OPSC OCS Current Affairs Quiz — Last 6 months
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
The Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Rules, 2026 come into force on:
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Correct answer: B — 1 May 2026
MeitY said the Rules will come into force on 1 May 2026.
Which body do the Online Gaming Rules, 2026 establish as a unified, digital-first regulator for the sector?
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Correct answer: A — Online Gaming Authority of India
The Rules establish the Online Gaming Authority of India as a unified, digital-first regulator.
Consider the following statements about the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming (PROG) Act, 2025 and its Rules: 1. The Act was enacted by Parliament in August 2025. 2. The Rules have been framed under Section 12 of the Act. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The PROG Act was enacted in August 2025; the Rules were made under Section 19 (Section 12 deals with civil penalties), so only statement 1 is correct.
Which document on defence industry was signed during Rajnath Singh's talks with Boris Pistorius in Berlin on 22 April 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Defence Industrial Cooperation Roadmap
A Defence Industrial Cooperation Roadmap and an Implementing Arrangement for Cooperation in UN Peacekeeping Training were signed and exchanged.
Boris Pistorius, who held talks with Rajnath Singh in April 2026, is the Defence Minister of:
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Correct answer: D — Germany
Boris Pistorius is Germany's Federal Minister of Defence; the talks were held in Berlin.
Consider the following statements about the India–Germany defence talks of 22 April 2026: 1. An Implementing Arrangement for Cooperation in UN Peacekeeping Training was signed. 2. The talks were held in Munich. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The Implementing Arrangement on UN Peacekeeping Training was signed, but the talks were in Berlin. Only statement 1 is correct.
In April 2026 the Centre approved MSP procurement of five crops in Odisha. Which crop accounted for the largest approved MSP value?
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Correct answer: C — Urad
Urad: 1,19,387 tonnes worth ₹931.21 crore, against moong at ₹302.42 crore, out of a total exceeding ₹1,428.31 crore.
Which of the following crops was NOT among the five approved for central procurement in Odisha in April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Paddy
The five approved crops were moong, urad, groundnut, sunflower and mustard.
Which ministry administers the Prime Minister Internship Scheme, whose eligibility was expanded to final-year students in April 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Ministry of Corporate Affairs
The Ministry of Corporate Affairs expanded PMIS eligibility, in consultation with the Department of Higher Education.
Under the April 2026 change to the PM Internship Scheme, final-year students applying must submit:
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Correct answer: A — A No Objection Certificate from their institution
Students must submit a No Objection Certificate from their institution confirming the internship will not interfere with academic requirements.
What is the outlay of the revised Technology Development and Investment Promotion (TDIP) Scheme of DoT for 2026–31?
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Correct answer: D — ₹203 crore
The revised TDIP Scheme has a total outlay of ₹203 crore for 2026–31.
The TDIP Scheme seeks to enhance India's participation in which of the following global telecom standardisation bodies?
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Correct answer: B — ITU, 3GPP and oneM2M
The scheme supports Indian participation in the ITU, 3GPP and oneM2M.
According to the MNRE Minister (April 2026), India's wind energy capacity target for 2030 is:
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Correct answer: B — 100 GW
Pralhad Joshi said India will achieve 100 GW of wind capacity by 2030 and 156 GW by 2036.
Consider the following statements about India's wind energy sector (April 2026): 1. India added a record 6.1 GW of wind capacity in 2025–26. 2. India's wind potential at 150 metres hub height is estimated at nearly 1,164 GW. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both were stated by the minister at the WIPPA Foundation Day on 22 April 2026.
On the sidelines of the 11th India–Egypt Joint Defence Committee meeting in April 2026, which talks were held for the first time?
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Correct answer: B — Navy-to-Navy Staff Talks
The inaugural Navy-to-Navy Staff Talks were held on the sidelines of the 11th JDC in Cairo.
Consider the following statements about India–Egypt defence ties (April 2026): 1. The 11th Joint Defence Committee agreed a bilateral defence cooperation plan for 2026-27. 2. India and Egypt signed an MoU on defence cooperation in September 2022. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are stated in the Ministry of Defence release on the 11th JDC.
According to provisional MPEDA data, India's seafood exports in FY 2025–26 were valued at about:
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Correct answer: D — ₹72,326 crore
Seafood exports reached a record ₹72,325.82 crore (US$8.28 billion) in FY 2025–26.
Which was the second-largest destination for India's seafood exports in FY 2025–26?
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Correct answer: B — China
The US was the largest destination; China, the second-largest, grew 22.7% in value.
Consider the following statements about India's seafood exports in FY 2025–26: 1. Frozen shrimp accounted for over two-thirds of total export earnings. 2. Exports to the United States rose in both value and volume. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Frozen shrimp earned ₹47,973.13 crore, over two-thirds of the total, but exports to the US fell 14.5% in value and 19.8% in volume.
Which body administers the Atal Pension Yojana, which crossed 9 crore gross enrolments in April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — PFRDA
APY is administered by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA).
Under the Atal Pension Yojana, the guaranteed monthly pension after the age of 60 ranges from:
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Correct answer: A — ₹1,000 to ₹5,000
APY guarantees a monthly pension of ₹1,000 to ₹5,000 after the subscriber turns 60.
Consider the following statements about the Atal Pension Yojana: 1. It was launched on 9 May 2015 and is open to Indian citizens aged 18 to 40 years. 2. After the death of both the subscriber and the spouse, the corpus accumulated till age 60 is returned to the nominee. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: APY was launched on 9 May 2015 for citizens aged 18–40, and the corpus goes to the nominee after the death of both subscriber and spouse.
How many delegates took part in Phase II of ECI's International Election Visitors' Programme 2026?
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Correct answer: A — 34 delegates from 17 countries
34 delegates from 17 countries, including International IDEA, took part in Phase II.
Which states/UTs did delegates visit in Phase I of the International Election Visitors' Programme 2026?
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Correct answer: C — Assam, Kerala and Puducherry
In Phase I, delegates visited Assam, Kerala and Puducherry on 8–9 April 2026; Phase II covered Tamil Nadu and West Bengal.
Who delivered the keynote address at the 18th Civil Services Day in New Delhi on 21 April 2026?
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Correct answer: B — Vice-President C.P. Radhakrishnan
Vice-President C.P. Radhakrishnan delivered the keynote address at Vigyan Bhawan.
Applications for the Prime Minister's Awards for Excellence in 2025 numbered:
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Correct answer: B — 2,035
Applications rose from 1,216 in 2023 to 1,588 in 2024 and 2,035 in 2025; 4,770 is the number of iGOT courses.
Consider the following statements made at the 18th Civil Services Day: 1. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel described civil servants as the 'steel frame of India' while addressing probationers in Delhi 79 years earlier. 2. Average grievance resolution time on CPGRAMS has fallen from 60 days to about 12 days. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the Vice-President recalled Patel's 'steel frame' address 79 years earlier, and Dr Jitendra Singh cited the fall in CPGRAMS resolution time from 60 to about 12 days.
INS Sunayna, deployed under IOS SAGAR, made its third port call of the deployment at which city on 21 April 2026?
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Correct answer: A — Jakarta
INS Sunayna arrived at Jakarta, Indonesia, on 21 April 2026 for its third port call.
Consider the following statements about the IOS SAGAR deployment of INS Sunayna in 2026: 1. The ship carries a multinational crew drawn from 16 friendly foreign countries. 2. The mission's harbour phase was held in Indonesia before the sea phase began. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The crew is from 16 friendly foreign countries, but the harbour phase was held in India from 16 to 29 March 2026.
What is the outlay of the Production-Linked Incentive Scheme for the Food Processing Industry (2021-22 to 2026-27)?
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Correct answer: B — ₹10,900 crore
PLISFPI has an outlay of ₹10,900 crore; ₹1.97 lakh crore is the outlay of the overall PLI framework across 14 sectors.
As of February 2026, how many jobs had the PLI Scheme for the Food Processing Industry created, against a target of 2.5 lakh?
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Correct answer: D — About 3.39 lakh
About 3.39 lakh jobs had been created, exceeding the employment target of 2.5 lakh.
Consider the following statements about Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) schemes: 1. The umbrella PLI Scheme was launched in April 2020 and now covers 14 strategic sectors. 2. The PLI Scheme for the Food Processing Industry was approved by the Union Cabinet on 31 March 2021. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, per the PIB backgrounder: the PLI Scheme was launched in April 2020 and covers 14 sectors, and PLISFPI was approved by the Cabinet on 31 March 2021.
The TRAWL assembly contracted by the Defence Ministry in April 2026 is meant for which tanks?
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Correct answer: B — T-72 and T-90
The ₹975 crore contracts are for TRAWL assemblies for T-72/T-90 tanks.
What is the main purpose of the DRDO-developed TRAWL assembly?
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Correct answer: B — Creating vehicle-safe lanes through anti-tank minefields
The TRAWL assembly enhances minefield breaching by creating vehicle-safe lanes through minefields with anti-tank mines.
President Droupadi Murmu inaugurated the Nirmal Munda Parivesh Path and a Tribal Museum in April 2026 in which city?
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Correct answer: B — Rourkela
The President inaugurated them at Rourkela, Sundargarh district, Odisha, on 21 April 2026.
According to the President's Rourkela address in April 2026, which year will mark one hundred years since the formation of the state of Odisha?
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Correct answer: C — 2036
The President said 2036 will mark one hundred years since the formation of Odisha.
Where was the 7th India–Bhutan Joint Group of Customs meeting held in April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — Munnar
The 7th JGC meeting was held in Munnar, Kerala, on 20–21 April 2026.
Consider the following statements about India–Bhutan trade and customs, as stated by the Finance Ministry in April 2026: 1. All 10 notified land customs stations on the India–Bhutan border are located in West Bengal. 2. India accounts for nearly 80% of Bhutan's total trade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. Of the 10 notified land customs stations, six are in West Bengal and four in Assam; India accounts for nearly 80% of Bhutan's trade.
The Vibrant Villages Programme, reviewed at an MSDE workshop in April 2026, is a flagship initiative of which ministry?
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Correct answer: C — Ministry of Home Affairs
The Vibrant Villages Programme is a flagship initiative of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Consider the following statements about the Vibrant Villages Programme as described by MSDE in April 2026: 1. It aims to develop 662 villages as 'first villages' across Arunachal Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim and Ladakh. 2. Assessment and certification of skilling under it is done through the Skill India Digital Hub. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the programme covers 662 villages in those five states/UTs, and MSDE facilitates assessment and certification through the Skill India Digital Hub.
The MoSPI survey 'Household Social Consumption: Health' released in April 2026 was part of which round of the National Sample Survey?
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Correct answer: D — 80th round
The survey was conducted from January to December 2025 as part of the 80th round of the NSS.
According to the NSS health survey of 2025, about what share of childbirths in the reference period took place in hospitals?
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Correct answer: C — 96%
About 96% of childbirths during the last 365 days took place in hospitals.
Consider the following findings of the NSS 'Household Social Consumption: Health' survey (2025): 1. The share of persons reporting an ailment in the last 15 days fell compared with the 2017–18 survey. 2. The hospitalisation rate was highest among persons aged 60 years or more. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. Persons reporting an ailment rose to 13.1% from 7.5% in 2017–18, and hospitalisation was highest (8.1%) in the 60+ age group.
The Joint Strategic Vision announced during South Korean President Lee Jae Myung's State Visit to India in April 2026 covers which period?
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Correct answer: B — 2026–2030
The leaders announced the Joint Strategic Vision for the India–ROK Special Strategic Partnership for the next five years, 2026–2030.
Which year has been designated the 'Year of India–ROK Friendship' as an outcome of the April 2026 State Visit?
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Correct answer: D — 2028–29
The outcomes list includes commemoration of 2028–29 as the Year of India–ROK Friendship.
Consider the following outcomes of the India–Republic of Korea State Visit of April 2026: 1. The Republic of Korea will join the International Solar Alliance and the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative. 2. India and the Republic of Korea signed a new Free Trade Agreement replacing the CEPA. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Korea is joining the ISA and the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative, but the two sides only issued a joint declaration on resuming negotiations to upgrade the existing CEPA; no new FTA was signed.
By how much did the combined Index of Eight Core Industries change in March 2026 compared with March 2025 (provisional)?
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Correct answer: C — Fell 0.4%
The ICI declined 0.4% (provisional) in March 2026; 2.6% is the FY 2025–26 cumulative growth.
Which of the eight core industries carries the largest weight in the Index of Eight Core Industries?
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Correct answer: B — Petroleum refinery products
Refinery products have the largest weight at 28.04%, followed by electricity (19.85%) and steel (17.92%).
Consider the following statements about the Index of Eight Core Industries: 1. The eight core industries comprise 40.27% of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production. 2. In March 2026, fertilizer production recorded the steepest decline among the eight industries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: the core industries make up 40.27% of IIP weight, and fertilizers fell 24.6% in March 2026, the sharpest decline.
Under the revised order of April 2026, jute mills and processing units may hold raw jute stock up to:
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Correct answer: B — 45 days' consumption
Jute mills/processing units may hold up to 45 days' consumption; traders and balers have a nil limit.
Violation of the raw jute stock limits notified in 2026 attracts punitive action under which law?
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Correct answer: A — Essential Commodities Act, 1955
The ministry said punitive action will be taken under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955.
What revenue did the Department of Posts earn in FY 2025–26?
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Correct answer: B — ₹15,296 crore
Revenue was ₹15,296 crore, up 16% from ₹13,218 crore; ₹17,546 crore was the business target.
Which business vertical of the Department of Posts grew fastest in FY 2025–26?
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Correct answer: D — Citizen Centric Services
Citizen Centric Services grew 70%, ahead of Parcels (69%) and Mail Operations (34%).
The thematic focus of the seventh edition of NITI Aayog's 'Trade Watch Quarterly' (released April 2026) was:
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Correct answer: B — Gems and jewellery
The Q3 FY26 edition's thematic section focuses on India's gems and jewellery sector.
According to NITI Aayog's Trade Watch Quarterly, India's share of world gems and jewellery exports (excluding raw gold) in 2024 was about:
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Correct answer: A — 7.8%
India's exports of $29.5 billion accounted for a 7.8% share of world exports in a market of about $378 billion.
The Samriddh Gram initiative, nominated for the WSIS Prizes 2026, is built on which network?
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Correct answer: A — BharatNet
Samriddh Gram is an integrated phygital service delivery model enabled by BharatNet.
Under which WSIS Prizes 2026 category has India's Samriddh Gram initiative been nominated?
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Correct answer: D — AL C6: Enabling Environment
Samriddh Gram was nominated under Action Line C6: Enabling Environment.
After the approval of 20 April 2026, what is the total quantity of wheat (excluding wheat products) permitted for export?
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Correct answer: D — 50 LMT
With the latest additional 25 LMT, a total of 50 LMT of wheat and 10 LMT of wheat products have been permitted.
According to the Second Advance Estimates of March 2026, India's wheat production for 2025–26 is estimated at:
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Correct answer: A — 1,202 LMT
The Second Advance Estimates released on 10 March 2026 put wheat production for 2025–26 at 1,202 LMT.
Which section of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 prohibits the sale or distribution of liquor in a polling area in the 48 hours ending with the close of poll?
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Correct answer: B — Section 135C
Section 135C of the RP Act, 1951 bars sale or distribution of liquor in a polling area during the 48 hours ending with the close of poll.
Consider the following statements about ECI's dry-day directions for the 2026 Assembly elections: 1. The dry-day period also applies to the date of any repoll. 2. The counting day, 4 May 2026, is to be declared a dry day in the poll-going states/UT. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: ECI said the 48-hour dry period includes the date of any repoll, and directed that 4 May 2026, the counting day, also be a dry day.
India's first advanced 3D glass semiconductor packaging unit, whose foundation stone was laid in April 2026, is located in:
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Correct answer: D — Bhubaneswar, Odisha
The foundation stone was laid at Info Valley, Bhubaneswar, Odisha, on 19 April 2026.
Which company is promoting the Heterogeneous Integration Packaging Solutions project at Bhubaneswar?
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Correct answer: D — 3D Glass Solutions
The project is promoted by 3D Glass Solutions.
Consider the following statements about the 3D glass semiconductor packaging project in Odisha: 1. The company is investing nearly ₹2,000 crore in the project. 2. According to the Chief Minister, Odisha is also the site of India's first compound semiconductor fabrication unit. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as stated by the Chief Minister: an investment of nearly ₹2,000 crore, and Odisha hosting both India's first compound semiconductor fab and first 3D glass substrate packaging facility.
How much did Indian Railways earn from scrap sales in FY 2025–26?
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Correct answer: D — ₹6,813.86 crore
Scrap sales were ₹6,813.86 crore against a ₹6,000 crore target; ₹6,641.78 crore was the FY 2024–25 figure.
According to the Railway Ministry (April 2026), by how much has Indian Railways' non-fare revenue grown over the last five years?
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Correct answer: B — 168%
Non-fare revenue grew 168%, from around ₹290 crore to over ₹777 crore.
How many PM Vishwakarma beneficiaries had the MSME Ministry trained in AI tools, as reported in April 2026?
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Correct answer: B — 2,543
The ministry reported training 2,543 PM Vishwakarma beneficiaries in AI tools.
Which state had the largest number of participants in the MSME Ministry's AI training for PM Vishwakarma artisans?
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Correct answer: C — Telangana
Telangana led with 387 participants, followed by Maharashtra (295) and Gujarat (262).
How many railway stations in Odisha are being redeveloped under the Amrit Bharat Station Scheme, as stated in April 2026?
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Correct answer: C — 59
The minister said 59 stations in Odisha are being redeveloped under the Amrit Bharat Station Scheme; 30 is the number of districts.
What record railway budget allocation for Odisha did the Railway Minister cite in April 2026?
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Correct answer: D — ₹10,928 crore
Odisha received a record allocation of ₹10,928 crore; ₹90,000 crore is the value of projects under execution.