JPSC Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
How many Light Combat Helicopters Prachand did the Ministry of Defence contract from HAL on 28 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 156
The two contracts cover 156 LCH Prachand helicopters worth ₹62,700 crore.
How are the 156 LCH Prachand helicopters ordered on 28 March 2025 split between the services?
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Correct answer: B — 66 IAF and 90 Army
The first contract is for 66 LCHs for the IAF and the second for 90 LCHs for the Army.
Along with the LCH contracts on 28 March 2025, the Ministry of Defence signed a contract with Metrea Management for:
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Correct answer: D — Wet lease of one flight refuelling aircraft
MoD signed a contract with Metrea Management to wet-lease one KC-135 flight refuelling aircraft to train IAF and Navy pilots in air-to-air refuelling.
Consider the following statements about the LCH Prachand, as stated by the Ministry of Defence on 28 March 2025: 1. It is India's first indigenously designed and developed combat helicopter and can operate above 5,000 metres. 2. Indigenous content of over 65% is planned during this procurement. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The MoD described the LCH as India's first indigenous combat helicopter able to operate above 5,000 m and planned over 65% indigenous content.
On 28 March 2025, the Supreme Court quashed an FIR against which Rajya Sabha MP over a poem in a social media video?
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Correct answer: A — Imran Pratapgarhi
The Supreme Court quashed the Jamnagar FIR against Congress Rajya Sabha MP Imran Pratapgarhi.
Which bench of the Supreme Court decided the Imran Pratapgarhi case on 28 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Justices Abhay S. Oka and Ujjal Bhuyan
The case was decided by a bench of Justices Abhay S. Oka and Ujjal Bhuyan.
Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court's ruling in Imran Pratapgadhi v. State of Gujarat (28 March 2025): 1. The court relied on the freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution. 2. The court referred to the preliminary inquiry under Section 173(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita before registering an FIR in such speech cases. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The court grounded its ruling in Article 19(1)(a) and said police should use the preliminary inquiry under Section 173(3) BNSS in such cases.
The Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2024, passed by the Lok Sabha on 28 March 2025, replaces an Act of which year?
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Correct answer: B — 1925
The Bill replaces the colonial-era Carriage of Goods by Sea Act, 1925.
The Carriage of Goods by Sea Act, 1925, replaced by the Bill passed in the Lok Sabha on 28 March 2025, was rooted in which international rules?
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Correct answer: D — Hague Rules
The 1925 Act was rooted in the century-old Hague Rules.
On which date did the Union Cabinet approve the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme (ECMS)?
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Correct answer: B — 28 March 2025
The Union Cabinet approved ECMS on 28 March 2025 with an outlay of ₹22,919 crore.
What production target was set for the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme when it was approved on 28 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹4,56,500 crore
The scheme targets production of ₹4,56,500 crore; ₹59,350 crore is the investment target.
Consider the following statements about the Electronics Component Manufacturing Scheme approved on 28 March 2025: 1. Display module and camera module sub-assemblies are covered under a turnover-linked incentive. 2. Li-ion cells for storage and mobility applications are among the bare components covered. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Display and camera module sub-assemblies get a turnover-linked incentive. The Li-ion cell category covers digital applications and excludes storage and mobility.
After the hike approved on 28 March 2025, what is the Dearness Allowance rate for Central Government employees from 1 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 55%
DA was raised by 2% from 53% to 55% of basic pay, effective 1 January 2025.
About how many pensioners benefit from the Dearness Relief increase approved on 28 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 66.55 lakh
About 66.55 lakh pensioners benefit; 48.66 lakh is the number of employees.
The Time Use Survey 2024, whose report was released on 28 March 2025, was which all-India edition of the survey?
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Correct answer: C — Second
It was the second all-India Time Use Survey; the first was conducted in 2019.
According to Time Use in India 2024, what share of women aged 15–59 took part in paid activities?
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Correct answer: B — 24.9%
24.9% of women aged 15–59 took part in paid activities, against 74.5% of men.
Consider the following statements about the Time Use Survey (TUS) 2024: 1. Non-SNA production activities, such as unpaid domestic work, saw participation by 93.9% of women aged 15–59. 2. Time-use surveys capture only work that is counted in the national accounts. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
93.9% of women aged 15–59 took part in non-SNA production activities. Time-use surveys are valuable precisely because they also capture work not counted in national accounts, such as unpaid domestic and care work.
What is the approximate budget requirement for Nutrient Based Subsidy on P&K fertilisers for Kharif 2025, approved on 28 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹37,216 crore
The Cabinet approved NBS rates for Kharif 2025 with a budget need of about ₹37,216.15 crore.
Under the Kharif 2025 NBS decision of 28 March 2025, freight subsidy was extended for which fertiliser?
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Correct answer: D — Single Super Phosphate (SSP)
The freight subsidy on Single Super Phosphate (SSP) was extended to Kharif 2025.
Under the DARPG–Bhashini agreement of 28 March 2025, citizens will be able to file grievances on CPGRAMS in how many regional languages?
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Correct answer: C — 22
The multilingual solution will let citizens file grievances on CPGRAMS in 22 regional languages, including by voice.
By how much did the combined Index of Eight Core Industries grow in February 2025 (provisional), as released on 28 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 2.9%
The index grew 2.9% in February 2025; 4.4% was the April–February cumulative growth and 5.8% the final November 2024 figure.
Which Bill did the Lok Sabha pass on 27 March 2025 after a reply by Home Minister Amit Shah?
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Correct answer: C — Immigration and Foreigners Bill, 2025
The Lok Sabha passed the Immigration and Foreigners Bill, 2025 on 27 March 2025.
How many existing laws does the Immigration and Foreigners Bill, 2025 replace, as stated by the Home Minister on 27 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Four
The Home Minister said the Bill replaces four existing laws; three of them date from 1920, 1939 and 1946.
The Immigration and Foreigners Bill, 2025 gives a legal framework to which system for tracking foreign nationals?
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Correct answer: C — IVFRT
The Bill gives legal backing to the Immigration, Visa and Foreigners Registration and Tracking (IVFRT) system.
Consider the following statements made by the Home Minister on the Immigration and Foreigners Bill, 2025 on 27 March 2025: 1. Three of the laws being replaced were enacted in 1920, 1939 and 1946. 2. The District Police Module (Foreigners Identification Portal) had been launched in only about 200 districts. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Three of the replaced laws date from 1920, 1939 and 1946. The Home Minister said the Foreigners Identification Portal had been launched in over 700 districts, not about 200.
What was the total value of the six ODA loan agreements India signed with JICA on 27 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — JPY 191.736 billion
The six loan agreements were worth JPY 191.736 billion in total.
Which project received the largest loan among the six Japanese ODA agreements signed on 27 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Delhi MRTS Project (Phase 4 Additional Corridors) (I)
The Delhi MRTS Phase 4 Additional Corridors (I) loan was the largest at JPY 79.726 billion.
Under the Japanese ODA loans signed on 27 March 2025, an aquaculture promotion and livelihood improvement project is in which State?
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Correct answer: C — Assam
The Assam State Aquaculture Promotion and Livelihood Improvement Project received JPY 3.580 billion.
Consider the following statements about the Japanese ODA loans signed on 27 March 2025: 1. Two of the six loans are for projects in Tamil Nadu. 2. The Punjab project financed under these loans is an urban transport project. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Tamil Nadu has two: the Chennai desalination plant and the TN Investment Promotion Program. The Punjab project is for biodiversity and natural resources conservation, not urban transport.
How much does the Centre plan to borrow through dated securities in the first half of FY 2025-26, as announced on 27 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹8.00 lakh crore
₹8 lakh crore, or 54% of the ₹14.82 lakh crore budgeted for the year, is to be borrowed in H1.
In the H1 FY 2025-26 borrowing plan, which maturity accounts for the largest share of borrowing?
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Correct answer: B — 10-year
10-year securities have the largest share at 26.2%; 15-year and 40-year papers have 14% each.
Keizai Doyukai, whose delegation met PM Narendra Modi on 27 March 2025, is an association of corporate executives from which country?
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Correct answer: B — Japan
Keizai Doyukai is the Japan Association of Corporate Executives; its delegation was led by Takeshi Niinami.
While meeting the Keizai Doyukai delegation on 27 March 2025, PM Modi highlighted which system developed in India to fast-track Japanese investments?
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Correct answer: C — Japan Plus
The PM highlighted the Japan Plus system, set up to facilitate and fast-track Japanese investment in India.
With which company did the Ministry of Defence sign the contract for the NAMIS (Tracked) anti-tank system on 27 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Armoured Vehicles Nigam Limited
The ₹1,801.34 crore NAMIS (Tr) contract was signed with Armoured Vehicles Nigam Limited.
Which DRDO laboratory developed the NAMIS (Tracked) weapon system contracted on 27 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Defence Research and Development Laboratory (DRDL)
The NAMIS (Tr) system was developed by DRDO's Defence Research and Development Laboratory.
The light vehicles contracted by the Ministry of Defence on 27 March 2025 were ordered from which companies?
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Correct answer: D — Force Motors and Mahindra & Mahindra
About 5,000 light vehicles with an 800 kg payload were ordered from Force Motors Ltd and Mahindra & Mahindra Ltd.
The mine disaster mock drill held by DGMS on 27 March 2025 took place at Hindustan Copper's Surda mine in which State?
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Correct answer: D — Jharkhand
The Surda Copper Mine is at Ghatshila in East Singhbhum district, Jharkhand.
During his call with King Philippe of Belgium on 27 March 2025, PM Modi appreciated the Belgian Economic Mission to India led by whom?
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Correct answer: A — Princess Astrid
The PM appreciated the recent Belgian Economic Mission to India led by Princess Astrid.
The Tribhuvan Sahkari University Bill, passed by the Lok Sabha on 26 March 2025, seeks to set up India's first university dedicated to which sector?
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Correct answer: D — Cooperatives
It will be India's first university dedicated to the cooperative sector.
Tribhuvan Sahkari University is named after Tribhuvandas Patel, a pioneer associated with which cooperative institution?
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Correct answer: B — Amul (GCMMF)
Tribhuvandas Patel is associated with the Gujarat Cooperative Milk Marketing Federation, popularly known as Amul.
According to Amit Shah on 26 March 2025, Tribhuvan Sahkari University will be able to award diplomas, degrees or certificates to about how many candidates a year?
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Correct answer: C — 8 lakh
Amit Shah said the university will have the capacity to train about 8 lakh people a year.
With which company did the Ministry of Defence sign the contract for ATAGS guns on 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Bharat Forge Limited
The ATAGS contract was signed with Bharat Forge Limited; the gun-towing vehicles contract went to Tata Advanced Systems.
What is the calibre of the ATAGS guns contracted on 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 155mm/52
ATAGS is a 155mm/52 calibre towed artillery gun system.
Which DRDO laboratory developed the ATAGS, whose project director was felicitated on 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ARDE, Pune
ATAGS was developed by DRDO's Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE), Pune.
Consider the following statements about the ATAGS procurement of 26 March 2025: 1. It is the Indian Army's first major procurement of towed guns from the private sector. 2. With it, MoD's capital procurement contracts in 2024-25 crossed ₹2 lakh crore. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
ATAGS is the Army's first major towed-gun buy from the private sector. On 26 March 2025, capital contracts for 2024-25 stood at ₹1.40 lakh crore, not over ₹2 lakh crore.
The third session of the India–Uganda Joint Trade Committee, held in New Delhi on 25–26 March 2025, came after a gap of how many years?
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Correct answer: C — 23
The third JTC session was held after a gap of 23 years.
At the India–Uganda JTC of March 2025, the two sides agreed to explore an MoU on recognition of which Indian standard?
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Correct answer: B — Indian Pharmacopoeia
They agreed to explore MoUs including one on recognition of the Indian Pharmacopoeia.
The Mount Everest expedition flagged off on 26 March 2025 commemorates 60 years of which institute?
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Correct answer: C — Nehru Institute of Mountaineering, Uttarkashi
The Everest expedition marks 60 years of the Nehru Institute of Mountaineering (NIM), Uttarkashi.
The Mount Kangchenjunga expedition flagged off on 26 March 2025 is organised by NIMAS, which is located at:
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Correct answer: D — Dirang, Arunachal Pradesh
NIMAS, the National Institute of Mountaineering and Adventure Sports, is at Dirang, Arunachal Pradesh; the expedition is under 'Har Shikhar Tiranga'.
National Highways Infra Trust (NHIT), which completed a record fund-raising round announced on 26 March 2025, is an InvIT set up by:
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Correct answer: C — NHAI
NHIT is the Infrastructure Investment Trust set up by NHAI in 2020 to support the government's monetisation programme.
What was the approximate enterprise value of NHIT's fourth fund-raising round, announced on 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹18,380 crore
The fourth round was at an enterprise value of about ₹18,380 crore; ₹46,000 crore is the total across four rounds.
Which of the following highway stretches is among those to be acquired with funds from NHIT's fourth round, announced on 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Gandhidham–Mundra
The stretches include Gandhidham–Mundra (Gujarat) and Raipur–Bilaspur (Chhattisgarh), along with stretches in Andhra Pradesh and UP/Uttarakhand.
Which components of the Gold Monetisation Scheme were discontinued with effect from 26 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Medium Term and Long Term Government Deposits
The Medium Term and Long Term Government Deposit (MLTGD) components were discontinued; the Short Term Bank Deposit may continue at banks' discretion.
After the March 2025 changes to the Gold Monetisation Scheme, what happens to the Short Term Bank Deposit (1–3 years)?
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Correct answer: D — It continues at the discretion of individual banks based on commercial viability
The Short Term Bank Deposit may continue at the discretion of individual banks, based on their assessment of commercial viability.
What happens to gold already deposited under the Medium and Long Term Government Deposit components of the GMS, after they were discontinued in March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — It continues until redemption as per existing guidelines
Existing deposits under MLTGD continue until redemption as per the extant GMS guidelines.
Consider the following statements about the Gold Monetisation Scheme (GMS): 1. The GMS was announced on 15 September 2015 to reduce India's reliance on gold imports in the long run. 2. Under the GMS, the Long Term Government Deposit had a tenure of 12–15 years. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The GMS was announced on 15 September 2015 to reduce reliance on gold imports and mobilise household and institutional gold. Its components were the Short Term Bank Deposit (1–3 years), Medium Term Government Deposit (5–7 years) and Long Term Government Deposit (12–15 years).
Which House passed the Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill, 2024 on 25 March 2025, completing its passage through Parliament?
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Correct answer: A — Rajya Sabha
The Rajya Sabha passed the Bill on 25 March 2025 after Home Minister Amit Shah's reply, completing its passage through Parliament.
The Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill, 2024, passed by Parliament in March 2025, enables state governments to set up which new body?
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Correct answer: D — Urban Disaster Management Authority
The Bill enables Urban Disaster Management Authorities, fully under state governments, for state capitals and cities with municipal corporations.
According to Amit Shah's reply in the Rajya Sabha on 25 March 2025, at which levels will the Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill create disaster databases?
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Correct answer: A — National and state levels
Amit Shah said the Bill would create disaster databases at the national and state levels.
Consider the following statements about the Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill, 2024, passed by Parliament on 25 March 2025: 1. It gives statutory status to the National Crisis Management Committee, which is chaired by the Cabinet Secretary. 2. It gives statutory status to the High Level Committee, which is chaired by the Prime Minister. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Per PRS, the NCMC is chaired by the Cabinet Secretary. The HLC, which approves financial assistance to states, is chaired by the minister in charge of the ministry with administrative control over disaster management, not the Prime Minister.
How many government amendments were included in the Finance Bill, 2025 when the Lok Sabha passed it on 25 March 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 35
The Lok Sabha passed the Finance Bill, 2025 with 35 government amendments.
One of the amendments to the Finance Bill, 2025, passed by the Lok Sabha on 25 March 2025, abolished which levy?
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Correct answer: D — 6% equalisation levy on online advertisements
An amendment abolished the 6% equalisation levy on online advertisements, popularly called the 'Google tax'.
What total expenditure does the Union Budget 2025-26 envisage, as reported when the Lok Sabha passed the Finance Bill on 25 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹50.65 lakh crore
The Union Budget 2025-26 envisages total expenditure of ₹50.65 lakh crore, an increase of 7.4% over the current fiscal.
India and Singapore signed a Letter of Intent on 25 March 2025 to work towards which corridor?
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Correct answer: C — Green and Digital Shipping Corridor
The LOI on maritime digitalisation and decarbonisation is a step towards an MoU on a Singapore-India Green and Digital Shipping Corridor (GDSC).
Which Singapore body's chief executive signed the India–Singapore Letter of Intent on green and digital shipping on 25 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Maritime and Port Authority of Singapore
The LOI was signed by R Lakshmanan, Joint Secretary, MoPSW, and Teo Eng Dih, Chief Executive of the Maritime and Port Authority of Singapore.
The Boilers Bill, 2024, introduced in the Lok Sabha on 25 March 2025, repeals a law from which year?
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Correct answer: B — 1923
The Boilers Bill, 2024 repeals the Boilers Act, 1923.
Under the Boilers Bill, 2024, introduced in the Lok Sabha in March 2025, how many of the seven offences in the law retain criminal penalties?
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Correct answer: B — Four
Criminal penalties are retained for four major offences that may cause loss of life and property; the other three are decriminalised.
Consider the following statements about the Boilers Bill, 2024, introduced in the Lok Sabha on 25 March 2025: 1. The Bill had already been passed by the Rajya Sabha on 4 December 2024. 2. Its decriminalisation provisions are in line with the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The Rajya Sabha passed the Bill on 4 December 2024. The review incorporated decriminalised provisions in consonance with the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act, 2023.
What is the aim of the 'Baalpan ki Kavita' initiative launched by the Ministry of Education on 25 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Building a compendium of nursery rhymes and poems in Indian languages and English for young children
The initiative will prepare a compendium of nursery rhymes and poems in all Indian languages and English, relevant to the Indian context, for young children.
From 1 April 2025, how often must traders, retailers and processors declare their wheat stocks on the government portal, as directed on 25 March 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Every Friday
Entities must declare wheat stocks on the portal from 1 April 2025 and then every Friday until further orders.
What was the theme of World TB Day 2025, observed on 24 March 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Yes! We Can End TB: Commit, Invest, Deliver
The theme of World TB Day 2025 was 'Yes! We Can End TB: Commit, Invest, Deliver'.
How many people were screened for TB during the 100-day intensified TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan, as announced on World TB Day 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 12.97 crore
12.97 crore people were screened and 7.19 lakh TB patients notified, about 2.85 lakh of them asymptomatic.
According to Health Minister J.P. Nadda on 24 March 2025, TB treatment coverage in India has risen from 59% to what level?
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Correct answer: C — 85%
Nadda said TB treatment coverage in India had increased from 59% to 85%.
Consider the following statements about World TB Day: 1. It marks the discovery of the TB-causing bacterium by Dr. Robert Koch in 1882. 2. India has been observing the day since 1982. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
World TB Day, observed on 24 March, marks Robert Koch's discovery of the TB bacterium in 1882. India has observed it since 1982 along with the global community.
What is the revised monthly salary of a Member of Parliament under the notification of 24 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — ₹1.24 lakh
An MP's monthly salary was raised from ₹1 lakh to ₹1.24 lakh, a 24% increase, with effect from 1 April 2023.
From which date does the hike in MPs' salary and pension, notified on 24 March 2025, take effect?
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Correct answer: A — 1 April 2023
The revision was notified with retrospective effect from 1 April 2023.
Under the March 2025 revision, the monthly pension of former MPs was raised from ₹25,000 to:
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Correct answer: B — ₹31,000
The pension for former MPs rose from ₹25,000 to ₹31,000 a month; additional pension per year beyond five years rose from ₹2,000 to ₹2,500.
Consider the following statements about the revision of MPs' salaries notified on 24 March 2025: 1. It was made under the Salary, Allowances and Pension of Members of Parliament Act, 1954. 2. The increase was linked to the Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The revision was notified under the Salary, Allowances and Pension of Members of Parliament Act, 1954, on the basis of the Cost Inflation Index specified in the Income-tax Act, 1961, not the CPI for Industrial Workers.