DSSSB Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
Under which regulations did TRAI register the first eight Digital Connectivity Rating Agencies in August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Rating of Properties for Digital Connectivity Regulations, 2024
The DCRAs were registered under the Rating of Properties for Digital Connectivity Regulations, 2024.
Consider the following statements about TRAI's Digital Connectivity Rating Agencies (DCRAs): 1. Their registration is valid for three years from 27 August 2025. 2. They will assign star ratings to properties for digital connectivity. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: registration is for five years from 27 August 2025. Statement 2 is correct.
National Sports Day is celebrated on 29 August every year to honour:
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Correct answer: B — Major Dhyan Chand
National Sports Day is celebrated annually on 29 August to honour hockey icon Major Dhyan Chand; 2025 marked his 120th birth anniversary.
National Sports Day 2025 marked which birth anniversary of Major Dhyan Chand?
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Correct answer: D — 120th
The Sports Ministry release says the 2025 celebrations marked the 120th birth anniversary of Major Dhyan Chand.
Consider the following statements about National Sports Day 2025: 1. About 30 crore citizens took part across all States and UTs. 2. The first world-class MONDO athletics track was inaugurated at Major Dhyan Chand National Stadium. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the MONDO track was inaugurated at the Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium, New Delhi; the floral tribute was paid at the Major Dhyan Chand National Stadium.
The India–Japan Economic Forum attended by PM Modi and PM Ishiba in Tokyo on 29 August 2025 was organised by CII and:
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Correct answer: C — Keidanren
The Forum was organised by the Confederation of Indian Industry and Keidanren (Japan Business Federation).
At the India–Japan Economic Forum (29 August 2025), PM Modi said India contributes about what share of global growth?
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Correct answer: C — 18%
The Prime Minister stated that India was contributing around 18% to global growth.
According to UDISE+ 2024-25, which milestone was reached for the first time since UDISE+ began?
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Correct answer: B — Number of teachers crossed 1 crore
For the first time, the total number of teachers crossed 1 crore (1,01,22,420) in 2024-25.
As per UDISE+ 2024-25, the dropout rate at the Secondary stage was:
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Correct answer: C — 8.2%
The Secondary dropout rate fell from 10.9% in 2023-24 to 8.2% in 2024-25; 3.5% is the Middle-stage rate.
The Pupil-Teacher Ratio at the Secondary level reported in UDISE+ 2024-25 is:
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Correct answer: A — 21
PTRs are 10 (Foundational), 13 (Preparatory), 17 (Middle) and 21 (Secondary), all better than the NEP norm of 30:1.
Consider the following statements about UDISE+ 2024-25: 1. The number of teachers rose by about 6.7% compared with 2022-23. 2. The retention rate at the Secondary level is above 75%. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: Secondary-level retention rose from 45.6% to 47.2%.
The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana, which completed 11 years in August 2025, was launched on:
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Correct answer: B — 28 August 2014
PMJDY was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 28 August 2014.
As per the Finance Ministry (August 2025), how many Jan Dhan accounts have been opened in 11 years?
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Correct answer: C — More than 56 crore
More than 56 crore Jan Dhan accounts have been opened, with deposits of ₹2.68 lakh crore.
What share of PMJDY accounts belong to women, according to the Finance Minister in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 56%
56% of PMJDY accounts are opened by women; 67% are in rural or semi-urban areas.
Consider the following statements about PMJDY as of August 2025: 1. More than 38 crore free RuPay cards have been issued to account holders. 2. Under a saturation campaign, camps are being held in each of the 2.7 lakh gram panchayats. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct as per the Finance Ministry release of 28 August 2025.
As per the Finance Ministry, how much was credited to bank accounts under various DBT schemes during FY 2024-25 through the JAM trinity?
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Correct answer: A — ₹6.9 lakh crore
₹6.9 lakh crore was credited under DBT schemes in FY 2024-25; ₹2.68 lakh crore is the total PMJDY deposit balance.
India signed an MoU on technical cooperation in agriculture and allied sectors in August 2025 with which country, in its capital Thimphu?
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Correct answer: D — Bhutan
The India–Bhutan MoU was signed in Thimphu, followed by the first Joint Technical Working Group meeting.
Consider the following statements about the India–Bhutan agriculture MoU (August 2025): 1. It was signed at the level of Agriculture Secretaries of the two countries. 2. A Joint Technical Working Group met for the first time after the signing. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct: Secretaries Devesh Chaturvedi and Thinley Namgyel signed it, and the first JTWG session followed.
The 7th meeting of the India–Saudi Arabia Joint Committee on Defence Cooperation was held on 28 August 2025 in:
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Correct answer: A — New Delhi
The 7th JCDC meeting took place in New Delhi on 28 August 2025.
Consider the following statements about India–Saudi Arabia defence ties (August 2025): 1. A Ministerial Committee on Defence Cooperation was added under the Strategic Partnership Council during the PM's visit to Saudi Arabia in April 2025. 2. At the 7th JCDC, Saudi Arabia offered to provide training to the Indian Armed Forces. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: it was India that offered to provide training to the Saudi Armed Forces.
As per MoSPI's quick estimate, India's Index of Industrial Production grew by how much in July 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 3.5%
IIP grew 3.5% in July 2025; 5.4% was manufacturing growth and 1.5% was June's IIP growth.
Consider the following statements about the IIP release of 28 August 2025: 1. The mining sector contracted in July 2025. 2. Under the revised calendar, the IIP quick estimate is released on the 12th of every month. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: mining fell 7.2%. Statement 2 is wrong: the quick estimate is now released on the 28th of every month.
Under the draft amendments to the NDCT Rules, 2019 published on 28 August 2025, the statutory processing time for test licence applications is proposed to be reduced from 90 days to:
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Correct answer: D — 45 days
The draft reduces the overall statutory processing time for test licence applications from 90 days to 45 days.
In the context of drug regulation, 'BA/BE studies', addressed in the draft NDCT amendments of August 2025, stand for:
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Correct answer: B — Bioavailability / Bioequivalence studies
The draft amendments concern applications for Bioavailability/Bioequivalence (BA/BE) studies.
Consider the following statements about the draft amendments to the New Drugs and Clinical Trials Rules, 2019 (August 2025): 1. Test licences for all drugs, including high-risk categories, will be replaced by an intimation system. 2. The Ministry expects the number of licence applications to fall by about 50%. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: a small category of high-risk drugs is excluded from the intimation system. Statement 2 is correct.
On 28 August 2025, the Centre extended the import duty exemption on cotton (HS 5201) till:
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Correct answer: C — 31 December 2025
The exemption, originally from 19 August to 30 September 2025, was extended till 31 December 2025.
The temporary import duty exemption on cotton, later extended in August 2025, had originally come into force on:
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Correct answer: D — 19 August 2025
The Centre had temporarily exempted cotton from import duty from 19 August 2025 till 30 September 2025.
Under the restructuring approved on 27 August 2025, the lending period of the PM SVANidhi scheme has been extended till:
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Correct answer: C — 31 March 2030
The Cabinet extended the lending period of PM SVANidhi until 31 March 2030.
Under the restructured PM SVANidhi scheme (August 2025), the first-tranche loan amount has been raised to up to:
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Correct answer: A — ₹15,000
First-tranche loans rise to ₹15,000 from ₹10,000; second-tranche loans rise to ₹25,000 from ₹20,000.
What is the total outlay of the restructured PM SVANidhi scheme approved by the Cabinet in August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — ₹7,332 crore
The total outlay is ₹7,332 crore; ₹13,797 crore is the amount of loans already disbursed as of 30 July 2025.
Consider the following statements about the restructured PM SVANidhi scheme (August 2025): 1. A UPI-linked RuPay Credit Card will be provided to beneficiaries who have repaid the second loan. 2. The third-tranche loan has been raised from ₹50,000 to ₹75,000. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the third tranche remains unchanged at ₹50,000.
The additional US ad valorem duty on products of India imposed by Executive Order 14329, which took effect on 27 August 2025, is:
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Correct answer: B — 25%
EO 14329 imposed an additional ad valorem duty of 25 percent on imports of articles of India, effective 12:01 a.m. EDT on 27 August 2025.
According to the US Federal Register notice, the additional duty on Indian goods under Executive Order 14329 was imposed because India was:
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Correct answer: D — Directly or indirectly importing Russian Federation oil
The notice says the duty was imposed on articles of India, 'which is directly or indirectly importing Russian Federation oil'.
Consider the following statements about the US duty on Indian goods effective 27 August 2025: 1. Executive Order 14329 was issued under the International Emergency Economic Powers Act (IEEPA). 2. The new duty replaces the additional duty on Indian goods under the reciprocal-tariff order EO 14257. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: the CBP notice says the duty applies in addition to the duty under EO 14257.
Under the CBP Federal Register notice on the additional duty on Indian goods, articles already loaded and in transit before 12:01 a.m. EDT on 27 August 2025 are exempt if entered for consumption before:
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Correct answer: C — 17 September 2025
Heading 9903.01.85 exempts such in-transit goods if entered (or withdrawn from warehouse) for consumption before 12:01 a.m. EDT on 17 September 2025.
Multilateral Exercise Bright Star, in which over 700 Indian personnel were set to participate from 28 August 2025, is hosted by:
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Correct answer: A — Egypt, in conjunction with the US
Exercise Bright Star is hosted by Egypt in conjunction with the US since 1980.
Exercise Bright Star, one of the largest tri-service multilateral exercises in its region, is held:
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Correct answer: B — Biennially
The exercise is held biennially; the previous edition took place in 2023.
According to the Annual Survey of Industries 2023-24, which state ranked first in terms of employment?
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Correct answer: A — Tamil Nadu
Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka are the top five states by employment, in that order.
As per ASI 2023-24 results released on 27 August 2025, Gross Value Added in the sector grew in current prices by:
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Correct answer: B — 11.89%
GVA grew 11.89% in current prices; output grew more than 5.80% and employment 5.92%.
Consider the following statements about the Annual Survey of Industries 2023-24: 1. Gujarat ranked first among states in terms of employment. 2. The sector added about 57 lakh jobs during 2014-15 to 2023-24. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is wrong: Tamil Nadu ranked first and Gujarat second. Statement 2 is correct.
According to Union Minister Jitendra Singh (August 2025), India's bioeconomy was valued at about how much in 2024?
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Correct answer: D — $165.7 billion
India's bioeconomy grew from $10 billion in 2014 to $165.7 billion in 2024; $300 billion is the 2030 target.
India's first Biomanufacturing Institute, cited as an achievement in the first year of the BioE3 Policy, was inaugurated at:
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Correct answer: A — Mohali
The Minister highlighted the inauguration of India's first Biomanufacturing Institute at Mohali.
According to the CMS: Education 2025 survey, government schools account for what share of total school enrolment in India?
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Correct answer: B — 55.9%
Government schools account for 55.9% of total enrolment (66.0% in rural areas); private unaided recognised schools account for 31.9%.
As per the CMS: Education 2025 survey, what proportion of students were taking or had taken private coaching during the current academic year?
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Correct answer: C — 27.0%
27.0% of all students were taking or had taken private coaching – 30.7% in urban and 25.5% in rural areas.
Consider the following statements about the CMS: Education 2025 survey: 1. Average household expenditure per student in government schools was ₹2,863. 2. Textbooks and stationery formed the largest component of household education expenditure per student. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is wrong: course fees (₹7,111) were the largest expense, followed by textbooks and stationery (₹2,002).
Under the revised wheat stock limits announced on 26 August 2025, the limit for traders/wholesalers has been reduced to:
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Correct answer: A — 2,000 MT
The limit for traders/wholesalers was cut from 3,000 MT to 2,000 MT, applicable until 31 March 2026.
Wheat stockists violating the revised stock limits (August 2025) face punitive action under which law?
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Correct answer: D — Essential Commodities Act, 1955
Violators are subject to punitive action under Sections 6 and 7 of the Essential Commodities Act, 1955.
The two-day Vibrant Villages Programme workshop addressed by Amit Shah on 26 August 2025 was organised by:
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Correct answer: C — Border Management Division, MHA
The workshop was organised by the Border Management Division of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
At the VVP workshop (August 2025), Amit Shah said borders should be free from encroachment for at least what radius?
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Correct answer: B — 30 km
Amit Shah said borders should be free from encroachment for at least a 30 km radius.
What is the theme of Ayurveda Day 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Ayurveda for People & Planet
The 2025 theme announced by the Ministry of Ayush is 'Ayurveda for People & Planet'.
As recalled by the Ministry of Ayush in August 2025, which nationwide campaign was introduced by the Prime Minister on the 9th Ayurveda Day in 2024?
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Correct answer: C — Desh Ka Prakriti Parikshan Abhiyan
On the 9th Ayurveda Day (2024), the PM inaugurated Phase II of AIIA, New Delhi and introduced the nationwide 'Desh Ka Prakriti Parikshan Abhiyan'.
Which Prime Minister of Fiji paid an Official Visit to India from 24 to 26 August 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Sitiveni Rabuka
Fiji's Prime Minister Sitiveni Rabuka paid an Official Visit to India from 24 to 26 August 2025, his first visit to India in his current capacity.
The India–Fiji Joint Statement issued on 25 August 2025 was titled 'Partnership in the spirit of ______'.
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Correct answer: A — Veilomani Dosti
The India–Fiji Joint Statement of 25 August 2025 was titled 'Partnership in the spirit of Veilomani Dosti'.
Consider the following statements about outcomes of Fiji PM Sitiveni Rabuka's visit to India (August 2025): 1. An MoU was signed for a 100-bedded Super Specialty Hospital in Suva, described as the largest project undertaken by India under its Grant-in-Aid Programme in the Pacific region. 2. Fiji joined the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI). Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. The joint statement describes the 100-bedded Super Specialty Hospital in Suva as India's largest Grant-in-Aid project in the Pacific region, and the list of outcomes announces that Fiji joins the IPOI.
According to the India–Fiji Joint Statement (August 2025), the Girmitiyas — over 60,000 Indian indentured labourers — arrived in Fiji during which period?
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Correct answer: D — 1879 to 1916
The joint statement acknowledged the Girmitiyas, over 60,000 Indian indentured labourers who arrived in Fiji between 1879 and 1916.
With reference to India–Fiji relations as recalled in the August 2025 joint statement, consider the following statements: 1. President Droupadi Murmu's visit to Fiji in August 2024 was the first-ever visit by a President of India to Fiji. 2. The 12th World Hindi Conference was held in Suva in February 2023. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the joint statement calls President Droupadi Murmu's August 2024 visit the historic first-ever visit of an Indian President to Fiji. Statement 2 is incorrect: the 12th World Hindi Conference was held in Nadi, not Suva, in February 2023.
Under the Letter of Intent signed between India and the World Food Programme on 25 August 2025, India offers WFP the opportunity to supply which commodity?
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Correct answer: B — Fortified rice
Under the LoI, the Department of Food and Public Distribution offers WFP the opportunity to supply fortified rice from India for vulnerable populations in crisis zones.
Consider the following statements about the India–WFP Letter of Intent of 25 August 2025: 1. On the Indian side, the initiative is offered by the Department of Food and Public Distribution. 2. The LoI followed discussions at a February 2025 WFP Executive Board side event held in Geneva. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: the Department of Food and Public Distribution offers WFP the opportunity to supply fortified rice. Statement 2 is incorrect: the February 2025 Executive Board side event was held in Rome, not Geneva.
The 56th meeting of the Council of Indian Institutes of Technology, chaired by Dharmendra Pradhan on 25 August 2025, was held at:
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Correct answer: D — IIT Delhi
The 56th meeting of the IIT Council was convened on 25 August 2025 at IIT Delhi under the chairmanship of Union Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan.
At the 56th IIT Council meeting (August 2025), the Education Minister said IITs have produced over 6,000 start-ups and nearly 5,000 patents. How many unicorns did he mention?
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Correct answer: C — 56
Dharmendra Pradhan said that with over 6,000 start-ups, 56 unicorns and nearly 5,000 patents, IITs have emerged as engines of economic growth.
As of 21 August 2025, total gross enrolments under Atal Pension Yojana had crossed:
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Correct answer: A — 8.11 crore
PFRDA said total gross enrolments under Atal Pension Yojana crossed 8.11 crore as of 21 August 2025.
According to PFRDA, what share of total Atal Pension Yojana enrolments in FY 2024-25 were women?
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Correct answer: B — 55%
PFRDA said that in FY 2024-25, 55% of total APY enrolments were women, out of more than 1.17 crore new subscribers.
In August 2025, Government e Marketplace (GeM) crossed what milestone in cumulative Gross Merchandise Value since inception?
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Correct answer: D — ₹15 lakh crore
GeM crossed ₹15 lakh crore in cumulative Gross Merchandise Value since its inception in 2016.
Government e Marketplace (GeM), the online public procurement platform that crossed ₹15 lakh crore GMV in August 2025, was started in which year?
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Correct answer: C — 2016
The Commerce Ministry stated that GeM crossed ₹15 lakh crore cumulative GMV since its inception in 2016.
Which body released India's first national 'Guidelines and SOPs for Blood Transfusion and Blood Banks for Animals in India' in August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying
The Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying (DAHD) under the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying released the guidelines and SOPs.
Consider the following statements about the national Guidelines/SOPs for animal blood transfusion released in August 2025: 1. They make blood typing and cross-matching mandatory to prevent incompatibility reactions. 2. They lay out a roadmap for a National Veterinary Blood Bank Network (N-VBBN). Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. Key highlights include mandatory blood typing and cross-matching to prevent incompatibility reactions and a roadmap for a National Veterinary Blood Bank Network (N-VBBN) with digital registries, real-time inventories and an emergency helpline.
The All India Speakers' Conference held at the Delhi Legislative Assembly in August 2025 commemorated the centenary of whom becoming the first elected Indian President of the Central Legislative Assembly?
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Correct answer: B — Vithalbhai Patel
The conference commemorated the 100th anniversary of freedom fighter Vithalbhai Patel becoming the first elected Indian President of the Central Legislative Assembly.
Where was the two-day All India Speakers' Conference inaugurated by Amit Shah on 24 August 2025 held?
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Correct answer: D — Delhi Legislative Assembly
Amit Shah inaugurated the two-day All India Speakers' Conference organised at the Delhi Legislative Assembly.
Consider the following statements about Vithalbhai Patel: 1. He became the first Indian President of the Central Legislative Assembly in August 1925. 2. He was the younger brother of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
Statement 1 is correct: Vithalbhai Patel became the first Indian President of the Central Legislative Assembly on 22 August 1925. Statement 2 is incorrect: he was the elder (older) brother of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
Consider the following statements about the All India Speakers' Conference of August 2025: 1. It was inaugurated by Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla. 2. Chairpersons and Vice-Chairpersons of State Legislative Councils were among the participants. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: Union Home Minister Amit Shah inaugurated the conference. Statement 2 is correct: it was attended by Speakers and Deputy Speakers of State/UT Assemblies as well as Chairpersons and Vice-Chairpersons of Legislative Councils.
Chief of the Army Staff General Upendra Dwivedi embarked on an official visit to which country from 25 to 28 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Algeria
Algeria; the visit followed recent visits there by the President of India and the Chief of Defence Staff.
During his August 2025 visit to Algeria, General Upendra Dwivedi was to meet General Saïd Chanegriha, who holds which post?
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Correct answer: D — Chief of Staff of the People's National Army
Chief of Staff of the People's National Army, who is also Minister Delegate to the Minister of National Defence; Lt Gen Mostefa Smaali is Commander of Land Forces.
Which of the following was NOT among the four Gaganyaan astronauts felicitated by Rajnath Singh in New Delhi on 24 August 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Wg Cdr Rakesh Sharma
The four Gaganyatris felicitated were Group Captains Shubhanshu Shukla, P B Nair, Ajit Krishnan and Angad Pratap; Rakesh Sharma was not among them.
Who felicitated the four Gaganyatris of ISRO's Gaganyaan mission at an event in New Delhi on 24 August 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Rajnath Singh
Defence Minister Rajnath Singh felicitated Group Captains Shubhanshu Shukla, P B Nair, Ajit Krishnan and Angad Pratap in New Delhi on 24 August 2025.
Consider the following statements about the felicitation of the Gaganyatris on 24 August 2025: 1. The event was held at ISRO headquarters in Bengaluru. 2. Gaganyaan is ISRO's maiden human spaceflight mission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only 2 is correct. Defence Minister Rajnath Singh felicitated the four Gaganyatris at an event in New Delhi.
The 68th Commonwealth Parliamentary Conference, at which Om Birla will lead the Indian delegation in October 2025, is being held in which city?
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Correct answer: D — Bridgetown
Om Birla will lead the Indian Parliamentary Delegation at the 68th Commonwealth Parliamentary Conference in Bridgetown, Barbados, from 5 to 12 October 2025.
On what theme will Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla address the General Assembly of the 68th Commonwealth Parliamentary Conference?
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Correct answer: A — The Commonwealth: A Global Partner
Om Birla will address the General Assembly of the 68th CPC on the theme 'The Commonwealth: A Global Partner'.
Consider the following statements about India's participation in the 68th Commonwealth Parliamentary Conference: 1. The conference is scheduled from 5 to 12 October 2025. 2. Rajya Sabha Deputy Chairman Harivansh is part of the Indian delegation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both are correct. The delegation, led by Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla and representing the CPA India Region, includes Harivansh; the conference is in Bridgetown, Barbados, from 5 to 12 October 2025.
With effect from which date did the Department of Posts temporarily suspend booking of most postal articles to the USA, as announced on 23 August 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 25 August 2025
The Department of Posts decided to temporarily suspend booking of all types of postal articles destined for the USA with effect from 25 August 2025, except letters/documents and gifts up to USD 100.
Under US Executive Order No. 14324, the duty-free de minimis exemption was to be withdrawn from 29 August 2025 for goods valued up to:
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Correct answer: D — USD 800
Under Executive Order No. 14324 of 30 July 2025, the duty-free de minimis exemption for goods valued up to USD 800 was to be withdrawn with effect from 29 August 2025.
Consider the following statements about India Post's suspension of postal bookings to the USA (August 2025): 1. Letters/documents and gift items up to USD 100 in value were exempted from the suspension. 2. The suspension followed US-bound air carriers expressing inability to accept postal consignments after 25 August 2025. Which of the above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Both statements are correct. Letters/documents and gifts up to USD 100 continued to be accepted, and US-bound air carriers had expressed inability to accept postal consignments after 25 August, citing lack of operational and technical readiness.
The US Executive Order of 30 July 2025 cited by India's Department of Posts for withdrawing the de minimis exemption is numbered:
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Correct answer: B — 14324
The Department of Posts took note of Executive Order No. 14324 issued by the US Administration on 30 July 2025, which withdraws the de minimis exemption from 29 August 2025.