitment by any country on traditional medicine across all modes. 3. Oman has capped FDI by Indian companies in its services sectors at 49%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2205889: Oman offered 127 sub-sectors and made the first-ever commitment by any country on traditional medicine across all modes. It committed to 100% FDI for Indian companies in major services sectors, so statement 3 is wrong.
Which two laws does the SHANTI Bill, 2025, passed by Parliament on 18 December 2025, replace?
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Correct answer: A — Atomic Energy Act, 1962 and Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010
PRS: the Bill replaces the Atomic Energy Act, 1962 and the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010.
Which body gets statutory status under the SHANTI Bill, 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Atomic Energy Regulatory Board
PIB 2206211: the Bill accords statutory status to the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board, making it part of the parent legislation.
What nuclear energy capacity target by 2047 does the SHANTI Bill support?
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Correct answer: C — 100 GW
PIB 2206598: the Bill supports the long-term objective of achieving 100 GW nuclear energy capacity by 2047.
Consider the following statements about the SHANTI Bill, 2025: 1. It was introduced in the Lok Sabha on 15 December 2025 and passed by the Lok Sabha on 17 December 2025. 2. The Appellate Tribunal for Electricity will serve as the appellate authority under it. 3. It keeps a single statutory cap on operator liability for all nuclear installations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PRS gives the dates (introduced 15 December, Lok Sabha 17 December) and PIB 2206598 names the Appellate Tribunal for Electricity. The Bill replaces the single cap with a graded liability framework, so statement 3 is wrong.
How many members took part in the Lok Sabha debate on the VB-G RAM G Bill before it was passed on 18 December 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 98
The Indian Express and News18: Shivraj Singh Chouhan said he listened to 98 MPs who took part in the debate.
Consider the following statements about the VB-G RAM G Bill, 2025 as explained in the PIB backgrounder of 18 December 2025: 1. It shifts rural employment from a central sector scheme to a centrally sponsored framework. 2. All assets created will be aggregated in the Viksit Bharat National Rural Infrastructure Stack. 3. The estimated annual central share is ₹1,51,282 crore. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2205734: the Bill moves to a centrally sponsored framework and aggregates assets in the Viksit Bharat National Rural Infrastructure Stack. ₹1,51,282 crore is the total annual requirement including the State share; the central share is ₹95,692.31 crore, so statement 3 is wrong.
Which of the following is NOT one of the four priority areas of works under the VB-G RAM G Bill, 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Urban housing for migrant workers
PIB 2205734: the four areas are water security, core rural infrastructure, livelihood-related infrastructure and special works to mitigate extreme weather events. Urban housing is not one of them.
Where was the second edition of the India–UAE Joint Military Exercise Desert Cyclone held from 18 to 30 December 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Abu Dhabi, UAE
PIB 2205132: Desert Cyclone-II was scheduled at Abu Dhabi, UAE from 18 to 30 December 2025.
Consider the following statements about Exercise Desert Cyclone-II: 1. The Indian contingent comprises 45 personnel, mainly from The Mechanised Infantry Regiment. 2. The UAE is represented by the 53 Mechanised Infantry Battalion. 3. The exercise focuses on conventional desert warfare outside any UN mandate. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2205132: 45 Indian personnel mainly from The Mechanised Infantry Regiment, and the UAE's 53 Mechanised Infantry Battalion. The focus is sub-conventional operations in urban terrain under a UN mandate, so statement 3 is wrong.
On which principle were Regional Rural Banks consolidated with effect from 1 May 2025, before a common RRB logo was unveiled in December 2025?
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Correct answer: C — One State One RRB
PIB 2205824: on the principle of 'One State One RRB', 26 RRBs across 11 States/UTs were consolidated from 01.05.2025.
Consider the following statements about Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and their new common logo: 1. 26 RRBs across 11 States/UTs were consolidated with effect from 1 May 2025. 2. There are now 28 RRBs. 3. In the logo, the hands symbolise enlightenment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2205824: 26 RRBs in 11 States/UTs were consolidated from 1 May 2025 and 28 RRBs now operate. In the logo the hands stand for nurturing and the flame for enlightenment, so statement 3 is wrong.
The Order of Oman, conferred on Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 18 December 2025, was instituted in 1970 by whom?
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Correct answer: C — Sultan Qaboos bin Said
PIB 2206032: the Order of Oman was instituted in 1970 by Sultan Qaboos bin Said.
At which palace was Prime Minister Modi received by Sultan Haitham bin Tarik on 18 December 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Al Baraka Palace
PIB 2206044: the Prime Minister was received by His Majesty Sultan Haitham bin Tarik on 18 December 2025 at Al Baraka Palace.
Consider the following statements about Prime Minister Modi's visit to Oman in December 2025: 1. The visit took place in the year marking 70 years of India–Oman diplomatic relations. 2. An MoU on maritime heritage and museums covers the National Maritime Heritage Complex at Lothal. 3. The visit followed Sultan Haitham bin Tarik's State Visit to India in December 2023. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2206044 and 2205993: the visit marked 70 years of diplomatic ties, the maritime heritage MoU includes NMHC Lothal, and it followed the Sultan's State Visit to India in December 2023. All three are correct.
The Sabka Bima Sabki Raksha (Amendment of Insurance Laws) Bill, 2025, passed by Parliament on 17 December 2025, allows FDI in insurance companies up to what limit?
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Correct answer: C — 100%
PIB 2206011: a key feature of the Bill is to allow up to 100% Foreign Direct Investment in insurance companies.
Under the Sabka Bima Sabki Raksha Bill, 2025, the Net Owned Fund requirement for foreign reinsurance branches has been reduced from ₹5,000 crore to:
Show answer
Correct answer: B — ₹1,000 crore
PIB 2206011: the Net Owned Fund requirement of foreign reinsurance branches has been reduced from ₹5,000 crore to ₹1,000 crore.
Which of the following Acts is NOT amended by the Sabka Bima Sabki Raksha (Amendment of Insurance Laws) Bill, 2025?
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Correct answer: D — General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Act, 1972
PIB 2206011: the Bill amends three Acts: the Insurance Act, 1938, the LIC Act, 1956 and the IRDA Act, 1999. The General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Act is not among them.
Consider the following statements about the Sabka Bima Sabki Raksha Bill, 2025: 1. The limit for seeking prior regulatory approval for transfer of share capital has been raised from 1% to 5%. 2. A Policyholders' Education and Protection Fund will be set up. 3. IRDAI is given the power to disgorge wrongful gains from insurers and intermediaries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2206011: the share-transfer approval limit rises from 1% to 5%, a Policyholders' Education and Protection Fund will be set up, and IRDAI gets the power to disgorge wrongful gains. All three are correct.
The Adwa Victory Monument in Addis Ababa, where PM Modi laid a wreath on 17 December 2025, honours Ethiopian soldiers of the Battle of Adwa fought in which year?
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Correct answer: A — 1896
PIB 2205113: the memorial is dedicated to Ethiopian soldiers who died for the sovereignty of their nation at the Battle of Adwa in 1896.
In which year were formal diplomatic ties between India and Ethiopia established?
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Correct answer: B — 1950
PIB backgrounder 2205431: formal diplomatic ties between India and Ethiopia were established in 1950.
Consider the following statements about Prime Minister Modi's visit to Ethiopia in December 2025: 1. It was his first bilateral visit to Ethiopia. 2. India–Ethiopia ties were elevated to a Strategic Partnership. 3. India–Ethiopia bilateral trade in 2024–25 was driven mainly by Ethiopian exports to India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2205106 and 2205431: it was the PM's first bilateral visit and ties were elevated to a Strategic Partnership. Of the US$ 550.19 million trade in 2024–25, Indian exports were US$ 476.81 million and imports US$ 73.38 million, so the trade is export-driven from India and statement 3 is wrong.