CTET Current Affairs Quiz — All time
Daily news by your exam, state and topic — each with a short summary, key facts and MCQs.
According to MeitY's January 2025 report, what share of national income did India's digital economy account for in 2022-23?
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Correct answer: A — 11.74%
PIB 2095260: India's digital economy was estimated at 11.74% of national income in 2022-23.
With MeitY's digital economy estimates, India became the first developing country to use which organisation's framework to size its digital economy?
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Correct answer: C — OECD
PIB 2095260: India is the first among developing countries to use the OECD framework; alternate estimates use the ADB input-output approach.
Consider the following about MeitY's report on India's digital economy (January 2025): 1. The digital economy was worth ₹31.64 lakh crore in 2022-23. 2. It is projected to contribute one-fifth of GDP by 2030. 3. It also gives alternate estimates using the ADB's input-output approach. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2095260: the digital economy equalled ₹31.64 lakh crore in 2022-23, is projected at one-fifth of GDP by 2030, and alternate estimates use the ADB input-output approach.
By how much has India's Maternal Mortality Rate declined since 1990, as per the NHM update to the Cabinet in January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 83%
PIB 2095052: MMR declined by 83% since 1990, higher than the global decline of 45%.
How many Ayushman Arogya Mandirs had been reached by FY 2023-24, according to the NHM achievements placed before the Cabinet?
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Correct answer: D — 1.72 lakh
PIB 2095052: Ayushman Arogya Mandir centres reached the 1.72 lakh mark by FY 2023-24.
Consider the following about NHM achievements (2021-24) placed before the Cabinet: 1. TB incidence fell from 237 per lakh population in 2015 to 195 in 2023. 2. India's decline in MMR since 1990 was lower than the global decline. 3. NHM engaged over 12 lakh additional healthcare workers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
PIB 2095052: TB incidence fell from 237 to 195 and NHM engaged over 12 lakh additional workers; India's MMR decline (83%) exceeded the global 45%.
At which meeting did Odisha's State Level Single Window Clearance Authority approve 17 projects worth ₹3,883.72 crore on 22 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 134th
Sambad English and ET: the projects were approved at the 134th SLSWCA meeting.
Who chaired the 134th meeting of Odisha's State Level Single Window Clearance Authority?
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Correct answer: B — Chief Secretary Manoj Ahuja
Sambad English and ET: the meeting was chaired by Chief Secretary Manoj Ahuja.
With which company did Maharashtra sign its largest MoU, worth ₹3,05,000 crore, at Davos in January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Reliance Industries
ET (citing CMO Maharashtra): the largest MoU was with Reliance Industries, worth ₹3,05,000 crore.
How many MoUs worth ₹15.70 lakh crore had Maharashtra signed at Davos by 22 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 54
ET: Maharashtra had signed 54 MoUs worth ₹15.70 lakh crore over two days, the government stated on 22 January.
What target for Geographical Indication (GI) tags did the Commerce Minister set at the GI Samagam in January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 10,000 GI tags by 2030
PIB 2095279: Piyush Goyal set a target of 10,000 GI tags by 2030.
How many GI tags had been issued by the department as of 22 January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 605
PIB 2095279: the number of GI tags issued by the department till date stands at 605.
Consider the following about the GI Samagam (January 2025): 1. It was organised by DPIIT and the India Today Group in New Delhi. 2. A committee will be constituted to oversee the 10,000 GI tag target. 3. Authorised users of GI tags fell over the last 10 years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2095279: DPIIT and India Today Group organised the Samagam and a committee will oversee the target; authorised users rose from 365 to 29,000.
How many net members did EPFO add in November 2024, as per payroll data released in January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — 14.63 lakh
PIB 2095007: EPFO recorded a net addition of 14.63 lakh members in November 2024.
What share of EPFO's new members in November 2024 came from the 18–25 age group?
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Correct answer: B — 54.97%
PIB 2095007: 4.81 lakh new members aged 18–25 made up 54.97% of new members in November 2024.
Consider the following about EPFO payroll data for November 2024: 1. Net member addition was 14.63 lakh. 2. New member enrolment fell compared with October 2024. 3. The 18–25 age group made up less than half of new members. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 only
PIB 2095007: net addition was 14.63 lakh; new members rose 16.58% over October 2024; the 18–25 group was 54.97% of new members.
The Vidyadhiraja Vidyapeetom Sainik School, inaugurated on 22 January 2025, is in which district of Kerala?
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Correct answer: D — Alappuzha
PIB 2095125: Rajnath Singh inaugurated the school in Alappuzha district of Kerala.
How many new Sainik Schools are being set up in partnership mode, of which the Alappuzha school is one?
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Correct answer: A — 100
PIB 2095125: the school is among 100 new Sainik Schools in partnership mode, besides 33 existing ones.
From when will the Diamond Imprest Authorization Scheme, introduced in January 2025, be implemented?
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Correct answer: D — 1 April 2025
PIB 2094862: the DIA Scheme will be implemented with effect from 1 April 2025.
The Diamond Imprest Authorization Scheme allows duty-free import of natural cut and polished diamonds of what size?
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Correct answer: A — Less than ¼ carat (25 cents)
PIB 2094862: the scheme allows duty-free import of natural cut and polished diamonds of less than ¼ carat (25 cents).
Consider the following about the Diamond Imprest Authorization Scheme: 1. It mandates an export obligation with 10% value addition. 2. Exporters with Two Star Export House status and above and US$15 million annual exports are eligible. 3. It allows duty-free import of lab-grown diamonds. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2094862: the scheme requires 10% value addition and is open to Two Star Export Houses with US$15 million exports; it covers natural cut and polished diamonds.
Where did Meghalaya Chief Minister Conrad K. Sangma launch the revised state anthem on the 53rd Statehood Day?
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Correct answer: C — Jowai
India Today NE and Hub Network: the revised anthem was launched at the anniversary celebration in Jowai on 21 January 2025.
In which year was Meghalaya carved out of Assam as a separate state, an anniversary marked every 21 January?
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Correct answer: A — 1972
TOI and The Shillong Times: Meghalaya, earlier part of Assam, became a full-fledged state on 21 January 1972.
Which body organised the second meeting of the BIMSTEC Expert Group on Cyber Security Cooperation in January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — National Security Council Secretariat
PIB 2095700: the National Security Council Secretariat organised the meeting on 21 January 2025 in New Delhi.
Over what timeframe is the BIMSTEC cyber security Action Plan proposed to be implemented?
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Correct answer: C — 5 years
PIB 2095700: the Action Plan has been proposed to be implemented within 5 years.
Consider the following about the BIMSTEC Expert Group on Cyber Security Cooperation: 1. Its second meeting was held in New Delhi on 21 January 2025. 2. Its first meeting was hosted by India in 2022. 3. The proposed Action Plan covers protection of critical information infrastructure. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1, 2 and 3
PIB 2095700: the second meeting was in New Delhi on 21 January 2025, India hosted the first in 2022, and the Action Plan covers critical information infrastructure.
How many TEUs did Jawaharlal Nehru Port handle in 2024, its highest ever?
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Correct answer: B — 7.05 million TEUs
PIB 2094901: in 2024 the port handled its highest ever container volume of 7.05 million TEUs.
How much capacity did the second phase of the Bharat Mumbai Container Terminal add to JNPA in January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — 2.4 million TEUs
PIB 2094901: commissioning of BMCT Phase 2 in January 2025 added 2.4 million TEUs to JNPA's capacity.
Which port became India's largest by crossing 10 million TEUs of capacity in January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Jawaharlal Nehru Port, Mumbai
PIB 2094901: JNPA became India's largest port by crossing 10+ million TEUs capacity in January 2025.
How many T-72 Bridge Laying Tanks did the Ministry of Defence contract for in January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 47
PIB 2094857: the contract is for 47 T-72 Bridge Laying Tanks at ₹1,560.52 crore.
Which unit will supply the 47 T-72 Bridge Laying Tanks to the Indian Army?
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Correct answer: D — Heavy Vehicles Factory, AVNL
PIB 2094857: the contract was signed with Heavy Vehicles Factory, a unit of Armoured Vehicle Nigam Limited.
Under which procurement category was the January 2025 contract for T-72 Bridge Laying Tanks placed?
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Correct answer: C — Buy (Indian-IDDM)
PIB 2094857: the case is a Buy (Indian-Indigenously Designed Developed and Manufactured) procurement.
What was the focus of the 27th PM-STIAC meeting held on 21 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Cell and gene therapy
PIB 2094915: the 27th PM-STIAC meeting discussed cell and gene therapy in India.
Who chaired the 27th meeting of PM-STIAC?
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Correct answer: B — Prof. Ajay Kumar Sood
PIB 2094915: the meeting was chaired by Principal Scientific Adviser Prof. Ajay Kumar Sood.
Where was the 85th All India Presiding Officers Conference held in January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Patna
PIB 2094919: Om Birla addressed the valedictory session of the 85th AIPOC in Patna.
How many resolutions did the 85th All India Presiding Officers Conference adopt?
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Correct answer: C — 5
PIB 2094919: the 85th AIPOC adopted five resolutions.
Consider the following about the 85th All India Presiding Officers Conference: 1. It concluded in Patna on 21 January 2025. 2. One of its resolutions concerned the use of digital technology. 3. Its valedictory session was addressed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2094919: the AIPOC concluded in Patna and adopted a resolution on digital technology; the valedictory session was addressed by Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla.
To what level has India's social protection coverage doubled, as acknowledged at the ISSA seminar in New Delhi in January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 48.8%
PIB 2094922: India's progress in doubling social protection coverage to 48.8% was acknowledged at the forum.
With which international organisation did the Labour Ministry and ESIC host the January 2025 seminar on social security for informal-sector workers?
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Correct answer: A — International Social Security Association
PIB 2094922: the seminar was hosted by the Ministry of Labour and Employment and ESIC in collaboration with the International Social Security Association (ISSA).
Who administered the presidential oath to Donald Trump on 20 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Chief Justice John G. Roberts Jr.
Congressional Record: Chief Justice John G. Roberts Jr. administered the presidential oath.
Consider the following statements about the US inauguration on 20 January 2025: 1. Donald Trump was sworn in as the 47th President. 2. The vice-presidential oath to JD Vance was administered by Chief Justice John G. Roberts Jr. 3. The ceremony was held in the Great Rotunda. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 3 only
Congressional Record: Trump was sworn in as the 47th President in the Great Rotunda; Associate Justice Brett Kavanaugh, not the Chief Justice, administered Vance's oath.
Who administered the vice-presidential oath to JD Vance on 20 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Associate Justice Brett Kavanaugh
Congressional Record: Associate Justice Brett Kavanaugh administered the vice-presidential oath to James David Vance.
The KOICA-assisted project 'Strengthening Vocational Education and Training in Mechatronics in India', for which notes were exchanged on 20 January 2025, will be implemented by NCERT at which institute?
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Correct answer: D — RIE Bhopal
PIB 2095225: NCERT will implement the project at the Regional Institute of Education (RIE), Bhopal.
Consider the following statements about India–Korea development cooperation: 1. The NCERT mechatronics project is the first KOICA-assisted project in India. 2. Korea was designated India's ODA partner in October 2016. 3. India–Korea ties were upgraded to a Special Strategic Partnership in 2018. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2095225: it is the first KOICA-assisted project in India and Korea became an ODA partner in October 2016; the Special Strategic Partnership dates from 2015, not 2018.
Who signed the Exchange of Notes for the KOICA mechatronics project on behalf of the Government of India on 20 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Manisha Sinha
PIB 2095225: Manisha Sinha, Additional Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs, signed for India.
Where was the National Tribal Health Conclave 2025 held on 20 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
PIB 2094806: the conclave was organised on 20 January 2025 at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.
The Bhagwan Birsa Munda Chair of Tribal Health and Haematology, highlighted at the National Tribal Health Conclave 2025, is established at which institution?
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Correct answer: C — AIIMS Delhi
PIB 2094806: the Bhagwan Birsa Munda Chair of Tribal Health and Haematology is established at AIIMS Delhi.
Consider the following statements about the National Tribal Health Conclave 2025: 1. It was organised under the Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan. 2. Letters of Intent were exchanged with AIIMS Delhi for adopting a tribal block in Jharkhand. 3. 15 Centres of Competence for sickle cell diagnosis have been sanctioned in 14 states. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: C — 1 and 3 only
PIB 2094806: the conclave was under DAJGUA and 15 CoCs are sanctioned in 14 states; the tribal block to be adopted with AIIMS Delhi is in Odisha, not Jharkhand.
How many companies were provisionally selected in the third round of the PLI Scheme for White Goods announced on 20 January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 24
PIB 2094465: 24 beneficiaries (18 new + 6 existing) were selected, committing ₹3,516 crore.
The PLI Scheme for White Goods covers components of which two products?
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Correct answer: B — Air conditioners and LED lights
PIB 2094465: the PLI Scheme for White Goods covers air conditioners and LED lights.
Consider the following statements about the PLI Scheme for White Goods: 1. It was approved by the Union Cabinet on 7 April 2021 with an outlay of ₹6,238 crore. 2. After the third round, 84 companies under the scheme are set to invest ₹10,478 crore. 3. The scheme runs from FY 2021-22 to FY 2025-26. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2094465: the Cabinet approved it on 7 April 2021 with ₹6,238 crore and 84 companies will invest ₹10,478 crore; the scheme period is FY 2021-22 to FY 2028-29.
Which digital platform for mineral resource management was launched at the 3rd National Mining Ministers' Conference in Konark on 20 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Mining Tenement System
PIB 2094586: G. Kishan Reddy and Mohan Charan Majhi launched the Mining Tenement System (MTS).
The fifth tranche of critical mineral block auctions, launched at Konark on 20 January 2025, offered how many blocks?
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Correct answer: B — 15
PIB 2094586: the fifth tranche offers 15 blocks across eight states.
Consider the following statements made at the 3rd National Mining Ministers' Conference: 1. 75% of mining block auctions have been held in the last four years. 2. Odisha contributed ₹1.33 lakh crore in mineral revenue over the past decade. 3. The fifth tranche of critical mineral blocks covers 15 states. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB 2094586: Mines Secretary V.L. Kantha Rao cited 75% auctions in four years and ₹1.33 lakh crore from Odisha; the fifth tranche has 15 blocks in eight states, not 15 states.
Which programme has been included for the first time under the Prime Minister's Awards for Excellence in Public Administration 2024?
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Correct answer: B — Aspirational Blocks Programme
PIB 2094589: for the first time, the Aspirational Blocks Programme has been included under the PM's Award Scheme.
How many awards are there under the Prime Minister's Awards for Excellence in Public Administration 2024?
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Correct answer: C — 16
PIB 2094589: the 2024 scheme recognises civil servants through 16 awards in three categories.
What prize money will each awardee of the Prime Minister's Awards for Excellence in Public Administration 2024 receive?
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Correct answer: D — ₹20 lakh
PIB 2094589: the prize money for PM's Awards 2024 awardees will be ₹20 lakh each.
Which team did India beat in both the men's and women's finals of the inaugural Kho Kho World Cup in January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Nepal
The Hindu and Sportstar: India beat Nepal 78-40 in the women's final and 54-36 in the men's final.
Who captained the Indian men's team that won the inaugural Kho Kho World Cup?
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Correct answer: C — Pratik Waikar
The Hindu and Sportstar: captain Pratik Waikar led the men's team to a 54-36 win over Nepal.
Consider the following statements about the Kho Kho World Cup 2025 finals: 1. The finals were held at the Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium, New Delhi. 2. The Indian women's team was led by Priyanka Ingle. 3. The Indian men's team won the final 78-40. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: D — 1 and 2 only
The Hindu: the finals were at the Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium and skipper Priyanka Ingle led the women; 78-40 was the women's score, while the men won 54-36.
Which three countries mediated the Gaza ceasefire that took effect on 19 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Egypt, Qatar and the United States
UN OCHA: the ceasefire came into effect through mediation by Egypt, Qatar and the United States.
How long is the first phase of the Gaza ceasefire that took effect on 19 January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — 42 days
UN OCHA: the first phase of the ceasefire is 42 days.
Consider the following statements about the first day of the Gaza ceasefire (19 January 2025): 1. Three Israeli women hostages were handed over via the ICRC. 2. 90 Palestinian detainees were released. 3. Fewer than 100 aid trucks entered Gaza that day. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 2 only
UN OCHA and UN News: three women hostages were released via the ICRC and 90 Palestinian detainees were freed; more than 630 aid trucks entered Gaza that day.
With which European Commissioner did Piyush Goyal hold a High Level Dialogue in Brussels on 18–19 January 2025?
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Correct answer: B — Maroš Šefčovič
PIB 2094362: Goyal met Maroš Šefčovič, European Commissioner for Trade and Economic Security.
Consider the following statements about the Goyal–Šefčovič High Level Dialogue of January 2025: 1. It was the first in-person meeting between the two leaders. 2. It was held in New Delhi. 3. Goyal outlined six principles for an India–EU partnership. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 3 only
PIB 2094362: it was their first in-person meeting and Goyal outlined six principles; the dialogue was held in Brussels, not New Delhi.
At the January 2025 India–EU High Level Dialogue, Piyush Goyal estimated the combined India–EU market at over how much?
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Correct answer: D — $24 trillion
PIB 2094362: Goyal described the combined market as currently estimated at over $24 trillion, with 2 billion people.
Who won the women's singles title at the India Open 2025 badminton tournament?
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Correct answer: A — An Se-young
TOI and Sportstar: An Se-young beat Pornpawee Chochuwong 21-12, 21-9 in the women's singles final.
The India Open 2025 badminton tournament, held in New Delhi in January 2025, was played at which tournament level?
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Correct answer: C — Super 750
TOI and Sportstar: the India Open 2025 was a Super 750 tournament.
Consider the following statements about the India Open 2025: 1. Viktor Axelsen won his third India Open title in his sixth final. 2. An Se-young won her first India Open title. 3. A Chinese pair won the mixed doubles. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: B — 1 and 3 only
TOI and Sportstar: Axelsen won his third title in his sixth final and China's Jiang Zhenbang/Wei Yaxin won the mixed doubles; it was An Se-young's second India Open title.
After EPFO's January 2025 simplification of PF transfers, about what share of transfer claims is expected to reach EPFO directly without employer intervention?
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Correct answer: D — 94%
PIB 2094230: over 1.20 crore of 1.30 crore transfer claims, about 94%, are expected to be forwarded directly to EPFO.
What share of EPFO members' grievances relate to PF transfer issues, according to EPFO in January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — 17%
PIB 2094230: presently 17% of total grievances pertain to transfer-related issues.
Where was the 20th Raising Day ceremony of the NDRF held on 19 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Vijayawada
PIB 2094319: Amit Shah attended the NDRF's 20th Raising Day ceremony in Vijayawada, Andhra Pradesh.
Which of the following was NOT among the projects launched at the NDRF's 20th Raising Day on 19 January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — A new NDRF headquarters in New Delhi
PIB 2094319: the projects included the NIDM South Campus, the NDRF 10th Battalion and the Supaul campus of the Regional Response Centre; no new headquarters was mentioned.
Who was the Director General of the NDRF at its 20th Raising Day ceremony in January 2025?
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Correct answer: D — Piyush Anand
PIB 2094319: NDRF Director General Piyush Anand was present at the ceremony.
In which city did the Divya Kala Mela conclude on 19 January 2025?
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Correct answer: C — Vadodara
PIB 2094376: the closing ceremony was held at Akota Stadium, Vadodara.
Which organisation's CMD said the Vadodara Divya Kala Mela of January 2025 was the 23rd such fair?
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Correct answer: B — NDFDC
PIB 2094376: NDFDC CMD Navin Shah said this was the 23rd fair.
How many property cards did PM Narendra Modi distribute under the SVAMITVA scheme on 18 January 2025?
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Correct answer: A — Over 65 lakh
PIB (Ministry of Panchayati Raj): over 65 lakh property cards were distributed on 18 January 2025, taking the total to 2.25 crore.
The SVAMITVA scheme is implemented by which Union Ministry?
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Correct answer: C — Ministry of Panchayati Raj
PIB: SVAMITVA is a scheme of the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, whose Minister Rajiv Ranjan Singh attended the 18 January 2025 ceremony.
With the 18 January 2025 distribution, the total number of property cards issued under SVAMITVA reached:
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Correct answer: B — 2.25 crore
PIB: the distribution took the total number of property cards under SVAMITVA to 2.25 crore.
Consider the following statements about the SVAMITVA property card distribution on 18 January 2025: 1. It covered more than 50,000 villages across 237 districts. 2. The Union Territories covered were Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh. 3. Tamil Nadu and Kerala were among the 10 states covered. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Correct answer: A — 1 and 2 only
PIB: the ceremony covered 50,000+ villages in 237 districts, in 10 states and the UTs of J&K and Ladakh. The 10 states were Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Mizoram, Odisha, Punjab, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh, not Tamil Nadu or Kerala.
In January 2025, the Union Home Minister ordered an Inter-Ministerial Team to ascertain the causes of deaths in which district of Jammu and Kashmir?
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Correct answer: D — Rajouri
PIB (MHA): the team was to visit the affected village in Jammu's Rajouri district to ascertain the causes of deaths in 3 incidents.
Experts from which of the following Ministries were NOT listed as part of the Inter-Ministerial Team on the Rajouri deaths?
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Correct answer: D — Ministry of Earth Sciences
PIB (MHA): the team comprised experts from the Ministries of Health and Family Welfare, Agriculture, Chemicals and Fertilizers, and Water Resources. Earth Sciences was not listed.