Kerala PSC Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Which country did India defeat in the election for the 2025-2028 Presidency of the International Institute of Administrative Sciences?
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Correct answer: A — Austria
India polled 87 votes against 54 for Austria in the IIAS election held on 3 June 2025.
Where was the IIAS Extraordinary General Assembly Meeting that elected India to the Presidency held on 3 June 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Brussels
The IIAS elections were held during the Extraordinary General Assembly Meeting on 3 June 2025 in Brussels.
How many votes did India poll in the IIAS Presidency election held on 3 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 87
India registered 87 votes in the IIAS Presidency election held in Brussels on 3 June 2025.
Consider the following statements about the International Institute of Administrative Sciences (IIAS): 1. India's Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances has represented India as a member state since 1998. 2. India's Presidency of the IIAS is for the period 2025-2028. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. DARPG has represented India as a member state of the IIAS since 1998, and India will hold the Presidency for 2025-2028.
Where is India's National Maritime Heritage Centre, for which Union Minister Sarbananda Sonowal sought Norway's cooperation in June 2025, located?
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Correct answer: B — Lothal, Gujarat
Sonowal sought Norway's cooperation in cultural, technological and academic collaboration for the National Maritime Heritage Centre at Lothal, Gujarat.
At which global maritime event in Oslo did India set up its pavilion for the first time on 3 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Nor-Shipping
The India Pavilion was inaugurated at Nor-Shipping in Oslo, marking India's first-ever participation in the event.
Under the Scheme to Promote Manufacturing of Electric Passenger Cars in India, at what reduced customs duty can approved applicants import e-4W CBUs?
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Correct answer: D — 15%
Approved applicants can import CBUs of e-4W with a minimum CIF value of USD 35,000 at a reduced customs duty of 15% for five years from the Application Approval Date.
What is the minimum investment commitment required from approved applicants under SPMEPCI?
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Correct answer: A — ₹4,150 crore
Approved applicants must make a minimum investment of ₹4,150 crore (about USD 500 million) within a three-year window.
What is the annual cap on the number of e-4Ws that an approved applicant can import at the reduced duty under SPMEPCI?
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Correct answer: C — 8,000
The maximum number of e-4W allowed to be imported at the reduced duty rate is capped at 8,000 per year, with carryover of unutilised limits permitted.
Consider the following statements about the Scheme to Promote Manufacturing of Electric Passenger Cars in India (SPMEPCI): 1. Only e-4W CBUs with a minimum CIF value of USD 35,000 qualify for the reduced customs duty. 2. Approved applicants must commence manufacturing operations within five years of approval. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the reduced duty applies to e-4W CBUs with a minimum CIF value of USD 35,000. Statement 2 is incorrect: applicants must set up the facility and commence manufacturing of e-4W within three years.
Which Indian island territories did India and Japan discuss developing as Smart Islands during talks in Oslo on 2 June 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Andaman and Nicobar and Lakshadweep
Sarbananda Sonowal and Terada Yoshimichi discussed converting the Andaman and Nicobar and Lakshadweep islands into Smart Islands, drawing on Japan's expertise in island territories.
Which cooperative bodies does the world's largest cooperative food grain storage scheme, reviewed by Amit Shah on 2 June 2025, aim to benefit by raising their income?
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Correct answer: C — Primary Agricultural Credit Societies
The scheme aims to increase the income of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) and create rural employment.
What were India's gross GST collections for May 2025, according to data released on 1 June 2025?
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Correct answer: B — ₹2.01 lakh crore
Gross GST collections for May 2025 stood at ₹2,01,050 crore, or about ₹2.01 lakh crore.
By what percentage did gross GST collections in May 2025 grow over May 2024?
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Correct answer: D — 16.4%
Gross GST collections rose 16.4% year-on-year in May 2025, to ₹2,01,050 crore.
Consider the following statements about GST collections for May 2025: 1. GST revenue from imports grew faster than revenue from domestic transactions. 2. Collections in April 2025 had touched an all-time high of ₹2.37 lakh crore. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. Import GST grew 25.2% against 13.7% for domestic transactions, and collections in April 2025 had reached an all-time high of ₹2.37 lakh crore.
Which component accounted for the largest share of gross GST collections in May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — IGST
IGST, at ₹1,08,836 crore, was the largest component of the ₹2,01,050 crore gross GST collected in May 2025, making it the largest single component.
Whom did D Gukesh beat for the first time in a classical game in Round 6 of Norway Chess 2025 on 1 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Magnus Carlsen
Gukesh beat world No. 1 Magnus Carlsen for the first time in a classical game in Round 6 of Norway Chess 2025.
In how many moves did Gukesh win his Round 6 game against Magnus Carlsen at Norway Chess 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 62
Gukesh turned around a losing position and won the game in 62 moves.
In which Norwegian city was Norway Chess 2025, where Gukesh beat Carlsen, held?
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Correct answer: D — Stavanger
Gukesh beat Carlsen in Round 6 of Norway Chess 2025 in Stavanger.
What is Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla's role on the Axiom Mission 4 (Ax-4) crew?
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Correct answer: B — Mission Pilot
The Science Ministry said Shukla will serve as Mission Pilot on Ax-4.
Who is the Commander of the Axiom Mission 4 crew that includes Shubhanshu Shukla?
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Correct answer: D — Peggy Whitson
The Commander is former NASA astronaut Peggy Whitson; Uznański-Wiśniewski and Kapu are Mission Specialists.
Who is the designated backup for Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla on Axiom Mission 4?
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Correct answer: A — Group Captain Prasanth Balakrishnan Nair
The ministry named Group Captain Prasanth Balakrishnan Nair as Shukla's designated backup.
Where was the High-Level International Conference on Glaciers' Preservation held from 29 to 31 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Dushanbe, Tajikistan
The Environment Ministry said the conference was held in Dushanbe, Republic of Tajikistan.
Which Indian mission, highlighted at the Dushanbe glacier conference, is part of the National Action Plan on Climate Change?
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Correct answer: A — National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem
The MoS highlighted India's actions under the National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem (NMSHE), a key component of the NAPCC.
Who assumed office as Director General of Defence Estates on 31 May 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Shailendra Nath Gupta
The Ministry of Defence said Shailendra Nath Gupta, a 1990-batch IDES officer, assumed office on 31 May 2025.
How many Cantonment Boards does the Directorate General of Defence Estates operate through, as per the Defence Ministry?
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Correct answer: B — 61
DGDE operates under six commands, 38 Defence Estates Circles and 61 Cantonment Boards.
Approximately how much defence land is managed by the Directorate General of Defence Estates?
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Correct answer: C — 18 lakh acres
The ministry said DGDE manages approximately 18 lakh acres of defence land.
Where was the Spring Term 2025 Passing Out Parade of 186 naval trainees held on 31 May 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala
The Ministry of Defence said the parade was held at the Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala.
The Rajya Raksha Mantri Trophy for the Most Promising Cadet at the INA Spring Term 2025 parade was won by a trainee from which country?
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Correct answer: A — Tanzania
It was awarded to Midshipman Kiondo Michael Florence, a trainee from Tanzania.
Who reviewed the Spring Term 2025 Passing Out Parade at the Indian Naval Academy?
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Correct answer: C — Vice Admiral V. Srinivas
The parade was reviewed by Vice Admiral V. Srinivas, FOC-in-C, Southern Naval Command; VAdm CR Praveen Nair is the Commandant of INA.
From which date did the Jan Aushadhi Kendra Experiential Learning Programme under 'Seva Se Seekhen' begin?
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Correct answer: D — 1 June 2025
The Youth Affairs Ministry said the programme would be launched from 1 June 2025.
What is the duration of the Jan Aushadhi Kendra Experiential Learning Programme for youth volunteers?
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Correct answer: B — 15 days
It is a 15-day experiential initiative placing five volunteers in five Jan Aushadhi Kendras per district.
Which field firing range did Army Chief General Upendra Dwivedi visit on 27 May 2025 to review the Capacity Development Demonstrations?
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Correct answer: C — Babina
The Ministry of Defence said the COAS visited Babina Field Firing Ranges on 27 May 2025.
The Army's Capacity Development Demonstrations of May 2025 are part of its roadmap called:
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Correct answer: A — Decade of Transformation
The release says the trials mark a significant step in the Army's roadmap for a 'Decade of Transformation'.
Consider the following statements about the Indian Army's Capacity Development Demonstrations announced on 31 May 2025: 1. Dedicated air defence equipment demonstrations were scheduled at Agra and Gopalpur. 2. The trials were conducted with electronic warfare simulations under near-combat conditions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Ministry of Defence release.
As per the NSO's Provisional Estimates released on 30 May 2025, India's real GDP grew by how much in FY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: B — 6.5%
Real GDP growth for 2024-25 was estimated at 6.5%; 9.8% was nominal GDP growth and 7.4% was Q4 real growth.
What was India's real GDP growth in the January–March quarter (Q4) of 2024-25, as per the NSO?
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Correct answer: D — 7.4%
The NSO estimated real GDP growth of 7.4% in Q4 of 2024-25; nominal growth was 10.8%.
Which sector recorded the highest growth rate (9.4%) in FY 2024-25 as per the Provisional Estimates?
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Correct answer: A — Construction
Construction was estimated to grow 9.4%, followed by Public Administration, Defence & Other Services (8.9%).
India's common compute capacity under the IndiaAI Mission crossed which mark, as announced on 30 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 34,000 GPUs
MeitY said the national compute capacity had crossed 34,000 GPUs.
Which startup selected under the IndiaAI Mission in May 2025 will build a 14-billion-parameter voice AI foundation model?
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Correct answer: B — Gnani AI
Gnani AI will build the 14B voice AI model; Soket AI 120B and Gan AI 70B; Sarvam AI was selected earlier, in April.
According to MeitY, which startup will develop an open-source 120-billion-parameter foundation model optimised for India's linguistic diversity?
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Correct answer: D — Soket AI
MeitY said Soket AI will develop India's first open-source 120B-parameter foundation model optimised for linguistic diversity.
According to the provisional accounts for 2024-25, total receipts of the Government of India were what percentage of the revised estimates?
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Correct answer: A — 97.8%
Total receipts of ₹30,78,247 crore were 97.8% of RE 2024-25; 98.7% was the figure for total expenditure.
How much was transferred to state governments as devolution of share of taxes in 2024-25, as per the provisional accounts?
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Correct answer: C — ₹12,86,885 crore
₹12,86,885 crore was devolved to states. ₹10,52,007 crore was capital expenditure, ₹11,16,343 crore interest payments, and ₹24,98,885 crore net tax revenue.
What minimum qualifying service must a retired Central Government NPS subscriber have to claim additional UPS benefits, as per the Finance Ministry's May 2025 notice?
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Correct answer: A — 10 years
Subscribers who retired on or before 31 March 2025 with a minimum of 10 years of qualifying service are eligible.
What was the last date for retired Central Government NPS subscribers to claim additional UPS benefits, as per the notice of 30 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 30 June 2025
The Finance Ministry gave 30 June 2025 as the last date to claim the benefits.
The National Florence Nightingale Award, presented on 30 May 2025, was instituted by which ministry?
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Correct answer: C — Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
The President's Secretariat said the award was instituted by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Where were the National Florence Nightingale Awards 2025 presented?
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Correct answer: B — Rashtrapati Bhavan
President Droupadi Murmu presented the awards at a function at Rashtrapati Bhavan on 30 May 2025.
Who launched the AyushSuraksha Portal on 30 May 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Prataprao Jadhav
The Ministry of Ayush said MoS (IC) Prataprao Jadhav launched the portal at Ayush Bhawan.
The AyushSuraksha Portal launched in May 2025 is mainly meant to address:
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Correct answer: B — Misleading advertisements and adverse drug reactions
It was launched to address misleading advertisements and adverse drug reactions in the Ayush sector.
Which department released the DHRUVA policy document for a Digital Address DPI on 30 May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Department of Posts
The Ministry of Communications said the Department of Posts released DHRUVA.
What concept lies at the core of the DHRUVA digital addressing policy?
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Correct answer: D — Address-as-a-Service (AaaS)
The release says Address-as-a-Service (AaaS) is at the core of DHRUVA.
On which date were the Terms of Reference for negotiating the India–Chile CEPA signed?
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Correct answer: C — 8 May 2025
The Commerce Ministry said the ToR were signed on 8 May 2025; the first round began on 26 May.
The launch of India–Chile CEPA negotiations was welcomed during the State Visit to India in April 2025 of which Chilean President?
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Correct answer: B — Gabriel Boric Font
The release says the launch was welcomed during the State Visit of President Gabriel Boric Font in April 2025.
Which three DPSUs were granted Miniratna status by the Defence Minister on 29 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — MIL, AVNL and IOL
Munitions India Ltd, Armoured Vehicles Nigam Ltd and India Optel Ltd were granted Miniratna status.
Which category of Miniratna status was granted to MIL, AVNL and IOL?
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Correct answer: D — Category-I
The Defence Ministry said the three DPSUs were granted Miniratna Category-I status.
Until when are the wheat stock limits imposed by the Centre in May 2025 applicable?
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Correct answer: B — 31 March 2026
The Food Ministry said the order is applicable until 31 March 2026 in all States and UTs.
What is the wheat stock limit for traders/wholesalers under the order of 27 May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 3,000 MT
The stock limit for traders/wholesalers is 3,000 MT; retailers have 10 MT per outlet.
Consider the following statements about the wheat stock limits of May 2025: 1. Retailers may hold 10 MT of wheat for each retail outlet. 2. Processors may hold 50% of their monthly installed capacity multiplied by the remaining months of FY 2025-26. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The processors' limit is 70% (not 50%) of monthly installed capacity times the remaining months of FY 2025-26.
Who led the Indian all-party parliamentary delegation that visited Colombia from 29 to 31 May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Shashi Tharoor
The Colombia delegation was led by MP Shashi Tharoor, as per the Embassy of India in Bogotá.
With the vesting orders of 29 May 2025, for how many coal blocks have vesting/allocation orders been issued under commercial auctions?
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Correct answer: D — 116
The Coal Ministry said vesting/allocation orders have now been issued for 116 coal blocks under commercial auctions.
Which Coal India subsidiary became the first to secure a coal block through commercial auction, as noted by the Coal Ministry in May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Western Coalfields Ltd
The ministry said Western Coalfields Ltd had, for the first time, secured a coal block through commercial auction.
Exercise Nomadic Elephant is a joint military exercise between India and:
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Correct answer: B — Mongolia
Nomadic Elephant is the India–Mongolia joint military exercise.
Which edition of Exercise Nomadic Elephant was held in Ulaanbaatar from 31 May to 13 June 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 17th
The Ministry of Defence said it was the 17th edition.
Where was the previous (July 2024) edition of Exercise Nomadic Elephant held?
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Correct answer: D — Umroi, Meghalaya
The previous edition was conducted at Umroi, Meghalaya, in July 2024.
Under the MHA decision of May 2025, which personnel of CAPFs and Assam Rifles will get an honorary rank one level higher on retirement?
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Correct answer: A — Constable to Sub-Inspector
The decision covers personnel below officer rank, from Constable to Sub-Inspector.
Consider the following statements about the honorary rank decision of May 2025: 1. It applies to the Assam Rifles as well as the CAPFs. 2. The honorary rank comes with additional pension benefits. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct: the decision covers CAPFs and Assam Rifles, but the honorary rank carries no financial or pension benefits.
How many villages will be covered under Swachh Survekshan Grameen 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 21,000
The Jal Shakti Ministry said SSG 2025 will cover 21,000 villages across 761 districts.
Swachh Survekshan Grameen 2025 is conducted by which department?
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Correct answer: C — Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation
SSG 2025 is a survey by the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation (DDWS), Ministry of Jal Shakti.
According to the Comprehensive Modular Survey: Telecom 2025, what share of Indian households possessed at least one smartphone?
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Correct answer: D — 85.5%
MoSPI found approximately 85.5% of households possessed at least one smartphone.
As per CMS: Telecom 2025, what percentage of rural persons aged 15–29 used mobile phones in the last three months?
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Correct answer: B — 96.8%
Rural mobile phone use in the 15–29 age group was about 96.8%; 97.6% was urban use and 92.7% rural internet use.
Among persons aged 15–29 able to perform online banking transactions, what share could do so through UPI, as per CMS: Telecom 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 99.5%
About 99.5% of such persons reported the ability to transact through UPI.
For how many kharif crops did the Cabinet approve increased MSPs for marketing season 2025-26?
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Correct answer: B — 14
The CCEA approved increased MSPs for 14 kharif crops.
Which kharif crop saw the highest absolute increase in MSP for marketing season 2025-26?
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Correct answer: D — Nigerseed
Nigerseed had the highest absolute increase (₹820 per quintal), followed by ragi (₹596), cotton (₹589) and sesamum (₹579).
What is the MSP of common paddy for kharif marketing season 2025-26?
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Correct answer: A — ₹2,369 per quintal
Common paddy MSP is ₹2,369 per quintal (up from ₹2,300); ₹2,389 is Grade A paddy and ₹2,400 is maize.