DSSSB Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What was the theme of World Thalassemia Day 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Together for Thalassemia: Uniting Communities, Prioritizing Patients
The 2025 theme was 'Together for Thalassemia: Uniting Communities, Prioritizing Patients'.
Consider the following statements about the Thalassemia Bal Sewa Yojana (TBSY): 1. It is a CSR initiative of Coal India Limited supporting free bone marrow transplants for children with thalassemia and aplastic anaemia. 2. The Coal Minister announced a 'One State, One Hospital' goal for bone marrow transplants under it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.
Thalassemia, as described by the DEPwD, is what type of genetic disorder?
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Correct answer: B — Autosomal recessive
Thalassemia is a genetic autosomal recessive disorder inherited from one or both parents.
The warship 'Arnala', delivered to the Indian Navy on 8 May 2025, is named after a historic fort located off:
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Correct answer: A — Vasai, Maharashtra
Arnala is named after the historic Arnala fort located off Vasai, Maharashtra.
Consider the following statements about 'Arnala': 1. It is the first of eight Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Craft built by GRSE. 2. It is the largest Indian naval warship propelled by a diesel engine–waterjet combination. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct.
What is the length of the warship 'Arnala'?
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Correct answer: B — 77 m
Arnala is a 77 m long warship.
When was the India–Chile Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA) signed?
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Correct answer: B — March 2006
The PTA was signed in March 2006; the Framework Agreement in January 2005; the expanded PTA was signed in September 2016 and took effect on 16 May 2017.
Consider the following statements about the India–Chile CEPA: 1. The first round of negotiations was scheduled to be held in Santiago. 2. The expanded India–Chile PTA became effective in January 2005. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Both are wrong: the first round was scheduled for 26–30 May 2025 in New Delhi, and the expanded PTA took effect on 16 May 2017.
As per the SRS Special Bulletin on Maternal Mortality 2019-21, released with the SRS 2021 report on 7 May 2025, India's Maternal Mortality Ratio is:
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Correct answer: B — 93
MMR fell from 130 per lakh live births in 2014-16 to 93 in 2019-21. 70 is the SDG target and 45 is Telangana's MMR.
According to the SRS Statistical Report 2021, India's Infant Mortality Rate in 2021 was (per 1,000 live births):
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Correct answer: D — 27
IMR was 27 in 2021, down from 39 in 2014. 19 is the Neonatal Mortality Rate and 31 the Under-Five Mortality Rate for 2021.
Consider the following statements based on the SRS 2021 data released on 7 May 2025: 1. Among the States that have met the SDG target for MMR, Kerala has the lowest MMR. 2. India's Total Fertility Rate was 2.0 in 2021. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. Kerala's MMR is 20, and the TFR was 2.0 in 2021.
What is the total outlay of the National Scheme for ITI Upgradation approved by the Union Cabinet on 7 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — ₹60,000 crore
The total outlay is ₹60,000 crore, of which ₹30,000 crore is the Central share, ₹20,000 crore the State share and ₹10,000 crore the industry share.
How many government ITIs are to be upgraded in a hub-and-spoke arrangement under the scheme approved on 7 May 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 1,000
The scheme covers upgradation of 1,000 government ITIs; 50,000 is the number of trainers to be trained and 5 the number of NSTIs.
Consider the following statements about the National Scheme for ITI Upgradation: 1. The Asian Development Bank and the World Bank will co-finance 50% of the Central share equally. 2. The National Skill Training Institutes to be augmented include Pune and Kolkata. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The five NSTIs are at Bhubaneswar, Chennai, Hyderabad, Kanpur and Ludhiana.
The nationwide civil defence mock drill of 7 May 2025 was directed to be held in how many categorised Civil Defence districts?
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Correct answer: A — 244
The MHA directed the drill across 244 categorised Civil Defence districts.
Consider the following statements about the civil defence mock drill of 7 May 2025: 1. It was directed by the Ministry of Defence. 2. NCC, NSS and NYKS volunteers along with school and college students were to participate. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The drill was directed by the Ministry of Home Affairs, not the Ministry of Defence.
According to the Ministry of Defence, how many sites were targeted under Operation Sindoor on 7 May 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Nine
The Ministry of Defence said that altogether nine sites were targeted in Pakistan and Pakistan-occupied Jammu and Kashmir.
Consider the following statements about Operation Sindoor (7 May 2025): 1. The Ministry of Defence stated that no Pakistani military facilities were targeted. 2. At the MEA briefing, Foreign Secretary Vikram Misri was joined by Colonel Sofia Qureshi and Wing Commander Vyomika Singh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The MoD release said no Pakistani military facilities were targeted, and the Foreign Secretary's statement names the two officers who joined the briefing.
Markaz Taiba, one of the nine sites named at the Operation Sindoor briefing, is located at:
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Correct answer: B — Muridke
Markaz Taiba is at Muridke. Bahawalpur was the location of Markaz Subhanallah, Kotli of the Gulpur and Abbas camps, and Sialkot of the Sarjal and Mehmoona Joya camps.
Which organisation was the host of the Global Space Exploration Conference (GLEX) 2025 held in New Delhi from 7 to 9 May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Indian Space Research Organisation
GLEX 2025 was jointly organised by the International Astronautical Federation, with ISRO as host and the Astronautical Society of India as co-host.
Consider the following statements: 1. GLEX 2025 was the 12th edition of the Global Space Exploration Conference. 2. In his GLEX 2025 address, the Prime Minister said India has deployed over 400 satellites for 34 nations using Indian launch vehicles. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as per the PIB releases of 6 and 7 May 2025.
Which of the following IIT–State/UT pairs, from the five IITs whose expansion was approved on 7 May 2025, is correctly matched?
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Correct answer: D — IIT Palakkad – Kerala
IIT Palakkad is in Kerala. IIT Dharwad is in Karnataka, IIT Bhilai in Chhattisgarh and IIT Tirupati in Andhra Pradesh.
After the Phase-B expansion approved on 7 May 2025, the five IITs together will be able to cater to how many students?
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Correct answer: B — 13,687
Capacity rises from 7,111 to 13,687 students, an increase of 6,576.
Under the Revised SHAKTI policy approved on 7 May 2025, the existing eight paras for coal allocation have been mapped into how many windows?
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Correct answer: C — Two
The eight paras were mapped to two windows: Window-I (notified price) and Window-II (premium above notified price).
Consider the following statements about Window-II of the Revised SHAKTI policy: 1. Power producers can secure coal for a period of more than 12 months up to 25 years by paying a premium above the notified price. 2. A power purchase agreement is mandatory for selling electricity generated from Window-II coal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The requirement of a PPA has been done away with for electricity generated from Window-II coal.
In which year was the original SHAKTI policy for coal allocation introduced?
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Correct answer: D — 2017
The Ministry of Coal noted that SHAKTI was introduced in 2017, shifting coal allocation from nomination to auction/tariff-based bidding.
In which year were the Piprahwa Buddhist relics excavated by William Claxton Peppé?
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Correct answer: D — 1898
They were excavated in 1898; most of them were transferred to the Indian Museum, Kolkata, in 1899.
Consider the following statements about the Piprahwa relics: 1. Most of the relics are classified as 'AA' antiquities under Indian law and were transferred to the Indian Museum, Kolkata. 2. The auction postponed in May 2025 was scheduled at Sotheby's London. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The auction was scheduled by Sotheby's Hong Kong on 7 May 2025.
Consider the following statements about the IDY 2025 review meeting of 7 May 2025: 1. It was chaired by Union Ayush Minister Prataprao Jadhav in New Delhi. 2. 'Harit Yoga' refers to the integration of yoga with schools, hospitals and corporates. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Integration with schools, hospitals and corporates is 'Yoga Sangam'; 'Harit Yoga' promotes eco-consciousness through yoga-linked plantation drives.
Which IDY 2025 initiative reviewed on 7 May 2025 promotes eco-consciousness through yoga-linked plantation drives?
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Correct answer: D — Harit Yoga
Harit Yoga is the plantation-linked initiative. Yoga Sangam integrates yoga with institutions, Yoga Connect engages global and diaspora communities, and Yoga Bandhan fosters social unity.
Under the India–UK FTA concluded on 6 May 2025, India will gain from tariff elimination on about what share of tariff lines?
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Correct answer: B — 99%
India will gain from tariff elimination on about 99% of tariff lines, covering almost 100% of trade value.
Under the India–UK Double Contribution Convention, Indian workers temporarily in the UK and their employers are exempt from UK social security contributions for:
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Correct answer: D — Three years
The exemption is for a period of three years.
Consider the following statements about the India–UK FTA: 1. FTA negotiations resumed in February 2025 after the two Prime Ministers met at the G20 Summit in Rio de Janeiro in November 2024. 2. India–UK bilateral trade of about USD 60 billion is projected to double by 2030. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as per the Ministry of Commerce release of 6 May 2025.
Consider the following statements about the India–UK FTA: 1. India will gain tariff elimination on about 90% of tariff lines. 2. The FTA eases mobility for independent professionals such as yoga instructors, musicians and chefs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. Tariff elimination is on about 99% of tariff lines.
Anthony Albanese, congratulated by PM Modi on 6 May 2025 on his re-election, is the ___ Prime Minister of Australia.
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Correct answer: C — 32nd
The PMO release describes Albanese's re-election as the 32nd Prime Minister of Australia.
Consider the following statements about the Modi–Albanese call of 6 May 2025: 1. PM Modi invited PM Albanese to India, including for the QUAD Summit to be hosted in India later in the year. 2. The leaders noted the India–Australia Comprehensive Strategic Partnership had completed ten years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The leaders noted the CSP's five years.
Under the IWAI–Rhenus Logistics MoU of 6 May 2025, how many barges/cargo vessels are to be deployed in a phased manner on national waterways?
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Correct answer: B — 100
100 barges are to be deployed in phases; about 20 barges and 6 pushers in the first phase. 70 is the number of countries Rhenus operates in.
Consider the following statements about the IWAI–Rhenus Logistics MoU: 1. Rhenus Logistics is a Germany-based logistics provider. 2. The first phase covers NW-1, NW-2 and NW-16. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as per the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways releases.
What annual cargo movement does the first phase of the IWAI–Rhenus MoU target by the end of 2025?
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Correct answer: A — More than one million tonnes
The first phase targets movement of more than one million tonnes of cargo annually by the end of 2025.
Friedrich Merz assumed office on 6 May 2025 as the Federal Chancellor of which country?
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Correct answer: B — Germany
Merz assumed office as the Federal Chancellor of Germany; PM Modi referred to the India–Germany Strategic Partnership.
As stated on 6 May 2025, when is India's first human spaceflight under Gaganyaan now scheduled?
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Correct answer: D — First quarter of 2027
The first human spaceflight is scheduled for the first quarter of 2027. TV-D2 is slated for later in 2025; 2035 and 2040 are the targets for the Bharatiya Antariksha Station and an Indian on the Moon.
Consider the following long-term space goals recalled by Dr. Jitendra Singh on 6 May 2025: 1. Setting up the Bharatiya Antariksha Station by 2035. 2. Sending the first Indian to the Moon by 2047. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The goal is to send the first Indian to the Moon by 2040.
The Multi-Influence Ground Mine (MIGM), which underwent combat firing in May 2025, was developed primarily by which DRDO laboratory?
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Correct answer: C — Naval Science & Technological Laboratory, Visakhapatnam
MIGM was developed by NSTL, Visakhapatnam, in collaboration with HEMRL Pune and TBRL Chandigarh. BDL is a production partner.
Consider the following statements about the Multi-Influence Ground Mine (MIGM): 1. Bharat Dynamics Limited, Visakhapatnam, and Apollo Microsystems Limited, Hyderabad, are its production partners. 2. The Chairman DRDO said it requires further user trials before it can be considered for induction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The Chairman DRDO said the system is now ready for induction.
As per provisional data released in May 2025, India's iron ore production in FY 2024-25 was:
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Correct answer: B — 289 MMT
Iron ore production reached 289 MMT in FY 2024-25, breaking the FY 2023-24 record of 277 MMT.
As per the Ministry of Mines (May 2025), India's global rank as a producer of aluminium is:
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Correct answer: A — 2nd
India is the 2nd largest aluminium producer and the 4th largest iron ore producer in the world.
Consider the following statements about mineral production in FY 2024-25: 1. Refined copper production declined compared with FY 2023-24. 2. Bauxite production declined compared with FY 2023-24. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
Neither is correct. Refined copper grew 12.6% to 5.73 lakh tonnes and bauxite rose 2.9% to 24.7 MMT.
Consider the following statements about the India–Japan defence ministers' meeting of 5 May 2025: 1. It was held at the Manekshaw Centre, New Delhi. 2. The Ministers reviewed the defence and security pillars of the India–Japan Special Strategic and Global Partnership. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as per the Ministry of Defence release of 5 May 2025.
India and Japan describe their bilateral relationship as a:
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Correct answer: D — Special Strategic and Global Partnership
The 5 May 2025 meeting reviewed the defence and security pillars of the India–Japan Special Strategic and Global Partnership.
Consider the following statements about INS Sharda's deployment to the Maldives in May 2025: 1. The HADR exercise aims to enhance interoperability between the Indian Navy and the Maldives National Defence Force. 2. The exercise was planned from 1 to 5 May 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The exercise was planned from 4 to 10 May 2025.
What was the size of India's first mortgage-backed Pass Through Certificate (PTC) issue listed on the NSE on 5 May 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹1,000 crore
The issue of ₹1,000 crore (1,00,000 PTCs of face value ₹1,00,000) was fully subscribed.
Consider the following statements about India's first mortgage-backed PTCs: 1. The coupon is 7.26% per annum. 2. The instrument is rated AAA(SO) by CRISIL and CARE Ratings. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The PTCs, backed by LIC Housing Finance home loans, have a 7.26% coupon and AAA(SO) ratings.
At the 5 May 2025 review of new criminal laws in Delhi, efforts were sought to raise conviction rates in heinous crime cases by at least:
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Correct answer: D — 20%
The Home Minister said efforts should be made to increase conviction rates in heinous crimes by at least 20 per cent.
Consider the following statements about the review of new criminal laws in Delhi on 5 May 2025: 1. Continuous monitoring of charge-sheet filing within 30 and 45 days was sought. 2. e-Summons are to be issued directly from courts, with copies sent to local police stations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The timelines to be monitored were 60 and 90 days.
Consider the following statements about UIDAI's proof of concept at NEET UG 2025: 1. It used Aadhaar fingerprint authentication at all NEET centres across India. 2. It was carried out in collaboration with the National Informatics Centre and the National Testing Agency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. The PoC used Aadhaar Face Authentication at select NEET centres in Delhi.
How many e-Nodes were selected in May 2025 under ANRF's MAHA-EV mission?
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Correct answer: D — Seven
Seven e-Nodes were selected out of 227 proposals.
Consider the following statements about the MAHA-EV mission: 1. Its call for proposals focused on three technological verticals, including EV Charging Infrastructure. 2. Selected e-Nodes will work in consortia mode with mandatory industry participation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as per the ANRF announcement of 5 May 2025.
Which two genome-edited rice varieties were announced by ICAR on 4 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — DRR Rice 100 (Kamla) and Pusa DST Rice 1
The varieties are DRR Rice 100 (Kamla) and Pusa DST Rice 1, developed by editing Samba Mahsuri and MTU 1010 respectively.
The genome-edited rice variety DRR Rice 100 (Kamla) is based on which parent variety?
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Correct answer: B — Samba Mahsuri (BPT 5204)
DRR Rice 100 (Kamla), developed by ICAR-IIRR Hyderabad, is based on Samba Mahsuri (BPT 5204).
Consider the following statements about India's genome-edited rice varieties: 1. They were developed using CRISPR-Cas based genome editing without adding foreign DNA. 2. Pusa DST Rice 1 was developed by ICAR-IIRR, Hyderabad. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Pusa DST Rice 1 was developed by ICAR-IARI, New Delhi; DRR Rice 100 (Kamla) is from ICAR-IIRR, Hyderabad.
According to the Agriculture Ministry, the two genome-edited rice varieties offer an increase in yield of about:
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Correct answer: D — 19%
The Ministry cited a 19% increase in yield. 9.66–30.4% is the range for Pusa DST Rice 1 in saline and alkaline soils.
ECINET, announced by the Election Commission of India in May 2025, will integrate how many of ECI's existing apps?
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Correct answer: D — Over 40
ECINET will integrate and reorient over 40 of ECI's existing mobile and web applications.
Consider the following statements about ECINET: 1. It was envisaged by CEC Gyanesh Kumar at the Conference of Chief Electoral Officers in March 2025. 2. Data on ECINET will be entered by Booth Level Agents of political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. Data on ECINET will be entered solely by authorised ECI officials.
Consider the following statements about ECINET: 1. The Voter Helpline App will continue to run separately alongside ECINET. 2. In case of any conflict, the primary data duly filled in statutory forms will prevail. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. ECINET will subsume existing apps including the Voter Helpline App.
The 58th Annual Meeting of the Board of Governors of the Asian Development Bank (4–7 May 2025) was held in:
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Correct answer: B — Milan
The 58th ADB Annual Meeting was held in Milan, Italy.
Consider the following statements about the Finance Minister's visit for the ADB Annual Meeting in May 2025: 1. She was to be a panellist in the ADB Governors' Seminar on 'Cross-Border Collaboration for Future Resilience'. 2. She was to hold bilateral meetings with the Finance Ministers of Italy, Japan and Belgium. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Only 1 is correct. The bilateral meetings were with the Finance Ministers of Italy, Japan and Bhutan.
During the Angolan President's State visit in May 2025, Angola became which member of the International Solar Alliance?
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Correct answer: D — 123rd
Angola signed the ISA Framework Agreement and became the 123rd member of the ISA.
Consider the following statements about India–Angola ties in May 2025: 1. India approved a US$200 million Line of Credit for Angola's defence procurement. 2. India and Angola are marking the 40th anniversary of diplomatic relations in 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as per the list of outcomes and the President's Secretariat release of 3 May 2025.
Angolan President João Lourenço, who visited India in May 2025, holds the Chair of which organisation?
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Correct answer: B — African Union
President Murmu congratulated President Lourenço on assuming the Chair of the African Union.
The report 'From Content to Commerce: Mapping India's Creator Economy', released at WAVES 2025, was prepared by:
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Correct answer: A — Boston Consulting Group
The creator economy report was prepared by Boston Consulting Group (BCG).
Which firm prepared the report 'A Studio Called India', released at WAVES 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Ernst & Young
'A Studio Called India' was prepared by Ernst & Young.
Consider the following statements about the white paper 'India's Live Events Economy: A Strategic Growth Imperative': 1. It was prepared by EventFAQs Media and commissioned by the Ministry of Information & Broadcasting. 2. It says India is on track to be among the top five live entertainment destinations globally by 2030. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct, as per the Ministry of I&B release of 3 May 2025.