DSSSB Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Under what name did the Employment Linked Incentive (ELI) Scheme come into effect from 1 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — PM Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana
PIB (25 July 2025): the ELI Scheme will come into effect from 1 August 2025 as the 'PM Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana (PM-VBRY)'.
What is the outlay of the PM Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana?
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Correct answer: C — ₹99,446 crore
PIB: with an outlay of ₹99,446 crore, PM-VBRY aims to incentivise the creation of more than 3.5 crore jobs over 2 years.
Consider the following statements about PM-VBRY: 1. Part A offers first-time EPFO-registered employees one month's EPF wage up to ₹15,000 in two instalments. 2. Part B gives employers up to ₹3,000 per month for two years for each additional employee with sustained employment of at least six months. 3. Benefits apply to jobs created between 1 August 2025 and 31 July 2027. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (25 July 2025): Part A gives one month EPF wage up to ₹15,000 in two instalments; Part B gives employers up to ₹3,000/month for two years per additional employee sustained for six months; benefits apply to jobs created between 1 Aug 2025 and 31 Jul 2027. All correct.
Who signed the India-UK Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement on behalf of India on 24 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Piyush Goyal
PIB (24 July 2025): the agreement was signed by Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal and UK Secretary of State for Business and Trade Jonathan Reynolds, in the presence of the two Prime Ministers.
Under the India-UK CETA, zero-duty access is available on what share of tariff lines?
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Correct answer: A — 99%
PIB: zero-duty access on 99% of tariff lines, covering nearly 100% of the trade value.
The signing of the India-UK CETA on 24 July 2025 followed the conclusion of negotiations announced on:
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Correct answer: D — 6 May 2025
PIB (24 July 2025): the signing of the India-UK CETA follows the successful conclusion of negotiations announced on 6 May 2025.
Consider the following statements about the India-UK CETA (July 2025): 1. India-UK bilateral trade stands at nearly USD 56 billion, with a goal to double it by 2030. 2. The Double Contribution Convention will exempt Indian workers and their employers from UK social security contributions for three years. 3. The agreement was signed by the two Prime Ministers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB: trade is nearly USD 56 billion with a goal to double by 2030, and the DCC will exempt Indian workers and employers from UK social security contributions for three years. The agreement was signed by Piyush Goyal and Jonathan Reynolds in the presence of the two PMs, so 3 is wrong.
Which UK minister signed the India-UK CETA on 24 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Jonathan Reynolds, Secretary of State for Business and Trade
PIB: the agreement was signed by Jonathan Reynolds, Secretary of State for Business and Trade; Rachel Reeves was present.
Where did PM Modi and UK PM Keir Starmer hold talks on 24 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Chequers, Buckinghamshire
PIB (24 July 2025): PM Modi was received by PM Starmer at the UK Prime Minister's country residence at Chequers in Buckinghamshire.
Which document, steering the India-UK Comprehensive Strategic Partnership for the next ten years, was adopted on 24 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — India-UK Vision 2035
PIB: the two leaders adopted the India-UK Vision 2035, which will steer the relationship for the next ten years.
Where did PM Modi call on King Charles III on 24 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Sandringham Estate
PIB (24 July 2025): PM Modi called on King Charles III at Sandringham Estate, the summer residence of His Majesty.
Consider the following statements about the Modi-Starmer talks of 24 July 2025: 1. The leaders welcomed the finalisation of a Defence Industrial Roadmap. 2. The two sides agreed to negotiate a Double Contribution Convention that will come into effect along with CETA. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — Both 1 and 2
PIB (24 July 2025): the leaders welcomed the finalisation of a Defence Industrial Roadmap, and the two sides agreed to negotiate a Double Contribution Convention which will come into effect along with CETA. Both correct.
Who chaired the committee that drafted the National Cooperation Policy 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Suresh Prabhu
PIB (24 July 2025): a 40-member committee under former Union Minister Suresh Prabhu presented the policy.
By which year does the National Cooperation Policy 2025 aim to triple the cooperative sector's contribution to GDP?
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Correct answer: A — 2034
PIB: by 2034, the policy aims to triple the cooperative sector's contribution to GDP and bring 50 crore active members into the fold.
India's first national cooperative policy, preceding the National Cooperation Policy 2025, was introduced in:
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Correct answer: C — 2002
PIB (24 July 2025): Amit Shah said that in 2002, for the first time, the Government of India introduced a Cooperation Policy; the 2025 policy is the second.
Consider the following objectives of the National Cooperation Policy 2025: 1. A 30% increase in the number of cooperative societies. 2. Five model cooperative villages in every tehsil. 3. 50 crore active members by 2034. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1, 2 and 3
PIB: objectives include a 30% increase in cooperative societies, five model cooperative villages in every tehsil and bringing 50 crore active members into the fold by 2034. All correct.
As of July 2025, India's bid to host the 2036 Olympics is in which phase with the IOC's Future Host Commission?
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Correct answer: C — Continuous Dialogue
PIB (24 July 2025): IOA has submitted a letter of intent to IOC; the bid is now in the 'Continuous Dialogue' phase with the Future Host Commission of IOC.
Which body submitted India's letter of intent to the IOC to host the 2036 Olympic Games?
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Correct answer: B — Indian Olympic Association
PIB: bidding to host the Olympic Games is the responsibility of the Indian Olympic Association (IOA), which has submitted a letter of intent to IOC.
Which Indian Navy ships arrived at Da Nang, Vietnam, on 24 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — INS Delhi, Shakti and Kiltan
PIB: INS Delhi, Shakti and Kiltan of the Eastern Fleet arrived at Tien Sa Port, Da Nang, Vietnam on 24 July 2025.
The Indian Navy ships that visited Da Nang in July 2025 belong to which fleet?
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Correct answer: C — Eastern Fleet
PIB: the ships of the Eastern Fleet were under RAdm Susheel Menon, Flag Officer Commanding Eastern Fleet.
Under which Article of the Constitution is the Election Commission of India mandated to conduct the election to the office of the Vice President?
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Correct answer: B — Article 324
PIB (ECI, 23 July 2025): the Election Commission of India, under Article 324, is mandated to conduct the election to the office of the Vice President of India.
Consider the following statements about the Vice-Presidential Election, 2025 (as per ECI, 23 July 2025): 1. The Electoral College consists of elected as well as nominated members of the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha. 2. The election is governed by the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952. 3. Members of State Legislative Assemblies are part of the Electoral College. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB (ECI): the Electoral College consists of elected and nominated members of the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha, and the election is governed by the 1952 Act and 1974 Rules. State MLAs are not part of it, so 3 is wrong.
Which Ministry notified the resignation of Vice President Jagdeep Dhankhar through Gazette Notification S.O. 3354(E) dated 22 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Ministry of Home Affairs
PIB (ECI, 23 July 2025): the MHA vide its Gazette Notification S.O.3354(E) dated July 22, 2025 notified the resignation of Shri Jagdeep Dhankhar.
Along with the 1952 Act, which rules govern the election to the office of the Vice President?
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Correct answer: C — Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Rules, 1974
PIB (ECI): the election is governed by the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952 and the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Rules, 1974.
Who presented India's third Voluntary National Review at the UN High-Level Political Forum on 23 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Suman Bery
PIB: NITI Aayog Vice Chairman Suman Bery presented India's Third VNR on 23 July 2025 at the HLPF.
The High-Level Political Forum on SDGs, where India presented its VNR in July 2025, is convened by which UN body?
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Correct answer: C — Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC)
PIB: the VNR was presented at the Ministerial Segment of the HLPF on SDGs convened by the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) of the United Nations.
According to India's VNR 2025, around how many people are estimated to have escaped multidimensional poverty?
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Correct answer: B — 248 million
PIB: around 248 million individuals are estimated to have escaped Multidimensional Poverty.
Consider the following statements about India's VNR 2025: 1. It is India's third submission to the HLPF. 2. Its preparation was steered by NITI Aayog. 3. It describes India as the second-largest start-up ecosystem in the world. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB: the VNR marks India's third submission to the HLPF and was steered by NITI Aayog; it describes India as the third-largest (not second-largest) start-up ecosystem. So 3 is wrong.
India's Digital Public Infrastructure highlighted in the VNR 2025 is grounded in the 'JAM' trinity. What does JAM stand for?
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Correct answer: C — Jan Dhan-Aadhaar-Mobile
PIB: the report highlights India's leadership in Digital Public Infrastructure grounded in the Jan Dhan-Aadhaar-Mobile (JAM) trinity.
Who led the Israeli side at the India-Israel defence meeting held in New Delhi on 23 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Maj Gen (Res) Amir Baram, DG, Israel Ministry of Defence
PIB (23 July 2025): Defence Secretary Rajesh Kumar Singh held a bilateral meeting with Director General, Israel Ministry of Defence, Major General (Res) Amir Baram.
At the 23 July 2025 meeting, India and Israel agreed to work towards developing:
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Correct answer: C — An institutional framework for deepening defence ties
PIB: the two sides concurred to work towards developing an institutional framework for further deepening of defence ties.
How many Anganwadi-cum-Crèches had the Ministry of Women and Child Development approved under the Palna Scheme, as stated on 23 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 14,599
PIB (23 July 2025): the Ministry approved 14,599 Anganwadi-cum-Crèches under the Palna Scheme.
The Palna Scheme is implemented under which vertical of Mission Shakti?
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Correct answer: D — Samarthya
PIB: the Palna Scheme was introduced under the Samarthya vertical of Umbrella Mission Shakti for all States and UTs w.e.f. 1 April 2022.
Who assumed charge as Chairperson of the National Financial Reporting Authority on 23 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Nitin Gupta
PIB (24 July 2025): Nitin Gupta, IRS (IT:86) (Retd.), assumed charge as Chairperson, NFRA on 23 July 2025.
Before heading NFRA, Nitin Gupta served as Chairman of which body from June 2022 to June 2024?
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Correct answer: A — Central Board of Direct Taxes
PIB: Nitin Gupta earlier served as Chairman, Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) from June 2022 to June 2024.
NFRA, whose new Chairperson and Full-Time Members took oath on 23 July 2025, functions under which Ministry?
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Correct answer: B — Ministry of Corporate Affairs
PIB (Ministry of Corporate Affairs, 24 July 2025): the Secretary, Ministry of Corporate Affairs administered the oaths to the NFRA Chairperson and Full-Time Members at a ceremony held in the Ministry on 23.07.2025.
Which category of intellectual property recorded the highest growth in filings between 2020-21 and 2024-25, as per the Commerce Ministry (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: D — Geographical Indications
PIB (22 July 2025): GI saw the highest growth at 380%, followed by Designs (266%) and Patents (180%).
By what percentage did total IP filings by Indian citizens rise from 2020-21 to 2024-25?
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Correct answer: C — 44%
PIB: IP filings increased by 44%, from 4,77,533 in 2020-21 to 6,89,991 in 2024-25.
Who led the Indian delegation at the India-Nepal Home Secretary-level talks on 22 July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Govind Mohan
PIB (MHA): the Indian delegation was led by Home Secretary Govind Mohan; Nepal's by Home Secretary Gokarna Mani Duwadee.
At the India-Nepal Home Secretary talks of July 2025, the two sides welcomed the finalisation of the text of which agreement?
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Correct answer: C — Agreement on Mutual Legal Assistance in Criminal Matters
PIB: they welcomed the finalisation of the text of the Agreement on Mutual Legal Assistance in Criminal Matters and agreed to work towards early conclusion of the revised Extradition Treaty.
Consider the following statements about the India-Nepal Home Secretary talks (22 July 2025): 1. The revised Extradition Treaty was signed during the talks. 2. The next round of talks will be held in Nepal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
PIB: the sides only agreed to work towards early conclusion of the revised Extradition Treaty, so 1 is wrong; the next talks will be held in Nepal, so 2 is correct.
Preparations for Census 2027 began with a gazette notification expressing the Government's intent to conduct the Population Census. That notification is dated:
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Correct answer: D — 16 June 2025
PIB (MHA, 22 July 2025): the preparation for Census 2027 started with the publication of the gazette notification dated 16.06.2025.
Which portal will be used for management and monitoring of Census 2027 activities, as discussed at the July 2025 conference?
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Correct answer: C — CMMS (Census Management and Monitoring System)
PIB: the conference discussed management and monitoring of census activities through the Census Management and Monitoring System (CMMS) portal.
What was the gross NPA ratio of public sector banks as of 31 March 2025, as per the Finance Ministry (July 2025)?
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Correct answer: B — 2.58%
PIB (22 July 2025): gross NPAs of PSBs reduced from 9.11% (March 2021) to 2.58% (March 2025); 3.47% was March 2024.
As part of NPA recovery measures, the pecuniary jurisdiction of Debt Recovery Tribunals was raised from ₹10 lakh to:
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Correct answer: A — ₹20 lakh
PIB: the pecuniary jurisdiction of DRTs was increased from ₹10 lakh to ₹20 lakh to let them focus on high-value cases.
What does 'SOAR', launched at the Skill India Mission's 10-year celebration on 22 July 2025, stand for?
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Correct answer: B — Skilling for AI Readiness
PIB (22 July 2025): the launches included SOAR (Skilling for AI Readiness), to make India's school-going population AI-ready.
With which country's government did MSDE sign an MoU on vocational education and skills at the Skill India 10-year event in July 2025?
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Correct answer: A — France
PIB: notable among the MoUs was the MoU between MSDE and the Government of the French Republic.
Where was the National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission launched by the Prime Minister on 1 July 2023?
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Correct answer: C — Shahdol, Madhya Pradesh
PIB (22 July 2025): the mission was inaugurated on 1 July 2023 by the Prime Minister at Shahdol, Madhya Pradesh.
As of July 2025, how many people had been screened under the National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission?
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Correct answer: A — 6 crore
PIB: 6 crore individuals have been screened against the target of 7 crore; 2.6 crore is the number of health cards distributed.
Consider the following statements about the National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission: 1. It aims to eliminate sickle cell anaemia in India by 2047. 2. It targets universal screening of 7 crore people aged 0-40 years in affected tribal areas by FY 2025-26. 3. Screening uses validated Point-of-Care Testing kits. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB (22 July 2025): the mission aims at elimination by 2047 and universal screening of 7 crore people aged 0-40 in affected tribal areas by FY 2025-26, using validated POCT kits. All correct.
The Monsoon Session 2025 of Parliament, which began on 21 July 2025, was scheduled to provide how many sittings?
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Correct answer: D — 21 sittings over 32 days
PIB (Parliamentary Affairs, all-party meeting of 20 July 2025): the session would provide a total of 21 sittings spread over 32 days, from 21 July to 21 August 2025.
In his statement at the start of the Monsoon Session 2025, the Prime Minister said that under Operation Sindoor, India's forces neutralised high-value targets in how many minutes?
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Correct answer: A — 22 minutes
PIB 2146316: the PM said that in just 22 minutes, under Operation Sindoor, India's forces neutralised high-value targets at their own bases.
Consider the following statements about the Monsoon Session 2025: 1. Both Houses were to adjourn on 12 August 2025 and reassemble on 18 August 2025. 2. In his opening statement, the Prime Minister said reservoir levels this year had tripled compared with the past ten years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB 2146260: both Houses would adjourn on 12 August and reassemble on 18 August to facilitate Independence Day celebrations, so 1 is correct. PIB 2146316: the PM said water reservoir levels this year have tripled compared to the past ten years, so 2 is correct.
Under which provision of the Constitution did Vice President Jagdeep Dhankhar resign on 21 July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Article 67(a)
Gazette notification S.O. 3354(E): the resignation letter states he resigns 'in accordance with Article 67(a) of the Constitution'. Article 67(a) lets a Vice-President resign by writing addressed to the President.
Which ministry published Vice President Jagdeep Dhankhar's resignation in the Gazette of India through notification S.O. 3354(E) dated 22 July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Ministry of Home Affairs
The Gazette notification S.O. 3354(E) of 22 July 2025 was issued by the Ministry of Home Affairs; the Rajya Sabha was told that 'the Ministry of Home Affairs, vide notification dated July 22, 2025' had conveyed the resignation.
Consider the following statements about the Vice President's resignation of July 2025: 1. The resignation letter was addressed to the President of India. 2. The resignation was to take effect from 22 August 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The letter (published in Gazette S.O. 3354(E)) was addressed to the President, as Article 67(a) requires, so 1 is correct. The resignation was 'effective immediately', so 2 is wrong.
Under Article 67(b) of the Constitution, a resolution for removing the Vice-President can be moved only after at least how many days' notice of the intention to move it?
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Correct answer: A — 14 days
Article 67(b): the Vice-President may be removed by a resolution of the Council of States passed by a majority of all its then members and agreed to by the House of the People; no such resolution can be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given.
Bharat NCX 2025, the National Cybersecurity Exercise that began on 21 July 2025, is conducted by the National Security Council Secretariat in collaboration with which institution?
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Correct answer: C — Rashtriya Raksha University
PIB (NSCS): the exercise is conducted by the NSCS in collaboration with Rashtriya Raksha University (RRU).
What is the theme of the National Cybersecurity Exercise Bharat NCX 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Enhancing the Operational Preparedness of Indian Cyberspace
PIB (NSCS): Bharat NCX 2025 introduces the focused theme 'Enhancing the Operational Preparedness of Indian Cyberspace'.
According to EPFO's provisional payroll data, what was the net addition of members in May 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 20.06 lakh
PIB (Labour): EPFO recorded a net addition of 20.06 lakh members in May 2025, the highest since April 2018; 9.42 lakh was the number of new subscribers.
Which state led net payroll additions in EPFO's May 2025 data, with 20.33 percent of the total?
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Correct answer: D — Maharashtra
PIB: Maharashtra led by adding 20.33% of net payroll during the month.
The Bills of Lading Bill, 2025, passed by Parliament in July 2025, replaces a colonial-era law of which year?
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Correct answer: C — 1856
PIB (MoPSW): once enacted, the bill will replace the 169-year-old colonial-era Act of 1856.
Who tabled the Bills of Lading Bill, 2025, in the Rajya Sabha on 21 July 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Sarbananda Sonowal
PIB: Union Minister of Ports, Shipping and Waterways Sarbananda Sonowal tabled the bill in the Rajya Sabha; the Lok Sabha had passed it in March 2025.
By how much did the Index of Eight Core Industries grow in June 2025 over June 2024 (provisional)?
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Correct answer: B — 1.7 percent
PIB (Commerce and Industry): the combined ICI increased by 1.7 percent (provisional) in June 2025; 1.2 percent was the final figure for May 2025.
The eight core industries together carry what share of the weight of items in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP)?
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Correct answer: C — 40.27 percent
PIB: the Eight Core Industries comprise 40.27 percent of the weight of items included in the IIP.
After Phase-IV amalgamation under 'One State-One RRB', how many Regional Rural Banks remain with effect from 1 May 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 28
PIB (Finance): Phase-IV amalgamation reduced RRBs from 43 to 28 w.e.f. 1 May 2025, in 26 states and 2 UTs.
Consider the following statements about the consolidation of Regional Rural Banks: 1. Phase-I amalgamation (2005-2010) reduced the number of RRBs from 196 to 82. 2. Phase-IV amalgamation reduced the number of RRBs from 56 to 43. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB: Phase-I cut RRBs from 196 to 82, so 1 is correct. The 56-to-43 reduction was Phase-III (by end-March 2021); Phase-IV cut them from 43 to 28, so 2 is wrong.
What rank did India secure among 110 countries at the 66th International Mathematical Olympiad (IMO) 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 7th
7th, matching its best-ever rank of 1998 and 2001; India was 4th in 2024.
Consider the following statements about India's performance at the International Mathematical Olympiad 2025: 1. It was only the second time that India won three gold medals at the IMO, the first being in 1998. 2. India's team score of 193 out of 252 was the highest ever achieved by an Indian IMO team. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. India also won two silver and one bronze.
Which institution is the nodal agency that selects and trains Indian students for the International Mathematical Olympiad and other international Olympiads?
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Correct answer: D — Homi Bhabha Centre for Science Education (HBCSE)
Homi Bhabha Centre for Science Education (HBCSE), Mumbai, a national centre of the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research.
Where was the 66th International Mathematical Olympiad (IMO) 2025 held?
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Correct answer: A — Sunshine Coast, Australia
Sunshine Coast, Australia; 630 students took part, including 69 female contestants.
How many leaders and political parties attended the Government's all-party meeting held on 20 July 2025 ahead of the Monsoon Session?
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Correct answer: B — 54 leaders from 40 parties
PIB (Parliamentary Affairs): the meeting was attended by 54 leaders from 40 political parties, including ministers.
Who chaired the all-party meeting of 20 July 2025 ahead of the Monsoon Session of Parliament?
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Correct answer: D — Jagat Prakash Nadda
PIB: the meeting was held under the chairmanship of Jagat Prakash Nadda, Leader of the House in the Rajya Sabha; it was called and conducted by Parliamentary Affairs Minister Kiren Rijiju.
Consider the following statements about the all-party meeting of 20 July 2025: 1. The meeting was chaired by the Leader of the House in the Rajya Sabha. 2. Leaders were told that both Houses would adjourn on 12 August 2025 and reassemble on 18 August 2025 for Independence Day celebrations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
PIB 2146260: the meeting was chaired by Jagat Prakash Nadda, Leader of the House in the Rajya Sabha, so 1 is correct; Kiren Rijiju informed leaders that both Houses would adjourn on 12 August and reassemble on 18 August 2025 to facilitate Independence Day celebrations, so 2 is correct.
During the Indian Navy's Singapore port call of July 2025, Commanding Officers of Eastern Fleet ships laid a wreath at which memorial?
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Correct answer: A — Kranji War Memorial
PIB (MoD): the Commanding Officers took part in a wreath-laying ceremony at the Kranji War Memorial, honouring Indian soldiers who made the supreme sacrifice in World War II.
The Indian Navy ships' port call to Singapore (16-19 July 2025) was under the command of which officer?
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Correct answer: B — Flag Officer Commanding Eastern Fleet
PIB: the ships were under the command of Rear Admiral Susheel Menon, Flag Officer Commanding Eastern Fleet (FOCEF).
Which group of ships made the Indian Navy's port call to Singapore in July 2025?
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Correct answer: C — INS Delhi, Shakti, Satpura and Kiltan
PIB: Indian Naval Ships Delhi, Shakti, Satpura and Kiltan of the Eastern Fleet made the port call (16-19 July 2025).
Consider the following statements about the Indian Navy's Singapore port call of July 2025: 1. The deck reception during the visit was hosted on board INS Delhi. 2. The port call took place from 20 to 23 July 2025. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — Neither 1 nor 2
PIB: the deck reception was hosted on board INS Shakti, so 1 is wrong; the port call was from 16 to 19 July 2025 (the release was issued on 23 July), so 2 is wrong.
INS Sandhayak, the Indian Navy's first indigenous Survey Vessel Large, made its maiden port call in July 2025 at which Malaysian port?
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Correct answer: B — Port Klang
PIB (MoD): INS Sandhayak made her maiden port call at Port Klang, Malaysia, for hydrographic cooperation from 16 to 19 July 2025.
When was INS Sandhayak, the first ship of the Sandhayak-class survey vessels, commissioned?
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Correct answer: A — February 2024
PIB: INS Sandhayak, the first of the indigenously designed and built Sandhayak-class hydrographic survey ships, was commissioned in February 2024.
The visit of INS Sandhayak to Malaysia promoted the MAHASAGAR vision. What does MAHASAGAR stand for?
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Correct answer: D — Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions
PIB (MoD): MAHASAGAR stands for Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions.
The Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labourers and Rural Labourers (CPI-AL/RL) released in July 2025 uses which base year?
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Correct answer: B — 2019=100
PIB (Labour): the Labour Bureau has revised the base year of CPI-AL and CPI-RL to 2019=100.
Consider the following statements about CPI-AL and CPI-RL for June 2025: 1. Both indices stood at 134 points. 2. The revised series covers 20 states. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB (Labour): CPI-AL and CPI-RL for June 2025 stand at 134 points each, so 1 is correct; the revised series covers 34 states/UTs as against 20 states in the old series, so 2 is wrong.
The National Standards for Civil Service Training Institutes 2.0 (NSCSTI 2.0), launched on 18 July 2025, were developed by which body?
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Correct answer: C — Capacity Building Commission
PIB (DoPT): NSCSTI 2.0 was developed by the Capacity Building Commission (CBC), and launched by Dr Jitendra Singh at the Civil Services Officers Institute.
While launching NSCSTI 2.0, Dr Jitendra Singh compared its approach of encouraging training institutes to improve with which programme?
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Correct answer: B — Aspirational Districts Programme
PIB (DoPT): 'Just as the Aspirational Districts Programme enabled backward districts to outshine expectations, NSCSTI 2.0 encourages CSTIs to introspect, innovate and pursue excellence,' the minister said.