Delhi Police Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
What real GDP growth rate for the October–December 2024 quarter (Q3 of 2024-25) did MoSPI estimate on 28 February 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 6.2%
Real GDP grew 6.2% in Q3 of 2024-25; 6.5% is the full-year estimate and 5.6% the revised Q2 growth.
What real GDP growth for 2024-25 was estimated in the Second Advance Estimates released on 28 February 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 6.5%
The Second Advance Estimates put real GDP growth for 2024-25 at 6.5%, revised up from the First Advance Estimates.
As per the First Revised Estimates released on 28 February 2025, India's real GDP growth in 2023-24 was:
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Correct answer: C — 9.2%
Real GDP grew 9.2% in 2023-24, the highest in the previous 12 years except 2021-22; 8.6% was real GVA growth that year and 7.6% the final 2022-23 growth.
According to MoSPI's estimates of 28 February 2025, Private Final Consumption Expenditure is expected to grow by how much in 2024-25?
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Correct answer: C — 7.6%
PFCE is expected to grow 7.6% in 2024-25, compared with 5.6% in 2023-24.
Consider the following statements about the national accounts estimates released by the NSO on 28 February 2025: 1. Real GDP growth of 9.2% in 2023-24 is the highest in the previous 12 years except for 2021-22. 2. The growth rate of real GDP for Q2 of 2024-25 was revised upward to 5.6%. 3. Construction is expected to be the fastest-growing sector in 2024-25 at 10.4%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: construction is estimated to grow 8.6% in 2024-25; 10.4% was its growth in 2023-24.
The 10,000th Farmer Producer Organisation under the central scheme, launched by PM Modi at Bhagalpur, is registered in which district?
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Correct answer: C — Khagaria
The 10,000th FPO is registered in Khagaria district, Bihar, and focuses on maize, banana and paddy.
What is the budget outlay of the Central Sector Scheme for Formation and Promotion of 10,000 FPOs, launched on 29 February 2020?
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Correct answer: D — ₹6,865 crore
The scheme was launched with an outlay of ₹6,865 crore till 2027-28.
Consider the following statements about the scheme for Formation and Promotion of 10,000 FPOs: 1. FPOs under it can be registered under Part IXA of the Companies Act or under a state's Co-operative Societies Act. 2. It provides a matching equity grant of up to ₹2,000 per farmer member, with a limit of ₹15 lakh per FPO. 3. It provides credit guarantee cover for project loans of up to ₹10 crore per FPO. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is wrong: the credit guarantee facility covers project loans of up to ₹2 crore per FPO.
What rate of interest on EPF accumulations for 2024-25 did EPFO's Central Board of Trustees recommend on 28 February 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 8.25%
The CBT recommended 8.25% for 2024-25; it is credited after the Government notifies the rate.
Who chairs the Central Board of Trustees of EPF, as at its 237th meeting on 28 February 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Union Minister for Labour and Employment
The CBT is chaired by the Union Labour and Employment Minister (Dr Mansukh Mandaviya); the Central PF Commissioner is Member Secretary.
Under the National Waterways (Construction of Jetties/Terminals) Regulations, 2025, an entity wishing to develop a terminal on a national waterway must obtain a No Objection Certificate from which body?
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Correct answer: A — Inland Waterways Authority of India
The regulations, framed by IWAI, require any entity developing or operating an inland waterway terminal on a national waterway to obtain an NoC from IWAI.
Under the National Waterways (Construction of Jetties/Terminals) Regulations, 2025, what initial term is given to temporary terminals?
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Correct answer: B — Five years
Temporary terminals get an initial five-year term, while permanent terminals can be maintained for their lifetime.
What was the theme of National Science Day 2025, observed on 28 February 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Empowering Indian Youth for Global Leadership in Science & Innovation for Viksit Bharat
The 2025 theme was 'Empowering Indian Youth for Global Leadership in Science & Innovation for Viksit Bharat'; the other options are themes of earlier years.
At the National Science Day 2025 event, Dr Jitendra Singh said DST's budget allocation rose from ₹2,777 crore in 2013-14 to how much in 2024-25?
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Correct answer: D — ₹28,509 crore
DST's allocation rose to ₹28,509 crore in 2024-25, a 926% increase; ₹6,658 crore was DSIR's and ₹13,416 crore the Department of Space's 2024-25 figure.
According to the government's National Science Day 2025 backgrounder, the INSPIRE-MANAK scheme will be extended from 2025 to which students?
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Correct answer: A — Classes 11 and 12
From 2025, INSPIRE-MANAK will expand its reach to Class 11 and 12 students.
Where was the first ministerial meeting of the India–EU Trade and Technology Council held, before the second meeting in New Delhi on 28 February 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Brussels
The first India–EU TTC meeting was held in Brussels on 16 May 2023; the second was in New Delhi on 28 February 2025.
Which of the following Union Ministers was NOT an Indian co-chair of the second India–EU TTC meeting on 28 February 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Nirmala Sitharaman
The Indian co-chairs were S. Jaishankar, Piyush Goyal and Ashwini Vaishnaw; the Finance Minister was not a co-chair.
Which body confers the Prani Mitra and Jeev Daya Awards, presented at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi, on 27 February 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Animal Welfare Board of India
The Prani Mitra and Jeev Daya Awards are given by the Animal Welfare Board of India, which held the ceremony on 27 February 2025.
Consider the following statements in the context of the awards presented on 27 February 2025: 1. The Prani Mitra Award was instituted in 2001. 2. The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory body established under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 2 only
Only the second is correct: the AWBI was established under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960, while the Prani Mitra Award dates from 1966; it is the Jeev Daya Award that was instituted in 2001.
In the Aadhaar Authentication for Good Governance amendment rules behind the portal launched on 27 February 2025 (swik.meity.gov.in), 'SWIK' stands for:
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Correct answer: D — Social Welfare, Innovation, Knowledge
The rules are the Aadhaar Authentication for Good Governance (Social Welfare, Innovation, Knowledge) Amendment Rules, 2025, hence the portal address swik.meity.gov.in.
The Aadhaar Good Governance portal launched on 27 February 2025 implements amendment rules framed under which Act?
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Correct answer: A — Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016
The Aadhaar Authentication for Good Governance Amendment Rules, 2025 were notified under the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016.
Abdullah Ocalan, who on 27 February 2025 called on his group to lay down arms and dissolve, is the founder of which organisation?
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Correct answer: B — Kurdistan Workers' Party (PKK)
Abdullah Ocalan is the jailed founder of the Kurdistan Workers' Party (PKK), which he asked to lay down arms and dissolve itself.
On which island has PKK founder Abdullah Ocalan been imprisoned since 1999?
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Correct answer: C — Imrali
Ocalan has been held on Imrali island in the Sea of Marmara since 1999; a DEM Party delegation met him there before his letter was read out on 27 February 2025.
Members of which Turkish political party read out Abdullah Ocalan's call for the PKK to disarm in Istanbul on 27 February 2025?
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Correct answer: D — DEM Party
The letter was read out by DEM Party politicians Ahmet Turk and Pervin Buldan after their visit to Imrali island.
According to Union Mines Minister G. Kishan Reddy on 27 February 2025, which States/UTs would soon join the mineral auction regime, taking it to 17 States?
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Correct answer: A — Assam, Jammu & Kashmir and Kerala
The Minister said Assam, Jammu & Kashmir and Kerala would soon join the mineral auction regime, expanding India's mineral auction map to 17 States.
According to the Ministry of Mines (27 February 2025), what is India's rank among the world's aluminium producers?
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Correct answer: A — 2nd
The Ministry said India is the 2nd largest aluminium producer in the world, among the top 10 in refined copper and the 4th largest iron ore producer.
How many runs did Ibrahim Zadran score against England at Lahore on 26 February 2025, the highest individual score in Champions Trophy history?
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Correct answer: C — 177
Ibrahim Zadran made 177 off 146 balls, the highest individual score in Champions Trophy history.
Ibrahim Zadran's 177 overtook whose record for the highest individual score in the Champions Trophy, set earlier in the same 2025 edition?
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Correct answer: A — Ben Duckett
Zadran overtook England opener Ben Duckett, who had made 165 against Australia earlier in the 2025 edition.
Which Afghanistan bowler took 5 for 58 to dismiss England for 317 in the Champions Trophy match at Lahore on 26 February 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Azmatullah Omarzai
Azmatullah Omarzai took 5 for 58 as England were bowled out for 317, eight runs short.
On 26 February 2025, India formally handed over a Fast Interceptor Craft to which country at a Coast Guard base on Ile Perseverance?
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Correct answer: D — Seychelles
Seychelles received the Fast Interceptor Craft from India at its Coast Guard base on Ile Perseverance on 26 February 2025.
Which President of Seychelles, also Commander-in-Chief of its Defence Forces, attended the handover of India's Fast Interceptor Craft in February 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Wavel Ramkalawan
President Wavel Ramkalawan, Commander-in-Chief of the Seychelles Defence Forces, attended the handover on 26 February 2025.
According to the CAG report tabled in the Delhi Assembly on 25 February 2025, the Delhi Excise Policy 2021-22 caused a revenue loss of approximately:
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Correct answer: D — 2,002 crore rupees
The CAG said implementation issues of the new excise policy led to a revenue loss of approximately 2,002 crore rupees.
Who tabled the CAG report on 'Regulation and Supply of Liquor in Delhi' in the Delhi Legislative Assembly on 25 February 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Rekha Gupta
Chief Minister Rekha Gupta tabled the CAG report in the Delhi Assembly.
Which component accounted for the largest share of the revenue loss from Delhi's Excise Policy 2021-22, as per the CAG?
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Correct answer: A — Exemptions to zonal licensees in non-conforming wards
Exemptions given to zonal licensees in non-conforming wards cost about ₹941 crore, the largest component; not re-tendering surrendered licences cost about ₹890 crore.
Consider the following statements about the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG): 1. Under Article 148, the CAG is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. 2. Under Article 151(1), the CAG's reports relating to the accounts of the Union are submitted to the President, who causes them to be laid before each House of Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Article 148 provides that the CAG is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal, and Article 151(1) requires the CAG's Union audit reports to be submitted to the President for laying before each House of Parliament. Both statements are correct.
As of 31 December 2024, what was the total amount under operative Kisan Credit Card accounts, as per the Finance Ministry?
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Correct answer: A — 10.05 lakh crore rupees
The amount under operative KCC accounts stood at 10.05 lakh crore rupees as of 31 December 2024, benefiting 7.72 crore farmers.
The Union Budget 2025-26 raised the loan limit under the Modified Interest Subvention Scheme for KCC loans from 3 lakh rupees to:
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Correct answer: B — 5 lakh rupees
The Finance Minister announced in the Budget Speech 2025-26 that the MISS loan limit would rise from 3 lakh to 5 lakh rupees.
Consider the following statements about short-term KCC loans under the Modified Interest Subvention Scheme: 1. Banks get 1.5% interest subvention and farmers who repay promptly get a 3% incentive, bringing the effective rate to 4% a year. 2. KCC loans up to 2 lakh rupees are extended without collateral. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
Under MISS, banks get 1.5% subvention on KCC loans at 7%, and a 3% Prompt Repayment Incentive cuts the farmer's effective rate to 4%; loans up to 2 lakh rupees are collateral-free. Both statements are correct.
According to the Time Use Survey 2024, what share of women aged 15-59 years participated in caregiving for their household members?
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Correct answer: D — 41 per cent
About 41% of women aged 15-59 took part in caregiving for household members, compared with 21.4% of men.
As per the Time Use Survey 2024, about how many minutes a day did female participants aged 15-59 spend on caregiving for household members, against 74 minutes for men?
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Correct answer: C — 140 minutes
Female participants in caregiving spent about 140 minutes a day, compared with 74 minutes for male participants aged 15-59.
How many Automatic Chemical Agent Detection and Alarm (ACADA) systems did the Indian Army contract from L&T on 25 February 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 223
The Army signed a contract for 223 ACADA systems with L&T at a cost of ₹80.43 crore.
Which DRDO laboratory designed and developed the ACADA system procured by the Army in February 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Defence Research and Development Establishment, Gwalior
ACADA was designed and developed by DRDO's Defence Research and Development Establishment, Gwalior.
The ACADA system detects chemical warfare agents and toxic industrial chemicals using which principle?
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Correct answer: A — Ion Mobility Spectrometry
ACADA works on the principle of Ion Mobility Spectrometry and has two highly sensitive IMS cells for continuous detection.
As per EPFO's provisional payroll data released on 25 February 2025, how many net members were added in December 2024?
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Correct answer: D — 16.05 lakh
EPFO recorded a net addition of 16.05 lakh members in December 2024, including about 8.47 lakh new subscribers.
Which state led in net payroll addition in EPFO's December 2024 data, contributing 21.71%?
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Correct answer: B — Maharashtra
Maharashtra led all states, adding 21.71% of the net payroll in December 2024.
Which New Zealand batter scored 112 against Bangladesh at Rawalpindi on 24 February 2025, taking New Zealand and India into the Champions Trophy semi-finals?
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Correct answer: B — Rachin Ravindra
Rachin Ravindra made 112 off 105 balls as New Zealand chased 237 to win by five wickets.
New Zealand's win over Bangladesh on 24 February 2025 eliminated which two teams from Group A of the Champions Trophy?
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Correct answer: C — Pakistan and Bangladesh
The result knocked out Bangladesh and the hosts and defending champions Pakistan, while New Zealand and India reached the semi-finals.
Which New Zealand bowler took 4 for 26 to restrict Bangladesh to 236 for 9 at Rawalpindi on 24 February 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Michael Bracewell
Michael Bracewell took 4 for 26 as Bangladesh were held to 236 for 9.
How did India vote on the Ukraine-tabled UN General Assembly resolution 'Advancing a comprehensive, just and lasting peace in Ukraine' on 24 February 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Abstained
India was among the 65 member states that abstained on the Ukraine-tabled resolution; it also abstained on the amended US resolution.
What was the vote on the Ukraine-tabled UN General Assembly resolution adopted on 24 February 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 93 in favour, 18 against, 65 abstentions
The Ukraine-tabled text passed by 93 in favour, 18 against and 65 abstentions; the amended US text passed by 93 to 8 with 73 abstentions.
Which Indian Army institution hosted the 'Conference on Women Peacekeepers from the Global South' at the Manekshaw Centre in February 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Centre for United Nations Peacekeeping
The Indian Army hosted the conference through the Centre for United Nations Peacekeeping (CUNPK), India.
Women peacekeepers from how many nations took part in the Conference on Women Peacekeepers from the Global South in New Delhi (24-25 February 2025)?
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Correct answer: C — 35
The conference brought together women peacekeepers from 35 nations.
India was unanimously elected President for the triennium 2025-27 of which organisation at its 21st General Session in New Delhi in February 2025?
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Correct answer: C — African-Asian Rural Development Organization
The 21st General Session of the African-Asian Rural Development Organization (AARDO) elected India as President for 2025-27.
Which two countries were elected Vice-Presidents of AARDO for 2025-27, alongside India as President?
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Correct answer: D — Malaysia and Ghana
AARDO elected Malaysia from Asia and Ghana from Africa as the two Vice-Presidents.
In which year was the African-Asian Rural Development Organization (AARDO) formed?
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Correct answer: A — 1962
AARDO, an inter-governmental international organisation, was formed in 1962.
Who was the UK minister who announced the resumption of India-UK trade negotiations with Piyush Goyal in New Delhi on 24 February 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Jonathan Reynolds
UK Secretary of State for Business and Trade Jonathan Reynolds announced the resumption with Piyush Goyal in Delhi.
The resumption of India-UK trade talks in February 2025 followed a meeting between PM Modi and Keir Starmer on the sidelines of the G20 Summit in November 2024, held in:
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Correct answer: B — Rio de Janeiro
Modi and Starmer met on the sidelines of the G20 Summit in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in November 2024.
Kohli's unbeaten 100 against Pakistan in Dubai on 23 February 2025 was his which ODI century?
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Correct answer: C — 51st
Kohli's 100 not out off 111 balls was his 51st ODI century, the most by anyone in the format.
In how many innings did Virat Kohli reach 14,000 ODI runs, the fastest by any batter?
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Correct answer: D — 287
Kohli reached 14,000 ODI runs in his 287th innings, 63 fewer than Sachin Tendulkar's 350.
Besides Sachin Tendulkar, which batter had scored 14,000 ODI runs before Virat Kohli?
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Correct answer: B — Kumar Sangakkara
Kohli became only the third batter to 14,000 ODI runs, after Sachin Tendulkar and Kumar Sangakkara.
Which Indian bowler took three wickets to help bowl Pakistan out for 241 on 23 February 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Kuldeep Yadav
Left-arm spinner Kuldeep Yadav took three wickets as Pakistan were bowled out for 241.
Which idea did PM Modi suggest for young people ahead of National Science Day in the 119th Mann Ki Baat?
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Correct answer: B — One Day as a Scientist
The PM suggested 'One Day as a Scientist', asking youth to spend a day at a research lab, planetarium or space centre.
In the 119th Mann Ki Baat the PM played the voice of which Constituent Assembly member presenting the national flag on behalf of the women of India?
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Correct answer: D — Hansa Mehta
The PM played Hansa Mehta's words presenting the first flag to fly over the Constituent Assembly as a gift from the women of India.
What did PM Modi announce he would do on International Women's Day, 8 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Hand over his X and Instagram accounts to inspiring women
He said he would hand over his social media accounts such as X and Instagram to inspiring women for the day.
According to the 119th Mann Ki Baat, at what position did host Uttarakhand finish in the 38th National Games?
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Correct answer: C — 7th
The PM said Uttarakhand finished 7th, while the Services team won the most gold medals.
By how much did the PM ask citizens to cut their use of edible oil to fight obesity?
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Correct answer: B — 10%
He repeated his call to reduce the consumption of edible oil by 10% and challenged 10 people to do so.
Which party finished second in Germany's Bundestag election of 23 February 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Alternative fur Deutschland (AfD)
The AfD took 20.8% of second votes to finish second behind the CDU/CSU.
What was the voter turnout in Germany's federal election of 23 February 2025, according to the Federal Returning Officer?
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Correct answer: D — 82.5%
Turnout was 82.5%, up from 76.4% in the 2021 Bundestag election.
Which two parties missed the 5% threshold in the 2025 Bundestag election?
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Correct answer: D — FDP and BSW
The FDP got 4.3% and the BSW just under 5%, both below the 5% threshold, so neither won seats.
Exercise SHAKTI, on which Army Chief General Upendra Dwivedi was to be briefed in Marseille in February 2025, is a bilateral exercise between India and:
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Correct answer: A — France
The Defence Ministry described SHAKTI as the bilateral India-France exercise, part of India-France training cooperation.
The Neuve Chapelle Indian War Memorial in France, where General Dwivedi was to lay a wreath, honours Indian soldiers who fought in:
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Correct answer: B — World War I
The memorial honours fallen Indian soldiers who took part in World War I.
Former RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das was appointed to which post on 22 February 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Principal Secretary-2 to the Prime Minister
The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet approved his appointment as Principal Secretary-2 to the Prime Minister.
Who continues as Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister after Shaktikanta Das's appointment as Principal Secretary-2?
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Correct answer: C — P.K. Mishra
P.K. Mishra, a retired Gujarat-cadre IAS officer, continues as Principal Secretary to the PM.
Consider the following statements about Shaktikanta Das's appointment of February 2025: 1. It was approved by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet. 2. It is for a fixed term of five years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
The ACC approved the appointment, but it is co-terminus with the PM's term or until further orders, not a fixed five-year term, so only the first statement is correct.
Who scored 165 for England against Australia on 22 February 2025, the highest individual score in Champions Trophy history?
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Correct answer: D — Ben Duckett
Ben Duckett's 165 off 143 balls is the highest individual score in Champions Trophy history.
Whose unbeaten 120, his maiden ODI century, steered Australia's record chase against England in Lahore?
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Correct answer: A — Josh Inglis
Josh Inglis made 120 not out off 86 balls, his maiden ODI century, as Australia chased 352.
Where was the 6th edition of Exercise Dharma Guardian scheduled from 24 February to 9 March 2025?
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Correct answer: A — East Fuji Manoeuvre Training Area, Japan
The 6th edition was scheduled at the East Fuji Manoeuvre Training Area in Japan.
The Indian contingent for Exercise Dharma Guardian 2025 was drawn mainly from a battalion of which regiment?
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Correct answer: B — Madras Regiment
The 120-member Indian contingent was represented mainly by troops from a battalion of the Madras Regiment.
Consider the following statements about Exercise Dharma Guardian: 1. It is an annual exercise held alternately in India and Japan. 2. Its previous edition, before February 2025, was held in Rajasthan. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — Both 1 and 2
The Defence Ministry said the exercise is annual and held alternately in India and Japan, and the previous edition was held in Rajasthan in February-March 2024, so both statements are correct.
The draft Advocates (Amendment) Bill, 2025, whose consultation was concluded on 22 February 2025, sought to amend which law?
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Correct answer: B — Advocates Act, 1961
The draft sought to amend the Advocates Act, 1961; it drew objections from the Bar Council of India and lawyers.
On which website was the draft Advocates (Amendment) Bill, 2025 placed for public consultation on 13 February 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Department of Legal Affairs
The Law Ministry said the draft was made available for public consultation on the website of the Department of Legal Affairs on 13 February 2025.