IBPS RRB Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What is the motto of the Indian Coast Guard, which celebrated its 49th Raising Day on 1 February 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Vayam Rakshamah
PIB (1 Feb 2025): with its motto 'Vayam Rakshamah' (We Protect), the ICG has ensured the safety and security of India's maritime zones.
As of its 49th Raising Day on 1 February 2025, what was the Indian Coast Guard's force level?
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Correct answer: C — 151 ships and 76 aircraft
PIB (1 Feb 2025): the ICG now comprises 151 ships and 76 aircraft; 200 surface platforms and 100 aircraft is its 2030 target.
Under which Article of the Constitution did the President address both Houses assembled together on 31 January 2025, the first session of the year?
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Correct answer: D — Article 87(1)
PIB 2118954: this being the first session of the year, the President addressed both Houses assembled together in terms of Article 87(1) on 31 January 2025.
How many property cards had been issued under the SVAMITVA scheme, according to the President's address of 31 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 2.25 crore
PIB 2097836: under SVAMITVA, 2.25 crore property cards had been issued, about 70 lakh of them in the last six months.
What real GDP growth range did the Economic Survey 2024-25 project for FY26?
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Correct answer: B — 6.3–6.8%
PIB 2097919: the real GDP is projected to grow between 6.3 and 6.8 per cent in FY26; FY25 growth was estimated at 6.4%.
According to the Economic Survey 2024-25, the gross NPA ratio of scheduled commercial banks fell to a 12-year low of:
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Correct answer: A — 2.6%
PIB 2097919: GNPA of scheduled commercial banks declined to a 12-year low of 2.6 per cent.
The Economic Survey 2024-25 used the German term 'Mittelstand' to refer to which sector it wants to build up in India?
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Correct answer: A — Small and medium enterprises
PIB 2097919: the focus of reforms and Ease of Doing Business 2.0 is to create India's Mittelstand, i.e. India's SME sector.
Consider the following statements about the Economic Survey 2024-25: 1. It estimated FY25 real GDP growth at 6.4%. 2. It said forex reserves of USD 640.3 billion could cover 10.9 months of imports. 3. It reported retail inflation rising from 4.9% in FY24 to 5.4% in April–December 2024. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2097919: FY25 growth was 6.4% and forex of USD 640.3 billion covered 10.9 months of imports; retail inflation softened from 5.4% in FY24 to 4.9% in April–December 2024, so statement 3 reverses the figures.
Under the Aadhaar Authentication for Good Governance Amendment Rules, 2025, which body grants final approval to an entity seeking to use Aadhaar authentication?
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Correct answer: D — Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
PIB 2098223: applications are examined by UIDAI and MeitY issues the approval based on UIDAI's recommendation.
Consider the following statements about the Aadhaar authentication amendment rules notified on 31 January 2025: 1. They were notified under the Aadhaar Act, 2016. 2. They allow non-government entities to use Aadhaar authentication for public-interest services. 3. Entities apply directly to the Reserve Bank of India for approval. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2098223: the rules are under the Aadhaar Act, 2016 and open authentication to non-government entities; applications go to the concerned ministry or department, are examined by UIDAI and approved by MeitY, not the RBI.
Which of the following was NOT among the four wetlands added to India's Ramsar list, as announced on 31 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary
PIB (2 Feb 2025) and TOI (31 Jan 2025): the four new sites were Sakkarakottai and Therthangal (Tamil Nadu), Khecheopalri (Sikkim) and Udhwa Lake (Jharkhand). Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary was already on the list (MoEFCC list, as on 30.01.2025), so Nanjarayan is NOT one of the four.
After the four additions announced on 31 January 2025, which State had the maximum number of Ramsar sites in India?
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Correct answer: A — Tamil Nadu
PIB (2 Feb 2025): Tamil Nadu continues to have the maximum number of Ramsar sites (20), followed by Uttar Pradesh (10).
Consider the following statements about the Ramsar Convention: 1. The Convention on Wetlands of International Importance was signed in 1971. 2. India has been a party to the Convention since 1982. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB (2 Feb 2025): World Wetlands Day commemorates the signing of the Ramsar Convention in 1971, and India is a party to the Convention since 1982, so both statements are correct.
What is the name of the Indian Railways SuperApp introduced for beta testing on 31 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — SwaRail
PIB 2098305: the Ministry of Railways introduced the SuperApp 'SwaRail' for beta testing.
Which organisation developed the SwaRail SuperApp of Indian Railways?
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Correct answer: C — Centre for Railway Information Systems (CRIS)
PIB 2098305: the SuperApp was developed by the Centre for Railway Information Systems (CRIS).
Where were the 9th Asian Winter Games held in February 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Harbin, China
PIB 2097997: the 9th Asian Winter Games were scheduled from 7 to 14 February 2025 in Harbin, China.
Under which scheme did the Government extend full financial support, for the first time, to Indian athletes at the 2025 Asian Winter Games?
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Correct answer: C — Assistance to National Sports Federations Scheme
PIB 2097997: full financial support is being extended for the first time under the Assistance to National Sports Federations (ANSF) Scheme.
On which platform did the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation launch a new version of the SBM Academy in January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — WhatsApp
PIB 2097805: DDWS launched the WhatsApp version of the SBM Academy at its meeting with 22 States and UTs.
What is the combined weight of the eight core industries in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP)?
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Correct answer: B — 40.27%
PIB 2098037: the eight core industries comprise 40.27 per cent of the weight of items included in the IIP.
Which of the eight core industries recorded a decline in December 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Natural gas
PIB 2098037: all core sectors except natural gas, which declined 1.8%, recorded positive growth in December 2024.
On which virtual digital asset service provider did FIU-IND impose a ₹9.27 crore penalty in January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Bybit Fintech Limited
PIB 2098153: FIU-IND imposed a penalty of ₹9,27,00,000 on Bybit Fintech Limited, a VDA service provider.
Under which law did FIU-IND impose the January 2025 penalty on Bybit?
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Correct answer: C — Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002
PIB 2098153: the penalty was imposed under Section 13 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 for violating Section 12(1) and the PML Rules.
What was the average monthly per capita consumption expenditure (MPCE) in rural India in 2023-24, as per HCES 2023-24 (without imputation)?
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Correct answer: D — ₹4,122
PIB 2097601: average MPCE in 2023-24 was ₹4,122 (rural) and ₹6,996 (urban) without imputed values; with imputation ₹4,247 and ₹7,078.
Among major states, which state had the lowest urban–rural gap in average MPCE in 2023-24 according to HCES 2023-24?
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Correct answer: A — Kerala
PIB 2097601: the lowest urban–rural gap in 2023-24 was in Kerala (about 18%) and the highest in Jharkhand (around 83%).
Consider the following statements about HCES 2023-24: 1. The urban–rural gap in MPCE declined to 70% in 2023-24. 2. The Gini coefficient of consumption in rural areas declined to 0.237. 3. The Gini coefficient in urban areas rose compared to 2022-23. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2097601: the urban–rural gap fell to 70% and rural Gini fell to 0.237; urban Gini also fell, from 0.314 to 0.284, so statement 3 is wrong.
Which Indian Navy sailboat crossed Point Nemo on 30 January 2025 during Navika Sagar Parikrama II?
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Correct answer: D — INSV Tarini
PIB 2098252: INSV Tarini, sailed by Lt Cdr Dilna K and Lt Cdr Roopa A, crossed Point Nemo at 0030 hrs IST on 30 January 2025.
Point Nemo, crossed by INSV Tarini in January 2025, is known as:
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Correct answer: A — The Oceanic Pole of Inaccessibility
PIB 2098252: Point Nemo is the Oceanic Pole of Inaccessibility, about 2,688 km from the nearest landmass.
Consider the following statements about Navika Sagar Parikrama II: 1. INSV Tarini was flagged off from Goa on 2 October 2024. 2. Point Nemo was crossed during the leg from Lyttelton to Port Stanley. 3. Water samples from Point Nemo are to be analysed by ISRO. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2098252: the crew were flagged off from Goa on 2 October 2024 and crossed Point Nemo on the Lyttelton–Port Stanley leg; the samples will be analysed by the National Institute of Oceanography, not ISRO.
In how many Indian languages does the Sahitya Akademi give its main annual award, for which books were invited directly for the first time in 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 24
PIB 2097806: books in 24 Indian languages recognised by the Akademi were invited directly for the main award for 2025.
Books published in which period were eligible for the Sahitya Akademi Award 2025 under the new submission system?
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Correct answer: B — 2019 to 2023
PIB 2097806: books published between 1 January 2019 and 31 December 2023 could be sent by 28 February 2025.
Which State/UT's tableau was judged the best at the Republic Day Parade 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Uttar Pradesh
PIB 2097650: Uttar Pradesh's 'Mahakumbh 2025 – Swarnim Bharat: Virasat aur Vikas' was first, Tripura second and Andhra Pradesh third; Gujarat topped the popular-choice poll.
Which contingent was judged the best marching contingent among the Services at Republic Day Parade 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Jammu & Kashmir Rifles Contingent
PIB 2097650: the Jammu & Kashmir Rifles contingent was judged best among Services; the Signals contingent won the popular-choice poll.
Tripura's tableau, placed second at Republic Day Parade 2025, was based on which festival?
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Correct answer: A — Kharchi Puja
PIB 2097650: Tripura's tableau was 'Eternal Reverence: The worship of 14 Deities in Tripura – Kharchi Puja'.
About how many GPUs did the IndiaAI Mission's common computing facility have, as announced on 30 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 18,693
PIB 2097709: the IndiaAI Mission created a common computing facility of about 18,693 GPUs; computation begins with roughly 10,000 and the remaining 8,693 will be added.
After the government subsidy, what was the stated cost of AI compute per hour under the IndiaAI Mission?
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Correct answer: A — Less than ₹100 per hour
PIB 2097709: compute will cost less than ₹100 per hour after a 40% government subsidy, against 2.5–3 dollars per hour for global models.
Who assumed charge as the Controller of Warship Production & Acquisition of the Indian Navy on 30 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Vice Admiral Rajaram Swaminathan
PIB 2097791: Vice Admiral Rajaram Swaminathan assumed charge on 30 January 2025 from Vice Admiral B Sivakumar.
Vice Admiral Rajaram Swaminathan, who became Controller of Warship Production & Acquisition in January 2025, served for more than nine years on which aircraft carrier?
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Correct answer: A — INS Viraat
PIB 2097791: he worked onboard INS Viraat for more than nine years; he was also involved in acquiring Vikramaditya as Warship Production Superintendent in Russia.
Which launch vehicle carried out ISRO's 100th launch from Sriharikota on 29 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — GSLV-F15
ISRO: GSLV-F15 lifted off from the Second Launch Pad on 29 January 2025, the 100th launch from Sriharikota.
The NVS-02 satellite launched on 29 January 2025 belongs to which Indian system?
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Correct answer: A — NavIC
ISRO: NVS-02 is a navigation satellite of the NavIC series, India's independent regional navigation satellite system.
Consider the following statements about the GSLV-F15/NVS-02 mission: 1. It lifted off from the Second Launch Pad at Sriharikota. 2. It was the 17th launch of GSLV. 3. NVS-02 was raised to its designated orbital slot within a week of launch. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
ISRO: GSLV-F15 lifted off from the Second Launch Pad and was the 17th GSLV launch; orbit raising could not be carried out because the oxidiser valves did not open.
What is the total outlay of the National Critical Mineral Mission approved by the Union Cabinet on 29 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹34,300 crore
PIB 2097308: ₹16,300 crore government expenditure plus ₹18,000 crore expected investment by PSUs etc. makes ₹34,300 crore over seven years.
Over what period will the National Critical Mineral Mission's ₹34,300 crore outlay be spread?
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Correct answer: C — Seven years
PIB 2097308: the outlay of ₹34,300 crore is over seven years.
Consider the following statements about the National Critical Mineral Mission: 1. It was announced in the Union Budget 2024-25. 2. It proposes a national stockpile of critical minerals. 3. It excludes offshore exploration of critical minerals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2097308: the mission was announced in the Budget on 23 July 2024 and proposes a stockpile; it will intensify exploration within the country and in its offshore areas.
What guarantee coverage does the Mutual Credit Guarantee Scheme for MSMEs, approved in January 2025, provide to lenders?
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Correct answer: B — 60%
PIB 2097455: NCGTC provides 60% guarantee coverage to member lending institutions for credit up to ₹100 crore.
Consider the following statements about MCGS-MSME: 1. Loans up to ₹100 crore are eligible for guarantee cover. 2. Equipment or machinery must be at least 75% of the project cost. 3. The guarantee is provided by SIDBI. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2097455: loans up to ₹100 crore are covered and equipment must be at least 75% of project cost; the guarantee is given by the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company (NCGTC), not SIDBI.
According to ASUSE 2023-24, which state had the highest number of unincorporated sector establishments?
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Correct answer: C — Uttar Pradesh
PIB 2097316: Uttar Pradesh had the highest number of establishments, followed by West Bengal and Maharashtra.
By how much did the number of establishments in the unincorporated sector grow in ASUSE 2023-24 over 2022-23?
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Correct answer: B — 12.84%
PIB 2097316: establishments grew 12.84% (6.50 crore to 7.34 crore); workers grew 10.01% and GVA 16.52%.
Which state topped Gross Value Added in the unincorporated sector as per ASUSE 2023-24?
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Correct answer: C — Maharashtra
PIB 2097316: the top three states in GVA were Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh and Gujarat.
How much did the High-Level Committee chaired by the Union Home Minister approve for disaster mitigation on 29 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹3,027.86 crore
PIB 2097448: the HLC approved ₹3,027.86 crore in total for drought, lightning and forest fire mitigation projects.
The forest fire risk management scheme approved on 29 January 2025 covers how many high-priority districts?
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Correct answer: C — 144
PIB 2097448: the forest fire scheme covers 144 high-priority districts in 19 states at ₹818.92 crore.
From which fund are the drought and lightning mitigation projects approved by the High-Level Committee in January 2025 to be financed?
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Correct answer: A — National Disaster Mitigation Fund
PIB 2097448: the HLC considered the lightning and drought proposals for funding from the National Disaster Mitigation Fund (NDMF).
What administered ex-mill price was fixed on 29 January 2025 for ethanol from C-heavy molasses for ESY 2024-25?
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Correct answer: A — ₹57.97 per litre
PIB 2097305: the price was fixed at ₹57.97 per litre, up from ₹56.58 per litre.
The Ethanol Supply Year (ESY) used under the Ethanol Blended Petrol Programme runs from:
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Correct answer: B — 1 November to 31 October
PIB 2097305: ESY is defined as the period from 1 November of a year to 31 October of the following year.
Consider the following statements about ethanol blending in India: 1. Average blending by public sector OMCs reached 14.60% in ESY 2023-24. 2. The 20% blending target has been advanced to ESY 2025-26. 3. OMCs plan to achieve 20% blending in ESY 2024-25. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2097305: blending averaged 14.60% in ESY 2023-24 and the 20% target was advanced to ESY 2025-26; OMCs plan 18%, not 20%, in ESY 2024-25.
Renew Exim DMCC, whose acquisition of up to 72.64% of ITD Cementation India was approved by CCI in January 2025, belongs to which group?
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Correct answer: B — Adani group
PIB 2097096: the acquirer is incorporated in Dubai and belongs to the Adani group.
ITD Cementation India Limited, whose acquisition was approved by CCI in January 2025, is mainly engaged in which business?
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Correct answer: B — Engineering and construction (EPC)
PIB 2097096: ITD Cementation India is an engineering and construction company undertaking heavy civil, infrastructure and EPC business.
What minimum efficiency does the Solar QCO 2025 set for poly-crystalline silicon PV modules?
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Correct answer: C — 17%
PIB 2097219: 17% for poly-crystalline silicon modules and 18% for mono-crystalline silicon and thin-film modules.
Under which law was the Solar Systems, Devices, and Components Goods Order, 2025 notified?
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Correct answer: C — Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 2016
PIB 2097219: the order was notified in the Gazette dated 27.01.2025 under the BIS Act, 2016.
Consider the following statements about the Solar QCO 2025: 1. It covers solar PV modules, inverters and storage batteries. 2. It comes into effect 180 days from the date of publication. 3. Products meant exclusively for export are also covered. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2097219: the order covers modules, inverters and storage batteries and takes effect after 180 days; products exclusively for export are exempted.
Where did India and Oman sign the protocol amending their Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement on 27 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Muscat
Oman Ministry of Foreign Affairs (27 January 2025): the protocol was signed in Muscat.
Which session of the India-Oman Joint Commission Meeting did Piyush Goyal co-chair during his January 2025 visit to Oman?
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Correct answer: C — 11th
PIB 2097043: Goyal co-chaired the 11th Session of the India-Oman JCM with Qais bin Mohammed Al Yousef.
What was the theme of the first-ever tri-services tableau at the Republic Day Parade 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Shashakt aur Surakshit Bharat
PIB 2096097: the tri-services tableau's theme was 'Shashakt aur Surakshit Bharat'; 'Raksha Kavach' was DRDO's and 'Viksit Bharat ki Ore Sadaiv Agrasar' the veterans' tableau.
Which naval destroyer was featured on the tri-services tableau at the Republic Day Parade 2025?
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Correct answer: D — INS Visakhapatnam
PIB 2096097: the tableau displayed the Arjun MBT, Tejas MKII, ALH, destroyer INS Visakhapatnam and a remotely piloted aircraft.
For which category did 'Jayati Jai Mamah Bharatam' at the Republic Day Parade 2025 receive a Guinness World Record?
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Correct answer: D — The Largest Indian Folk Variety Dance
PIB 2096534: it was recognised by Guinness World Records for 'The Largest Indian Folk Variety Dance'.
Along with the Ministry of Culture, which body presented 'Jayati Jai Mamah Bharatam' at the Republic Day Parade 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Sangeet Natak Akademi
PIB 2096534: the performance was by the Ministry of Culture and Sangeet Natak Akademi.
According to the SBI report highlighted on 26 January 2025, what were total investment announcements in April–December 2024?
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Correct answer: C — ₹32.01 lakh crore
PIB 2096480: investment announcements in 9MFY25 stood at ₹32.01 lakh crore, up 39% from ₹23 lakh crore in 9MFY24.
Consider the following statements based on the SBI report highlighted by the Finance Ministry in January 2025: 1. Household net financial savings rose to 5.3% of GDP in FY24. 2. Private corporate investment reached 11.9% of GDP in FY23, the highest since FY16. 3. The public sector accounted for nearly 70% of investment announcements in 9MFY25. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2096480: HNFS rose to 5.3% of GDP in FY24 and private corporate investment hit 11.9% of GDP in FY23; nearly 70% of 9MFY25 announcements came from the private sector, not the public sector.
How many Padma Vibhushan awards were announced for 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 7
PIB 2096285 (MHA): the list comprises 7 Padma Vibhushan, 19 Padma Bhushan and 113 Padma Shri awards.
What was the total number of Padma Awards approved for 2025, counting the duo case as one?
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Correct answer: C — 139
PIB 2096285: the President approved 139 Padma Awards including 1 duo case, counted as one.
Consider the following statements about the Padma Awards 2025: 1. 19 Padma Bhushan awards were announced. 2. 23 of the awardees are women. 3. 10 awards were conferred posthumously. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2096285: there are 19 Padma Bhushan awards and 23 women awardees; 13 awards are posthumous, while 10 is the count of Foreigners/NRI/PIO/OCI awardees.
Which Japanese industrialist was named for the Padma Vibhushan (posthumous) in Trade and Industry in 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Osamu Suzuki
PIB 2096285: Osamu Suzuki (Posthumous), Trade and Industry, Japan, is among the 7 Padma Vibhushan awardees.
Match the Padma Awards 2025 recipients with their award category: 1. Sharda Sinha – Padma Vibhushan (posthumous) 2. P R Sreejesh – Padma Bhushan 3. Arijit Singh – Padma Bhushan Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2096285: Sharda Sinha received the Padma Vibhushan (posthumous) and P R Sreejesh the Padma Bhushan (sports); Arijit Singh is in the Padma Shri list.
Which Indonesian President was the chief guest at India's first Republic Day in 1950, as recalled during Prabowo Subianto's 2025 visit?
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Correct answer: A — Sukarno
PIB 2096322: President Murmu noted that 75 years ago, at the first Republic Day in 1950, President Sukarno of Indonesia was the chief guest.
Consider the following outcomes of the Indonesian President's State Visit to India in January 2025: 1. An MoU on traditional medicine quality assurance with the Indonesian Food and Drug Authority. 2. A Cultural Exchange Programme for 2025-28. 3. An MoU on space cooperation between ISRO and Indonesia's space agency. Which of the above were listed among the outcomes?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2096278: outcomes included the traditional medicine MoU (PCIM&H–Indonesian FDA), MoUs on health and digital development and a 2025-28 cultural exchange programme; no space MoU was listed.
Which edition of the India-Indonesia CEOs Forum presented its joint report during the January 2025 State Visit?
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Correct answer: C — 3rd
PIB 2096278: the co-chairs of the 3rd India-Indonesia CEOs Forum presented their joint report.