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MPSC (Maharashtra) Current Affairs Quiz — All time

Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.

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4679 news · 11184 MCQs
Score: 0 / 0 attempted · 75 questions
NHRC invites entries for 11th short film competition on human rights
Q1

The NHRC's Short Film Awards scheme on human rights, whose 11th edition was announced in May 2025, was instituted in:

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2015

The Short Film Awards scheme was instituted by the NHRC in 2015.

Q2 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the NHRC's 11th short film competition (2025): 1. Films can be up to 30 minutes long. 2. Films must be in Hindi only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2

Neither is correct. Films must be 3 to 10 minutes long and may be in English or any Indian language with English subtitles.

Ayush Ministry outlines 'Samyoga' and 'Yoga Unplugged' as signature events of IDY 2025
Q3

International Day of Yoga on 21 June 2025 marked which anniversary of IDY?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 10th

IDY 2025 marked the 10th anniversary of the International Day of Yoga.

Q4 Advanced

'Samyoga', a signature event of IDY 2025, primarily aims to:

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Integrate evidence-based yoga practices into contemporary healthcare systems

Samyoga aims to translate evidence-based yoga practices into contemporary healthcare systems, including Ayurveda, Siddha, Unani, Homoeopathy, Naturopathy and Sowa Rigpa.

NCPCR holds national consultation on awareness of POCSO Act and Child Labour Act
Q5

The NCPCR national consultation of 14 May 2025 focused on awareness of which laws?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — POCSO Act, 2012 and Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986

The consultation covered the POCSO Act, 2012 and the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986.

Q6 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the NCPCR consultation of 14 May 2025: 1. The NCPCR Chairperson is Preeti Bharadwaj Dalal. 2. About 300 participants took part. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 only

Only statement 2 is correct. The NCPCR Chairperson is Tripti Gurha; Preeti Bharadwaj Dalal is a Member of the Commission.

CPI inflation falls to 3.16% in April 2025, lowest since July 2019
Q7

All-India CPI-based headline inflation for April 2025 (provisional) was:

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 3.16%

Headline CPI inflation was 3.16%. 2.92% was rural inflation and 1.78% was food inflation.

Q8 Advanced

Consider the following statements about CPI data for April 2025: 1. Headline CPI inflation was the lowest year-on-year rate since July 2019. 2. Food inflation (CFPI) was the lowest since October 2021. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct as per MoSPI's release of 13 May 2025.

Q9

The Consumer Price Index released by MoSPI for April 2025 uses which base year?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 2012

The CPI numbers are on base 2012=100.

PM reviews TB elimination programme and 100-day TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan
Q10 Advanced

How many vulnerable individuals were screened under the 100-Day TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan, as reviewed by the PM on 13 May 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 12.97 crore

12.97 crore vulnerable individuals were screened; 7.19 lakh TB cases were detected, including 2.85 lakh asymptomatic cases.

Q11 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the 100-Day TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan: 1. About 1.297 crore people were screened during the campaign. 2. 7.19 lakh TB cases were detected, including 2.85 lakh asymptomatic cases. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 only

Only statement 2 is correct. 12.97 crore vulnerable individuals were screened.

India's Major Ports handle about 855 million tonnes of cargo in FY 2024-25
Q12

India's Major Ports handled approximately how much cargo in FY 2024-25?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 855 million tonnes

Major Ports handled about 855 million tonnes in FY 2024-25, up 4.3% from 819 million tonnes in FY 2023-24.

Q13 Advanced

Which commodity group had the largest share of cargo handled at India's Major Ports in FY 2024-25?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Petroleum, oil and lubricants (POL)

POL led with 254.5 million tonnes (29.8%), followed by containers (193.5 MT) and coal (186.6 MT).

Ayurveda Day to be observed on 23 September every year
Q14

Ayurveda Day will now be observed every year on:

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 23 September

Ayurveda Day has been fixed on 23 September every year.

Q15 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the new date for Ayurveda Day: 1. It was notified through a Gazette Notification dated 23 March 2025. 2. Ayurveda Day was earlier observed on Diwali. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only statement 1 is correct. Ayurveda Day was earlier observed on Dhanteras.

Q16 Advanced

The new date chosen for Ayurveda Day, 23 September, coincides with which astronomical event?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Autumnal equinox

23 September coincides with the autumnal equinox, when day and night are nearly equal.

India's coal imports fall 9.2% in April 2024–February 2025
Q17

By what percentage did India's coal imports fall in April 2024–February 2025 compared with the same period a year earlier?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 9.2%

Coal imports fell 9.2% to 220.3 MT. 15.3% was the fall for the non-regulated sector, 38.8% for blending imports, and 5.45% was growth in domestic output.

Q18 Advanced

Consider the following statements about India's coal imports in April 2024–February 2025: 1. The fall in imports saved about US$ 6.93 billion in foreign exchange. 2. Imports for blending by thermal power plants fell by 38.8%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct as per the Ministry of Coal release of 13 May 2025.

PM addresses the nation on Operation Sindoor; outlines three pillars of response to terrorism
Q19

In his address to the nation on 12 May 2025, the Prime Minister said Operation Sindoor was carried out on:

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 6–7 May

As per the PIB release, the PM said the pledge of Operation Sindoor was fulfilled on 6-7 May.

Q20

In the address of 12 May 2025, the Prime Minister said any talks with Pakistan would focus on:

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Terrorism and PoK

The PM said any discussions with Pakistan would focus on terrorism and Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (PoK).

Q21 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Prime Minister's address of 12 May 2025: 1. One of the three pillars he outlined was no tolerance for nuclear blackmail. 2. He said India had permanently ended its counter-operations against Pakistan. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only statement 1 is correct. The PM said India had decided to temporarily suspend its counter-operations and would assess Pakistan's every move.

Q22

In his address of 12 May 2025, the Prime Minister referred to the terrorist attack in Pahalgam that took place on:

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 22 April

The PM referred to the terrorist attack in Pahalgam on 22 April 2025.

Virat Kohli retires from Test cricket after 123 Tests
Q23

How many Test matches did Virat Kohli play before announcing his retirement from Test cricket on 12 May 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 123

Kohli played 123 Tests, scoring 9,230 runs. He captained India in 68 of them.

Q24 Advanced

Consider the following statements about Virat Kohli's Test career: 1. He won 40 of the 68 Tests in which he captained India, the most wins by an Indian Test captain. 2. He scored 30 Test centuries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct as per the ICC and ESPNcricinfo.

Q25 Advanced

How many Test double hundreds did Virat Kohli score, the most by an Indian?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Seven

Kohli made seven Test double hundreds, the most ever by an Indian.

Q26 Advanced

Virat Kohli retired as the fourth-most successful Test captain by wins. Who holds the record for the most Test wins as captain?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Graeme Smith

Graeme Smith leads with 53 wins, followed by Ricky Ponting (48), Steve Waugh (41) and Kohli (40).

International Nurses Day 2025 observed; State of the World's Nursing 2025 report released
Q27

What was the theme of International Nurses Day 2025, chosen by the International Council of Nurses?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Our Nurses. Our Future. Caring for nurses strengthens economies

The IND 2025 theme was 'Our Nurses. Our Future. Caring for nurses strengthens economies'. 'The Economic Power of Care' was the 2024 theme.

Q28 Advanced

According to the State of the World's Nursing 2025 report, the global stock of nurses in 2023 was:

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 29.8 million

The global stock was 29.8 million in 2023 (27.9 million in 2018). 36 million is the 2030 projection; 5.8 million is the 2023 shortage.

Q29 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the State of the World's Nursing 2025 report: 1. The global nursing shortage was 5.8 million in 2023 and is projected to fall to 4.1 million by 2030. 2. About 49% of the world's nurses are in countries that have 78% of the world's population. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only statement 1 is correct. It is the reverse: about 78% of nurses are in countries with only 49% of the world's population.

C-DOT and Synergy Quantum sign MoU to develop drone-based Quantum Key Distribution
Q30

The MoU signed between C-DOT and Synergy Quantum India in May 2025 is for developing Quantum Key Distribution systems suited for deployment on:

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Drones

The MoU covers development of drone-based Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) systems.

Q31 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the C-DOT–Synergy Quantum MoU (May 2025): 1. C-DOT is an R&D institution under the Ministry of Electronics and IT. 2. The QKD systems are to be developed at Technology Readiness Level 6 or above. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 2 only

Only statement 2 is correct. C-DOT is under the Department of Telecommunications (Ministry of Communications).

Ethiopian delegation of Governors and Ministers calls on Dr Jitendra Singh; to train at NCGG
Q32 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Ethiopian delegation's India visit (May 2025): 1. The delegation is undergoing a week-long training programme at the National Centre for Good Governance (NCGG). 2. The programme is organised under the ITEC Division of the Ministry of External Affairs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct. The NCGG programme is organised under MEA's Indian Technical and Economic Cooperation (ITEC) Division.

Q33 Advanced

Consider the following statements: 1. PM Narendra Modi and Ethiopian PM Dr Abiy Ahmed met at the BRICS Summit in Johannesburg in August 2023. 2. The Ethiopian delegation that called on Dr Jitendra Singh on 12 May 2025 comprised only Ministers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only statement 1 is correct. The delegation comprised Governors, Vice-Governors and Ministers.

Temporary closure of 32 airports for civil flights lifted
Q34

On 12 May 2025, the Ministry of Civil Aviation lifted the temporary closure for civil aircraft operations at how many airports?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 32

The temporary closure of 32 airports, earlier in force till 05:29 hrs of 15 May 2025, was lifted with immediate effect.

National Technology Day 2025 observed with the theme 'YANTRA'
Q35

The theme of National Technology Day 2025, 'YANTRA', stands for:

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Yugantar for Advancing New Technology, Research & Acceleration

The TDB-DST theme was 'YANTRA – Yugantar for Advancing New Technology, Research & Acceleration'.

Q36 Advanced

Consider the following statements about National Technology Day: 1. It commemorates the Pokhran nuclear tests of 1998. 2. The 2025 theme was unveiled by the Technology Development Board under the Department of Science and Technology. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct.

Q37

National Technology Day, observed on 11 May, marks the Pokhran tests conducted in which year?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 1998

It marks the Pokhran tests of 1998 and was first celebrated that year.

Ayush Ministry launches weekly Yoga Podcast; 10 signature events planned for IDY 2025
Q38

Consider the following statements: 1. The Ayush Ministry's Weekly Yoga Podcast launched in May 2025 is produced by the Morarji Desai National Institute of Yoga. 2. The theme of International Day of Yoga 2025 is 'Yoga for One Earth, One Health'. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct.

Q39

International Day of Yoga 2025 marks which anniversary of its observance?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 10th

IDY 2025 is the 10th anniversary of the observance.

Q40 Advanced

Under 'Yoga Sangam', one of the 10 signature events for IDY 2025, coordinated yoga is planned at how many locations?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 1,00,000

Yoga Sangam aims at coordinated yoga at 1,00,000 locations, targeting a world record.

'Super 30 Startups' compendium released and two National Quantum Mission calls launched on Technology Day
Q41 Advanced

Which compendium of TDB-funded startups was released on National Technology Day 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Super 30 Startups

Dr Jitendra Singh released a compendium of 'Super 30 Startups' funded by TDB over the past five years.

Q42 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the National Technology Day 2025 event: 1. Two new calls for proposals under the National Quantum Mission were launched. 2. The Technology Development Board functions under the Department of Biotechnology. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only statement 1 is correct. TDB is under the Department of Science and Technology.

New 91-foot statue of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj unveiled at Rajkot Fort, Sindhudurg
Q43

The new statue of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj unveiled at Rajkot Fort, Sindhudurg on 11 May 2025 is how tall, including its pedestal?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 91 feet

The statue is 91 feet tall including a 10-foot pedestal. The earlier statue that collapsed in 2024 was 35 feet.

Q44 Advanced

Consider the following statements: 1. The new Shivaji Maharaj statue stands at Rajkot Fort in Malvan, Sindhudurg district. 2. The earlier statue at the site, which collapsed in August 2024, was 60 feet tall. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only statement 1 is correct. The earlier statue was 35 feet tall.

India women beat Sri Lanka by 97 runs to win ODI tri-series in Colombo
Q45

Who scored a century (116) for India in the women's ODI tri-series final against Sri Lanka on 11 May 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Smriti Mandhana

Smriti Mandhana scored 116 off 101 balls and was Player of the Match.

Q46 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the tri-series final of 11 May 2025: 1. India batted first and scored 342 for 7. 2. Sri Lanka captain Chamari Athapaththu scored a century. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only statement 1 is correct. Athapaththu scored 51.

Q47 Advanced

What were Sneh Rana's bowling figures in the tri-series final?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 4/38

Sneh Rana took 4 for 38; Amanjot Kaur took 3 for 54.

Science and Technology Ministry holds voluntary blood donation camp with Indian Red Cross Society
Q48

Consider the following statements about the blood donation camp held on 11 May 2025: 1. It was organised by the Ministry of Science and Technology with the Indian Red Cross Society. 2. It was organised by the Ministry of Defence. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only statement 1 is correct. The camp was organised by the Ministry of Science and Technology in collaboration with the Indian Red Cross Society.

Foreign Secretary: India and Pakistan DGMOs agree to stop all firing and military action from 1700 hours IST
Q49

As per the Foreign Secretary's statement of 10 May 2025, from what time were both sides to stop all firing and military action?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 1700 hours IST

Both sides were to stop all firing and military action from 1700 hours IST on 10 May 2025; the call itself was at 1535 hours.

Q50 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Foreign Secretary's statement of 10 May 2025: 1. The DGMO of Pakistan called the DGMO of India at 1535 hours IST. 2. The DGMOs were to talk again on 11 May at 1700 hours. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Statement 1 is correct. The DGMOs were to talk again on 12 May at 1200 hours, so statement 2 is wrong.

Q51

The understanding announced on 10 May 2025 covered stopping firing and military action in which domains?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Land, air and sea

The statement said both sides would stop all firing and military action on land and in the air and sea.

AAI NOTAMs: civil flights suspended at 32 airports; 25 ATS route segments closed till 15 May
Q52

As per the release of 10 May 2025, how many airports were temporarily closed to civil flight operations under the NOTAMs?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 32

32 airports across northern and western India were closed for civil flights from 9 to 14 May 2025; 25 was the number of ATS route segments.

Q53 Advanced

Consider the following statements: 1. AAI extended the temporary closure of 25 ATS route segments within the Delhi and Mumbai Flight Information Regions. 2. The route segments were to remain unavailable until 2359 UTC on 14 May 2025, which corresponds to 0529 IST on 15 May 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct as per the Ministry of Civil Aviation release.

Q54 Advanced

NOTAM G0555/25 on the closure of ATS route segments replaced which earlier NOTAM?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — G0525/25

As per NOTAM G0555/25 (which replaces G0525/25), the 25 route segments remained unavailable until 2359 UTC on 14 May 2025.

World Migratory Bird Day 2025: 'Shared Spaces: Creating Bird-Friendly Cities and Communities'
Q55

What was the theme of World Migratory Bird Day 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Shared Spaces: Creating Bird-Friendly Cities and Communities

The 2025 theme was 'Shared Spaces: Creating Bird-Friendly Cities and Communities'.

Q56 Advanced

Consider the following statements: 1. World Migratory Bird Day is observed twice a year; in 2025 it fell on 10 May and 11 October. 2. The Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) entered into force in 1993. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. CMS entered into force in 1979 and has 133 Parties.

Q57 Advanced

According to CMS, what share of all bird species globally is in decline?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — 49%

Globally 49% of bird species are in decline; 55% and 68% are the UN figures for the share of people in urban areas now and by 2050.

Madhura Dhamangaonkar wins compound gold at Archery World Cup Stage 2 in Shanghai
Q58

Whom did Madhura Dhamangaonkar beat in the women's compound final at the Archery World Cup Stage 2, Shanghai, on 10 May 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Carson Krahe

She beat USA's Carson Krahe 139–138 in the final; Hazal Burun was her semi-final opponent and Jyothi Surekha Vennam her quarter-final opponent.

Q59 Advanced

What was the score in Madhura Dhamangaonkar's winning final?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 139–138

She won the final 139–138; 143–141 was her semi-final score and 232–228 the men's team final score.

Q60 Advanced

Consider the following statements about India at the Archery World Cup Stage 2, Shanghai: 1. The men's compound team of Abhishek Verma, Rishabh Yadav and Ojas Deotale beat Mexico 232–228 in the final. 2. Madhura Dhamangaonkar also won women's team silver and compound mixed team bronze with Abhishek Verma. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct.

Q61 Advanced

Which compound archery event is set to mark compound archery's Olympic debut at LA 2028?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — Mixed team

The compound mixed team event will feature at LA 2028, marking compound archery's Olympic debut.

PM Modi chairs high-level meeting at 7, Lok Kalyan Marg
Q62 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the high-level meeting of 10 May 2025: 1. It was held at Rashtrapati Bhavan. 2. It was chaired by the Defence Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2

Both are wrong: the meeting was chaired by PM Narendra Modi at 7, Lok Kalyan Marg; the Defence Minister attended.

Q63

Who attended the 10 May 2025 high-level meeting as Chief of Defence Staff?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — General Anil Chauhan

CDS General Anil Chauhan attended; Ajit Doval is the NSA and Rajnath Singh the Defence Minister.

DARPG holds interactive training under 'Rashtriya Karmayogi Jan Seva Program'
Q64 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the training of 10 May 2025: 1. It was organised by DARPG in collaboration with the Capacity Building Commission. 2. The programme comprised four modules. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct.

Q65

Which of the following was one of the modules of the 'Rashtriya Karmayogi Jan Seva Program' training held on 10 May 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — Who is a Rashtriya Karmayogi?

The four modules were: Who is a Rashtriya Karmayogi?; Expanding Our Vision of Success and Fulfillment; Creating a Karmayogi; Rashtriya Karmayogi as a Nation-Builder.

India highlights forest achievements at UNFF20, invites nations to join International Big Cat Alliance
Q66

As reported by India at UNFF20, what share of India's geographical area is under forest and tree cover?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — 25.17%

India reported forest and tree cover of 25.17% of its geographical area as per the latest India State of Forest Report.

Q67 Advanced

Consider the following statements about India at UNFF20: 1. India invited all UN Member States to join the International Big Cat Alliance. 2. India recalled the Country-Led Initiative it hosted in Dehradun in October 2023. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2

Both are correct; the Dehradun initiative focused on forest fire management and forest certification.

Jan Suraksha schemes PMJJBY, PMSBY and APY complete 10 years
Q68

On which date were PMJJBY, PMSBY and Atal Pension Yojana launched?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 9 May 2015

The three Jan Suraksha schemes were launched by PM Narendra Modi on 9 May 2015.

Q69 Advanced

Which Jan Suraksha scheme had over 51 crore cumulative enrolments as on 23 April 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — PMSBY

PMSBY had over 51.06 crore enrolments; PMJJBY had over 23.63 crore and APY over 7.66 crore.

Q70 Advanced

Consider the following statements (data as on 23 April 2025): 1. More than 7.66 crore individuals had subscribed to the Atal Pension Yojana. 2. ₹3,121.02 crore had been paid under PMJJBY. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. ₹3,121.02 crore was paid under PMSBY; PMJJBY payouts were ₹18,397.92 crore.

DPIIT notifies expansion of Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups; cover per borrower raised to ₹20 crore
Q71

After the expansion notified in May 2025, what is the ceiling on guarantee cover per borrower under the Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups?

Show answer

Correct answer: C — ₹20 crore

The ceiling was raised from ₹10 crore to ₹20 crore.

Q72 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the expanded CGSS: 1. Guarantee cover is 85% of the amount in default for loans up to ₹10 crore. 2. The Annual Guarantee Fee for startups in Champion Sectors was raised to 2% per annum. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: A — 1 only

Only 1 is correct. The Annual Guarantee Fee for Champion Sectors was reduced from 2% to 1% per annum.

Q73 Advanced

The reduced Annual Guarantee Fee under the expanded CGSS applies to startups in how many Champion Sectors?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — 27

The fee was cut to 1% for startups in 27 Champion Sectors identified under 'Make in India'.

Morningstar DBRS upgrades India's sovereign rating to 'BBB' with Stable trend
Q74

To which rating did Morningstar DBRS upgrade India's long-term foreign and local currency issuer ratings in May 2025?

Show answer

Correct answer: B — BBB

The ratings were upgraded from BBB (low) to BBB with a Stable trend.

Q75 Advanced

Consider the following statements about the Morningstar DBRS upgrade: 1. India's short-term ratings were upgraded to R-1 (low). 2. The agency cited average GDP growth of 6.5% during FY22–25. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer

Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2

Both are wrong: short-term ratings went to R-2 (high) from R-2 (middle), and average growth cited was 8.2%.